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2015 7LVL 2AX7X CDC

QuestionAnswerWrong Answer
To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed? 001 On a pre-planned and scheduled basis.
Using equipment generates what type of maintenance? 001 Corrective (unscheduled) maintenance.
What are two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance? 001 On-equipment and off-equipment.
Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose? 001 Highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance, equipment, training, or processes.
What should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas? 001 Relevant background information and history.
What are two major goals if Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001 Increase local repair capability where appropriate, and to reduce the overall cast of operations.
In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance? 002 Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot.
Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment, at the backshop level? 002 Intermediate
What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility? 002 Depot
What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level? 002 The 2 Level Maintenance (2LM) approach Banana
What type of facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from multiple bases to one location? 002 A Regional Repair Center.
What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities? 002 Centralized Repair Facility
How can a successful R&M program be defined? 003 One that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capability.
What is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG) 003 Address product deficiencies affecting R&M that the field unit cannot resolve and to resolve Deficiency Reports (DR) that the Single Manager assigns to them.
Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs the PIWG? 003 The Single Manager
As an end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process? 003 Identify deficiencies, and properly submit reports.
Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or schedule risks to the project or life cycle support of the system, or results in a production stoppage and no acceptable workaround is know? 003 1E
Which DR priority results in inconvenience or annoyance for development or maintenance for development or maintenance personnel but does not prevent the accomplishment of the task? 003 2D
Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause death,severe injury, or severe occupational illness and no workaround is known? 003 1A
Which DR priority has other effects, such as enhancements having little or no impact to OSS&E under current requirements? 003 2E
Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system and no workaround is known? 003 1B
Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and adequate performance is achieved through significant compensation or acceptable workaround? 003 2A
Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or scheduled risks to the project or to life cycle support of the system but an acceptable workaround is known? 003 2B
Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and no acceptable workaround is known? 003 1D
Which DR priority prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability or critically restricts OSS&E, to include interaction with other mission critical platforms or systems, and no acceptable workaround is known? 003 1C
Which DR priority does not affect capability but may result in user/operator inconvenience or annoyance? 003 2C
When the scope of an OI will cross organizational group lines, at what level should it be published? 004 Wing Level
What office assumes responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it? 004 Office of primary responsibilty
Can an AF civilian service employee act as the POC for an OI? 004 Yes
Which section acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guide in the MXG? 004 Quality Assurance
What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command? 004 Inter-Command
What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SAs? 004 Programs and Resources Flight
What is the most important thing you must know about SAs? 004 Learn what is in them.
What is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment? 005 A permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment, including aircraft engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components.
Who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting? 005 Item Managers
For aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95s not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from another location? 005 When the gaining location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve the historical information.
During what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotor blades have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95? 005 Upon transfer into the disposal system.
Upon transfer to engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for? 005 The maintenance facility that preserves the engine.
What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for? 005 To document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels
Which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS? 006 IMDS-CDB
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks engines/components for time change? 006 Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS)
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment? 006 Automatic Test Equipment Reporting System (ATERS)
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to create, schedule, and change work center events? 006 Maintenance Events
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem automates location of aircraft, missiles, and AGE? 006 Location
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the Maintenance Data Collection System? 006 Job Data Documentation
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors Estimated Time in Commission? 006 Status and Inventory Reporting
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem supports flying operation in three phases? 006 Operational Events
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows forecasting of TCTOs and Time Changes? 006 Inspection and Time Change
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring and control of TCTO progress? 006 Time Compliance Technical Order
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring of manpower resources? 006 Maintenance Personnel
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives capability to forecast and schedule training? 006 Training Management
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem can be used to order parts? 006 IMDS-CDB/SBSS
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives the ability to update aircraft operating time? 006 Automated Debriefing
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem updates/monitors approved/actual aircraft configuration? 006 Generic Configuration Status Accounting System (GCSAS)
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to prefill/print AFTO forms 781 A, J, AND K. column B? 006 Aircraft Automated Forms
In regards to the MIS data integrity, what are work center and shift supervisors responsible for doing? 006 Reviewing the data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control on a daily basis.
What section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual? 006 Maintenance Operations Flight Maintenance Management Analysis (MOF MMA) Section
What section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered into the MIS? 006 The section that entered the data.
As roadmaps, what can maintenance metrics, if used properly, help you determine? 007 Where you have been, where you're going, and how to get there.
What are two major categories that metrics are often divided into? 007 Leading and Lagging indicators
What type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007 Leading
What type of indicator shows firmly established trends? 007 Lagging
What is the percentage of aircraft that land in code 3 status called? 007 Break Rate (BR)
What is the average number of deferred discrepancies across the fleet of possessed aircraft called? 007 Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR)
The percentage of code 3 aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4,8 or 12 hours is called? 007 Fix Rate (FR)
What is the most important and accurate measure of the units maintenance quality called? 007 Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate
What are the average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month known as? 007 Utilization (UTE) Rate
What is the best known yardstick for measuring a units performance? 007 Mission Capable (MC) Rate
What is the average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons known as? 007 Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start of recovery? 008 Priority 2
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTOs, and TCIs? 008 Priority 4
What maintenance priority level should be assigned to perform routine maintenance of AGE and repair cycle assets? 008 Priority 5
If a change is made to the repair priority level, does the LRS parts delivery have to be changed to match it? 008 No
Although the "Wing Standup" meeting is used to keep the WG/CC updated about maintenance issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting? 009 Identifying and resolving issues/disagreements related to the schedules.
In addition to attending a monthly maintenance and flying schedule meeting, what does the WG/CC ensure at meetings with regard to MXG and OG interaction? 009 Ensure that MXG and OG participate in developing an annual maintenance and flying program, and a joint plan to ensure the best use of aircraft, equipment, and personnel.
Who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager? 009 Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)
In addition to ensuring effective FOD/DOP programs, what must the FOD/DOP manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis? 009 Chair the FOD and DOP prevention committee meetings.
Why is it important for the MXG/CC to standardize maintenance disciplines, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009 Leads to greater interoperability, improves maintenance quality, and ensures maintenance effectiveness.
As well as overseeing the development and publication of all maintenance-related OIs, what specific guidance must the MXG/CC establish for cannibalization responsibilities and actions? 009 Guidance on individual responsibilities and specific CANN actions.
Who is responsible for ensuring effective management of all maintenance training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequately train newly assigned MXG personnel? 009 MXG/CC
Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009 MXG/CD
Who does the MXG SUPT work directly for? 009 MXG/CC
Other than acting as a technical advisor, the MXG SUPT advises the MXG/CC on what type of issues? 009 Personnel, morale, and welfare issues, as well as on problems not identified through maintenance data systems or QA inspection reports.
What is the MXG SUPT's primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the MXG? 009 Serves as the Groups focal point for enlisted manning.
What responsibilities does a SQ/CC have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maintenance qualification programs? 010 He/she must emphasize the quality of the programs and not just focus on minimum upgrade time frames.
Even though SQ/CCs are ultimately responsible for unit deployment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness? 010 Unit Deployment Manager (UDM)
If squadron manning authorizations are not right, what can the SQ/CC do to help remedy the situation? 010 He/she can coordinate with the Wing Manpower Office, through the group maintaining manager, for assistance in preparing an ACR to alter his/her manning authorization.
What two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT? 010 MOF/CC & MOF SUPT
In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for? 010 Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO)
Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet? 010 MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT
Who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manager, weapons safety, and airfield management? 010 MOO/MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS
Who is responsible for reviewing and consolidating monthly maintenance plan inputs from the various MXS flights/section and for forwarding them to MOF PS&D? 010 MXS MOO with the assistance of the MX SUPT
Mi MOS, who are flight chiefs responsible to in the area of leadership, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel? 010 MOF/CC
With regards to job environment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of? 010 Any hazardous conditions they may encounter on the job.
Who is responsible for reviewing PRDs and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maintenance is being taken to correct the underlying problem? 010 AMU OIC or SUPT
Who chairs a daily maintenance production meeting to develop and modify the overall maintenance plan of attack? 010 AMU OIC or SUPT
What is the primary job of the section NCOIC/section chief? 010 To act as the first line manager and supervisor and to serve as the technical authority and advisor for his or her particular section?
What AF IMT should a section NCOIC use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his/her workers? 010 AF IMT 55
For section managed TMDE, what is a section NCOIC responsible for ensuring? 010 That maintenance and calibration requirements are accomplished.
The section NCOIC should ensure cross-utilization training requirements do not interfere with what? 010 Upgrade/qualification training
The section NCOIC should ensure his/her section is organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maintenance (POM) as possible without jeopardizing what? 010 Accountability and control procedures.
What is the primary job of an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010 Direct overall maintenance of his/her AMU
What is the grade required to be appointed as an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010 SNCO or civilian equivalent
If one is appointed, what is the primary job of the MX Pro Super? 010 To provide maintenance squadron specialist non-availability to MOC at the beginning of each shift, identify production requirements and shortfalls to his/her Officer/MX SUPT, and direct overall maintenance efforts to meet unit mission requirements.
Which MOF section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maintenance production and overall execution of the flying and maintenance schedules? 011 MOC
Who is responsible for appointing, in writing, a highly qualified individual to manage the Engine Health Management Program? 011 MXG/CC
Which MOF section is responsible for coordinating aircraft maintenance requirements and ensuring proper utilization scheduling between the OG and MXG and any other applicable external agencies? 011 PS&D
What is the primary mission of the Maintenance Management Analysis section? 011 To track, analyze, and present information to help the various levels of leadership assess the health of their units aircraft and equipment.
Other than teaching, what is the mission of the Maintenance Training Flight? 011 To serve as MXGs single point of contact for all training matters affecting maintenance and to be responsible for the overall management and contact of the Training Management subsystem of IMDS.
What are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron commanders with training matters? 011 Managing squadron enlisted specialty training programs
Is the MTF allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned AETC Training Detachment? 011 No
Programs and Resources Flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the MXG? 011 Manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment programs
Within the Programs and Resources Flight, who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey? 011 Logistics Planner
What are the standard sectons of an AMU? 012 Debrief, Aircraft, Specialists Weapons, and Support
What is the definition of an Aircraft Sortie? 012 The cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties
In addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight-line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur? 012 MOC & Pro Super
What are some of the references that flight-line expediters must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties? 012 Copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklists, base grid map with cordon overlay, IPI listing, MESL, QRL, WUC manual, and a tracking device for aircraft status.
Flight-line expediters must track the serial number, location, priority, status,ETIC, and configuration of all aircraft. What are some of the other items that must be tracked? 012 OAP condition codes, fuel load, munitions load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable.
What are some of the information elements that Debrief personnel enter into the aplicable MIS? 012 Discrepancy and deviation information, utilization, and applicable flight data (including landing status, system capability, and other applicable cause codes)
Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying operations? 012 Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super
What are some of the entries that Debrief must ensure the aircraft commander/pilot makes on the applicable AFTO 781 IMTs/Forms during the debrief session? 012 New discrepancies noted, aircraft condition codes, flying time, servicing data, and any other required entries
What does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition? 012 Aircraft or system has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment within normal turnaround times.
What are three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the Aircraft Section? 012 Dedicated, Assistant Dedicated, and Flying Crew Chiefs
In a general sense, what are DCCs and ADCCs charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft? 012 Managing and supervising all maintenance on their assigned aircraft
The specialist section is normally responsible for what duties? 012 Aircraft troubleshooting, on equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management
Why is the specialist section NCOIC responsible for promoting cross-talk with other unit specialist sections? 012 To obtain information on system/component repeat, recur, and CND trends.
Which specialist is responsible for maintaining ECS, bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems? 012 E&E specialists
Who must the specialist expediters coordinate with in determining maintenance priorities for specialist support? 012 Pro Super and flight-line expediter
What are the two standard elements in an AMU Weapons Section? 012 Loading and Maintenance
Who serves as the key advisor to the AMXS MOO on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armament system capabilities for the AMU? 012 Weapons section NCOIC
What are weapons expediters responsible for monitoring with regard to the Weapons Section NCOIC? 012 Monitoring all armament system maintenance and loading operations
Who must the weapons expediter coordinate with for the delivery and pick up of all munitions? 012 MOC or Munitions Control
Who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft undergoing munitions loading and unloading? 012 Load Crew Chief
The NCOIC of the AMU Support Section must come from one of what two AFSCs? 012 2AXXX or 2WXXX
What is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to a support section? 012 12 months
What information must Supply Support personnel keep expediters updated on? 012 The status of all Back-Ordered parts
List the nine standard flights that make up the MXS. 013 Accessories, AGE, Armament, Avionics, Fabrication, Maintenance, Munitions, Propulsions, TMDE
If the MXS has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing? 013 They can separate the MXS into two squadrons: EMS and CMS
What sections are in a standard Accessories Flight? 013 E&E, Egress, Fuels, and Hydraulics
What Accessories Flight section is responsible for repairing oxygen and nitrogen servicing carts? 013 E&E
When egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the Egress Section request assistance from? 013 Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD)
What three sections normally make up the AGE flight? 013 Repai & Inspection; Servicing, Pick-up, and Delivery; and AGE Production Support
What AGE Flight section is responsible for maintaining TO files? 013 AGE Production Support
What is the overall mission of the Armament Section? 013 To perform off-equipment maintenance for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters.
Who does the Armament Flight CC/Chief assist in recommending distributions of 2W1X1 personnel to satisfy on- and off-equipment weapons release and gun system maintenance? 013 Wing Weapons Manager (WWM)
Which Armament Flight section coordinates with MOF PS&D in scheduling inspections, TCTOs, and time-changes? 013 Armament Maintenance
Which Avionics Flight section off-equipment maintenance and/or CND screening on communication and navigation components and systems, including assigned SE not maintained by TMDE? 013 Communications-Navigation
Which Avionics Flight section maintains LANTIRN pods? 013 Sensors
What section maintains, programs, and performs TCTOs on avionics components when the specified test stations and support equipment are available in the section? 013 Avionics Intermediate
What sections make up a Fabrication Flight? 013 Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Metals Tech, and NDI
What two Fabrication Flights are responsible for corrosion control? 013 Aircraft Structural Maintenance and Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance
What is Metals Technology section tasked with doing? 013 Inspecting, repairing, servicing, manufacturing, heat treating, testing, cleaning, and welding aircraft, equipment, components, and tools.
What four sections normally make up the Maintenance Flight? 013 Repair and Reclamation, Wheel and Tire, Aircraft Inspection, and Transient Alert.
Which maintenance flight removes, replaces, and rigs flight control surfaces? 013 Repair and Reclamation
What is the definition of Transient Aircraft? 013 Aircraft not assigned to the local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing.
Which Munitions Flight section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers? 013 Munitions Production
Which Munitions Flight section manages unit mobility and training programs? 013 Munitions Systems
Who acts as the wing focal point for propulsion maintenance programs and gives advice to wing leadership about propulsion issues? 013 Propulsion Flight CC/Chief
Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013 Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance (JEIM)
Which Propulsion Flight section is responsible for maintaining, managing, and storing engine support trailers? 013 Engine Equipment Maintenance
Which TMDE Flight section performs in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair using laboratory equipment and calibration standards? 013 PMEL
Who do the PMEL QA section evaluators report their inspection findings to? 013 TMDE Flight CC/Chief
What are the four elements of the TMDE Production Control section? 013 Customer Service, Production Scheduling, Traffic Management, and Maintenance Supply Liason
Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? 001 Preventive
What is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes? 001 Cross-Tells
Who is the Office of Primary Responsibilities (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001 MXG/CC
Which maintenance capability category is is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance? 002 Intermediate Level Maintenance
All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through who? 002 Quality Assuarance
What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations? 002 Centralized Repair Facility
What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability? 003 Reliability and Maintainability
Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that, if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known? 003 1B
Which maintenance group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors? 003 Quality Assuarnce
What is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e. a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)? 004 Operating Instruction
When OIs apply to multiple groups, they should be published as what? 004 Wing OIs
Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment? 005 AFTO IMT 95
Printed copies of AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to what locations? 005 Locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.
What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating times, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels? 005 AFTO IMT 95
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed on relationship between engine and components? 006 Comprehensive Engine Management System
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply actions? 006 Maintenance events
Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the MDC system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions? 006 Job Data Documentation (JDD)
Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual? 006 Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)
In addition to being familiar with with the units assigned weapon system(s), the squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least a...? 006 5-Level
What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability? 007 Metrics
What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators? 007 Leading and lagging
Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact the maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007 Leading
Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends? 007 Lagging
Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency? 008 Priority 1
Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program? 009 WG/CC
Who is personally responsible for managing the FOD/DOP programs? 009 WG/CV
Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009 MXG/CC
Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009 MXG/CD
Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance? 009 MXG SUPT
Who is help legally responsible for their units EPA program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042? 010 SQ/CC
Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents? 010 Maintenance Operations Squadron
Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT? 010 AF IMT 55
Section NCOICs are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, as long as they don't interfere with what? 010 Upgrade/Qualification Training
Section NCOICs must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials as close to the Point of Maintenance as possible without affecting what? 010 Accountability and control procedures
When a MX Pro Super is appointed, who must he/she inform of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift? 010 MOC
How many standard squadrons are in a MXG? 011 3
Which MOS flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health? 011 Maintenance Operations (MOF)
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of with IMDS-CDB subsystem? 011 Location
Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health tracking program? 011 Engine Management
Which Maintenance Operations Squadron section maintains standardized jacket-files and attends pre- and post-dock inspection meetings? 011 Plans, Scheduling and Documentation
The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections? 011 Training Management; Development and Instruction
What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft, and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations? 012 Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU)
What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting? 012 Fault Reporting Manuals
Who must ensure the applicable aircraft forms sets are provided to debrief at the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations? 012 Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super
The Aircraft Section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of assigned aircraft is greater than? 012 18
Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management? 012 Specialist Section
Which technician maintains aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components? 012 Electro-Environmental(E&E) Specialists
Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, -21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment? 012 Support section
Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Management Squadron, if maintenance manning exceeds how many people? 700
In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance? 013 Sub-pools
Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations? 012 Support section
Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation? 013 Guidance and Control Systems
Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining LANTIRN pods? 013 Sensors
Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet stringent standards of aerospace grade equipment? 013 Metals Technology
If a Refurbishment Flight is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight, or? 013 Fabrication Flight
Which Munitions Flight section recieves, stores, warehouses, handles, inventories, ships and, transports containers, dispensers, and training items? 013 Material
Which Propulsion Flight section store, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs, engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013 Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance
The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through what? 013 Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory
Where is there a list of AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? 201 Part 2 of the Career Field Education and Training Program
What type of aircraft maintenance training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convience? 201 Distance learning
Other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance related specialized course? 201 Aircraft Communication/Navigation Systems Course
Training Detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM? 201 Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight training course? 201 Maintenance Orientation
For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? 202 When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles, or associated equipment.
What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster? 202 Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment.
What form is used to add someone to a special certification roster? 202 AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notice
What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? 202 Decertify them and have them removed from the SCR for that task.
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what? 203 The technical qualifications, certifications and training status of weapons systems and support professionals Air Force wide
TBA allows all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? 203 Network access.
What provides notifications on TBA application problems,software release (problem corrections) projected downtimes and training update information? 203 The "System-Messages" Board
What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? 203 The role, or roles, you have been assigned by a role manager
What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application and not for operational unit training management activities? 203 TBA User Practice Environment
Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? 204 Phase 1
What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? 204 Lead Commands
What course must MSgts or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience? 204 Aircraft familiarization course.
What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? 204 Maintenance qualification training.
What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? 204 Phase III, Special Qualification Training (SQT).
What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? 205 That the initial training has not been performed or loaded.
When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course? 205 Any applicable pen-and-ink changes.
If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues? 205 AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? 205 Develop a master task list.
What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement? 205 If it is performed by 51 percent of more of personnel in the workcenter.
With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? 205 The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5- or 7-level.
What type of training tasks—both core and non-core—require third-party certification? 205 Critical Tasks
What is the quantitative expression representing manpower requirements in response to varying workload? 206 Manpower standards
What is the funded or unfunded statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program? 206 Manpower Requirement
What is the work that an organization is required to perform, but not given the manpower authorizations to do? 206 Unfunded mandate
What are positions deemed important by organizational leadership, but have not been validated called? 206 Out-of-Hide positions
What does the UMD provide a listing of? 206 Both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements.
What does the UPMR provide a listing of? 206 Unit authorizations (including gains and losses) by workcenter or FAC with the name and rank of the actual person filling each position.
What is a manning assist used for? 206 To alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high workload
Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours? 207 MXG/CC
What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel? 207 Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them.
Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuous duty period? 207 Personnel required to handle, load, or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives.
Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization? 207 It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing them to shift specific duties.
Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? 207 The Pro Super or MOO/ MX SUPT
With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD? 208 Maintenance Group
In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing? 208 Managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems.
Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters? 208 To identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems associated with supply support.
What is the purpose of a readiness spares package? 208 To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support planned wartime or contingency operations for a specified period of time pending resupply.
In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages? 208 Mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spares packages.
What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages? 208 It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system.
Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations? 208 To support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days.
What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages? 208 To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking.
What is the purpose of a bench stock? 209 To provide maintainers with quick access to items needed on a day-to-day basis.
If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together? 209 No
In addition to clearly identifying items as “Work Order Residue,” how should you also label them? 209 With noun, national stock number or part number, unit of issue, and shelf-life, if applicable.
Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items? 209 Any resource that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned-in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked—provided they are still serviceable.
What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item? 209 AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request.
What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? 209 AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request.
Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data? 209 MXG/CC or their designated representative.
What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)? 210 Any substance that is toxic or flammable—be it gas, liquid or solid—which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the environment.
What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response? 210 Local HAZMAT response plans
What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container? 210 Product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures.
What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker? 210 AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
What is used to document items that have been drained and purged? 210 AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation.
What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? 211 Block I.
What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? 211 Block III
What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian’s span of control? 211 AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt
What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey? 211 DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, or DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher
Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes? 211 XD or XF
Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established? 211 To promote the economic recovery of precious metals from excess and surplus materials
What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? 211 Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PMICs)? 211 To identify items that were obtained through supply that contain precious metals
Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? 212 XD or XF.
What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)? 212 Urgency of Need (UND) designator.
Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts? 212 Priority Monitor Report (D18).
Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? 212 Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23).
Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? 212 Due-Out Validation List (M30).
What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? 213 File cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets.
What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit? 213 AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt
Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation? 213 Installation commander
What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority “C” designation? 213 Security Response Team and a motorized patrol
What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority “A” designation? 213 Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority “A” assets, keep the aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control.
For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section’s organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed? 213 As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock number (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check.
Once a unit’s listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated? 213 Every 6 months.
If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can’t be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? 213 Not Reparable This Station (NRTS).
What do expedite supply requests represent? 214 An urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation
Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of “A” or “B.” What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? 214 01 thru 04
Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of “1”? 214 Within 30 minutes
What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment? MICAP requests
Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? 214 Customer Service at LRS or your local supply support section
When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets? 215 Requesting organization.
When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to? 215 LRS Supply Point Manager.
What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? 215 AF IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In Request.
Why are TNB storage locations established? 215 To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance
How are TNBs arranged? 215 By tail number, serial number, or identification number.
What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed? 215 Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed.
What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply? 216 Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR).
In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply? 216 An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets.
What is a support point as it relates to the DR process? 216 Any activity that assists the Action Point
Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for? 216 Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report.
What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs? 216 Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).
Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs? 216 Screening Point.
When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR? 216 When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit.
If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact? 216 Your MAJCOM
What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort? 217 To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use.
What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations? 217 Group: Lead TODO, Squadron: TODO, and Section: TODA.
What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? 217 Quality Assurance
What form should be used to establish a TODO account? 217 AFTO IMT 43.
For what purpose are checklists developed? 217 To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical.
What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? 218 Quality Assurance
Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? 218 The flight or section performing the TCTO
What form should be used to submit a TO change? 219 AFTO IMT 22.
What is a preliminary TO? 219 An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process
What are the two main types of TO changes? 219 Corrections and Improvements
When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? 219 48 hours after submission.
What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? 219 AF IMT 1000
Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? 220 Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment
How long does a TO waiver remain in effect? 220 Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver).
A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action? 221 That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time.
When may CA authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated? 221 In high priority circumstances, when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount time (i.e., red ball maintenance).
What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item? 221 The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the CANN action
Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations? 221 Concurrent CANN/inspection.
Which CANN program has the advantages of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability? 221 Consolidated CANN program.
What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area? 221 Antistatic, nonmetal wheels.
In addition to having enough signs stating “Caution, (or Danger) High Radiation Area” that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place? 221 A red rotating/flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier.
To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked? 221 Read/follow all applicable cautions, warnings and notes in the applicable TO.
Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time-frame? 221 Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission.
During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be reaccomplished if the aircraft status changes? 221 An exceptional release or conditional release.
To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running? 221 A safety observer
How can impoundment be defined? 221 The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be completed.
What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official? 221 MSgt or above (or civilian equivalent).
What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures? 221 Quality Assurance
Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment? 221 The Impoundment Official.
What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? 222 To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment
Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? 222 TO 32–1–101.
What does an MIL provide a listing of? 222 All contents in a particular CTK.
What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance? 222 Tool Accountability System (TAS).
Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment? 222 Wing Weapons Manger
The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called? 222 World Wide Identification (WWID) code
What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? 222 Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on-/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center
What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? 222 All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered.
Who is required to comply with FOD Program prevention directives? 223 All personnel (military, civilian, and contractors) working in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines and maintenance areas.
Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? 223 WG/CV.
Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV? 223 MXG/CC.
How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held if a unit’s FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard? 223 Monthly.
As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object? 223 Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned.
What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223 All wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft.
Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? 223 Local wing DOP program monitor
What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? 224 The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station
What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? 224 12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest.
What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? 224 AFI 21–101
What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of? 225 The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes.
Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? 225 Quality Assurance
Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? 225 QA OIC/SUPT
How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? 225 6 months
An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from? 225 Other MAJCOM agencies and field units.
If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive? 225 Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal, and Unsatisfactory
How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? 225 PASS/FAIL
How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? 225 .5%
When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? 225 AF, MAJCOM, and local directives
QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? 225 Acceptable quality level
A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? 225 Work Center Supervisor
What is the goal of the PIP program? 226 To identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability
How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? 226 By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting commander’s calls, presenting the program at maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas.
Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling? 226 With the ALC and LRS
What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s? 226 Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00–5–1.
If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with? 226 Affected agencies
When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine? 226 Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the unit’s control.
What does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do? 227 Determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft
What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing? 227 MOF PS&D.
What is a formal modification proposal? 227 A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment
Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment? 227 MAJCOM.
How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M? 227 Annually
In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system? 227 Lead Command
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)? 202 Semi-annually
In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of 202 MSgt
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time... 203 Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected down-times, and training update information? 203 Application problems
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training? 204 II
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses? 204 Maintenance qualification
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)? 205 Monthly
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required? 205 30
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)? 205 Unit training manager
Manpower authorizations are... 206 Funded
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held... 206 Monthly
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is how long? 207 12 Hours
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to how long? 207 16 hours
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems? 208 Maintenance supply liaison
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to which commander? 208 Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
What is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 208 Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days? 208 30
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock? 209 XB3
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? 209 30
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date? 209 II
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements? 209 MXG Commander
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? 209 Engineering Data Service Center.
What are obvious signs of pollution? 210 Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center? 210 Section supervisor
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? 210 AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? 211 Squadron Commander
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor? 211 IIB.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? 211 DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? 211 Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? 211 Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals? 211 C
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day? 212 D04, Daily Document Register.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A? 212 D18, Priority Monitor Report
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support? 212 M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms? 213 Host installation commander
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every... 213 3 Hours
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming? 213 Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? 214 Customer
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare? 214 AR or BR
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with? 215 LRS material management element.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor? 215 Semiannually.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify who? 215 MOC
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted? 216 Supply Discrepancy Report
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group? 216 Originating Point
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization? 216 Action Point
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within how long? 216 24 hours
What is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 217 Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) by owning and managing agencies?218 Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? 219 Quality Assurance
What are three technical order (TO) change priority categories? 219 Urgent, Routine, and Priority
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system? 220 A4U
Who designates cannibalization authorities? 221 Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify who? 221 Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
Do weapons loading operation institute a restricted maintenance area? 221 No
Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent what? 221 Aircraft status changes
Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? 221 Applicable Impoundment Authority
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? 222 MXG/CC
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? 222 9
The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within what section? 223 Quality Assurance
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident? 223 24
What, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223 Explosive Munitions
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW... 223 AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? 224 AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 225 Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days? 225 30
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? 225 Personnel Evaluation
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task? 225 Quality Verification Inspection
In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system? 227 Lead Command
Created by: ckeith04