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To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed? 001
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Using equipment generates what type of maintenance? 001
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2015 7LVL 2AX7X CDC
| Question | Answer | Wrong Answer |
|---|---|---|
| To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed? 001 | On a pre-planned and scheduled basis. | |
| Using equipment generates what type of maintenance? 001 | Corrective (unscheduled) maintenance. | |
| What are two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance? 001 | On-equipment and off-equipment. | |
| Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose? 001 | Highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance, equipment, training, or processes. | |
| What should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas? 001 | Relevant background information and history. | |
| What are two major goals if Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001 | Increase local repair capability where appropriate, and to reduce the overall cast of operations. | |
| In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance? 002 | Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot. | |
| Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment, at the backshop level? 002 | Intermediate | |
| What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility? 002 | Depot | |
| What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level? 002 | The 2 Level Maintenance (2LM) approach | Banana |
| What type of facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from multiple bases to one location? 002 | A Regional Repair Center. | |
| What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities? 002 | Centralized Repair Facility | |
| How can a successful R&M program be defined? 003 | One that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capability. | |
| What is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG) 003 | Address product deficiencies affecting R&M that the field unit cannot resolve and to resolve Deficiency Reports (DR) that the Single Manager assigns to them. | |
| Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs the PIWG? 003 | The Single Manager | |
| As an end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process? 003 | Identify deficiencies, and properly submit reports. | |
| Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or schedule risks to the project or life cycle support of the system, or results in a production stoppage and no acceptable workaround is know? 003 | 1E | |
| Which DR priority results in inconvenience or annoyance for development or maintenance for development or maintenance personnel but does not prevent the accomplishment of the task? 003 | 2D | |
| Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause death,severe injury, or severe occupational illness and no workaround is known? 003 | 1A | |
| Which DR priority has other effects, such as enhancements having little or no impact to OSS&E under current requirements? 003 | 2E | |
| Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system and no workaround is known? 003 | 1B | |
| Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and adequate performance is achieved through significant compensation or acceptable workaround? 003 | 2A | |
| Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or scheduled risks to the project or to life cycle support of the system but an acceptable workaround is known? 003 | 2B | |
| Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and no acceptable workaround is known? 003 | 1D | |
| Which DR priority prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability or critically restricts OSS&E, to include interaction with other mission critical platforms or systems, and no acceptable workaround is known? 003 | 1C | |
| Which DR priority does not affect capability but may result in user/operator inconvenience or annoyance? 003 | 2C | |
| When the scope of an OI will cross organizational group lines, at what level should it be published? 004 | Wing Level | |
| What office assumes responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it? 004 | Office of primary responsibilty | |
| Can an AF civilian service employee act as the POC for an OI? 004 | Yes | |
| Which section acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guide in the MXG? 004 | Quality Assurance | |
| What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command? 004 | Inter-Command | |
| What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SAs? 004 | Programs and Resources Flight | |
| What is the most important thing you must know about SAs? 004 | Learn what is in them. | |
| What is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment? 005 | A permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment, including aircraft engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components. | |
| Who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting? 005 | Item Managers | |
| For aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95s not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from another location? 005 | When the gaining location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve the historical information. | |
| During what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotor blades have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95? 005 | Upon transfer into the disposal system. | |
| Upon transfer to engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for? 005 | The maintenance facility that preserves the engine. | |
| What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for? 005 | To document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels | |
| Which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS? 006 | IMDS-CDB | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks engines/components for time change? 006 | Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment? 006 | Automatic Test Equipment Reporting System (ATERS) | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to create, schedule, and change work center events? 006 | Maintenance Events | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem automates location of aircraft, missiles, and AGE? 006 | Location | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the Maintenance Data Collection System? 006 | Job Data Documentation | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors Estimated Time in Commission? 006 | Status and Inventory Reporting | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem supports flying operation in three phases? 006 | Operational Events | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows forecasting of TCTOs and Time Changes? 006 | Inspection and Time Change | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring and control of TCTO progress? 006 | Time Compliance Technical Order | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring of manpower resources? 006 | Maintenance Personnel | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives capability to forecast and schedule training? 006 | Training Management | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem can be used to order parts? 006 | IMDS-CDB/SBSS | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives the ability to update aircraft operating time? 006 | Automated Debriefing | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem updates/monitors approved/actual aircraft configuration? 006 | Generic Configuration Status Accounting System (GCSAS) | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to prefill/print AFTO forms 781 A, J, AND K. column B? 006 | Aircraft Automated Forms | |
| In regards to the MIS data integrity, what are work center and shift supervisors responsible for doing? 006 | Reviewing the data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control on a daily basis. | |
| What section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual? 006 | Maintenance Operations Flight Maintenance Management Analysis (MOF MMA) Section | |
| What section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered into the MIS? 006 | The section that entered the data. | |
| As roadmaps, what can maintenance metrics, if used properly, help you determine? 007 | Where you have been, where you're going, and how to get there. | |
| What are two major categories that metrics are often divided into? 007 | Leading and Lagging indicators | |
| What type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007 | Leading | |
| What type of indicator shows firmly established trends? 007 | Lagging | |
| What is the percentage of aircraft that land in code 3 status called? 007 | Break Rate (BR) | |
| What is the average number of deferred discrepancies across the fleet of possessed aircraft called? 007 | Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR) | |
| The percentage of code 3 aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4,8 or 12 hours is called? 007 | Fix Rate (FR) | |
| What is the most important and accurate measure of the units maintenance quality called? 007 | Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate | |
| What are the average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month known as? 007 | Utilization (UTE) Rate | |
| What is the best known yardstick for measuring a units performance? 007 | Mission Capable (MC) Rate | |
| What is the average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons known as? 007 | Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate | |
| What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start of recovery? 008 | Priority 2 | |
| What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTOs, and TCIs? 008 | Priority 4 | |
| What maintenance priority level should be assigned to perform routine maintenance of AGE and repair cycle assets? 008 | Priority 5 | |
| If a change is made to the repair priority level, does the LRS parts delivery have to be changed to match it? 008 | No | |
| Although the "Wing Standup" meeting is used to keep the WG/CC updated about maintenance issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting? 009 | Identifying and resolving issues/disagreements related to the schedules. | |
| In addition to attending a monthly maintenance and flying schedule meeting, what does the WG/CC ensure at meetings with regard to MXG and OG interaction? 009 | Ensure that MXG and OG participate in developing an annual maintenance and flying program, and a joint plan to ensure the best use of aircraft, equipment, and personnel. | |
| Who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager? 009 | Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV) | |
| In addition to ensuring effective FOD/DOP programs, what must the FOD/DOP manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis? 009 | Chair the FOD and DOP prevention committee meetings. | |
| Why is it important for the MXG/CC to standardize maintenance disciplines, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009 | Leads to greater interoperability, improves maintenance quality, and ensures maintenance effectiveness. | |
| As well as overseeing the development and publication of all maintenance-related OIs, what specific guidance must the MXG/CC establish for cannibalization responsibilities and actions? 009 | Guidance on individual responsibilities and specific CANN actions. | |
| Who is responsible for ensuring effective management of all maintenance training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequately train newly assigned MXG personnel? 009 | MXG/CC | |
| Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009 | MXG/CD | |
| Who does the MXG SUPT work directly for? 009 | MXG/CC | |
| Other than acting as a technical advisor, the MXG SUPT advises the MXG/CC on what type of issues? 009 | Personnel, morale, and welfare issues, as well as on problems not identified through maintenance data systems or QA inspection reports. | |
| What is the MXG SUPT's primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the MXG? 009 | Serves as the Groups focal point for enlisted manning. | |
| What responsibilities does a SQ/CC have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maintenance qualification programs? 010 | He/she must emphasize the quality of the programs and not just focus on minimum upgrade time frames. | |
| Even though SQ/CCs are ultimately responsible for unit deployment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness? 010 | Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) | |
| If squadron manning authorizations are not right, what can the SQ/CC do to help remedy the situation? 010 | He/she can coordinate with the Wing Manpower Office, through the group maintaining manager, for assistance in preparing an ACR to alter his/her manning authorization. | |
| What two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT? 010 | MOF/CC & MOF SUPT | |
| In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for? 010 | Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO) | |
| Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet? 010 | MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT | |
| Who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manager, weapons safety, and airfield management? 010 | MOO/MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS | |
| Who is responsible for reviewing and consolidating monthly maintenance plan inputs from the various MXS flights/section and for forwarding them to MOF PS&D? 010 | MXS MOO with the assistance of the MX SUPT | |
| Mi MOS, who are flight chiefs responsible to in the area of leadership, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel? 010 | MOF/CC | |
| With regards to job environment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of? 010 | Any hazardous conditions they may encounter on the job. | |
| Who is responsible for reviewing PRDs and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maintenance is being taken to correct the underlying problem? 010 | AMU OIC or SUPT | |
| Who chairs a daily maintenance production meeting to develop and modify the overall maintenance plan of attack? 010 | AMU OIC or SUPT | |
| What is the primary job of the section NCOIC/section chief? 010 | To act as the first line manager and supervisor and to serve as the technical authority and advisor for his or her particular section? | |
| What AF IMT should a section NCOIC use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his/her workers? 010 | AF IMT 55 | |
| For section managed TMDE, what is a section NCOIC responsible for ensuring? 010 | That maintenance and calibration requirements are accomplished. | |
| The section NCOIC should ensure cross-utilization training requirements do not interfere with what? 010 | Upgrade/qualification training | |
| The section NCOIC should ensure his/her section is organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maintenance (POM) as possible without jeopardizing what? 010 | Accountability and control procedures. | |
| What is the primary job of an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010 | Direct overall maintenance of his/her AMU | |
| What is the grade required to be appointed as an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010 | SNCO or civilian equivalent | |
| If one is appointed, what is the primary job of the MX Pro Super? 010 | To provide maintenance squadron specialist non-availability to MOC at the beginning of each shift, identify production requirements and shortfalls to his/her Officer/MX SUPT, and direct overall maintenance efforts to meet unit mission requirements. | |
| Which MOF section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maintenance production and overall execution of the flying and maintenance schedules? 011 | MOC | |
| Who is responsible for appointing, in writing, a highly qualified individual to manage the Engine Health Management Program? 011 | MXG/CC | |
| Which MOF section is responsible for coordinating aircraft maintenance requirements and ensuring proper utilization scheduling between the OG and MXG and any other applicable external agencies? 011 | PS&D | |
| What is the primary mission of the Maintenance Management Analysis section? 011 | To track, analyze, and present information to help the various levels of leadership assess the health of their units aircraft and equipment. | |
| Other than teaching, what is the mission of the Maintenance Training Flight? 011 | To serve as MXGs single point of contact for all training matters affecting maintenance and to be responsible for the overall management and contact of the Training Management subsystem of IMDS. | |
| What are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron commanders with training matters? 011 | Managing squadron enlisted specialty training programs | |
| Is the MTF allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned AETC Training Detachment? 011 | No | |
| Programs and Resources Flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the MXG? 011 | Manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment programs | |
| Within the Programs and Resources Flight, who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey? 011 | Logistics Planner | |
| What are the standard sectons of an AMU? 012 | Debrief, Aircraft, Specialists Weapons, and Support | |
| What is the definition of an Aircraft Sortie? 012 | The cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties | |
| In addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight-line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur? 012 | MOC & Pro Super | |
| What are some of the references that flight-line expediters must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties? 012 | Copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklists, base grid map with cordon overlay, IPI listing, MESL, QRL, WUC manual, and a tracking device for aircraft status. | |
| Flight-line expediters must track the serial number, location, priority, status,ETIC, and configuration of all aircraft. What are some of the other items that must be tracked? 012 | OAP condition codes, fuel load, munitions load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable. | |
| What are some of the information elements that Debrief personnel enter into the aplicable MIS? 012 | Discrepancy and deviation information, utilization, and applicable flight data (including landing status, system capability, and other applicable cause codes) | |
| Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying operations? 012 | Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super | |
| What are some of the entries that Debrief must ensure the aircraft commander/pilot makes on the applicable AFTO 781 IMTs/Forms during the debrief session? 012 | New discrepancies noted, aircraft condition codes, flying time, servicing data, and any other required entries | |
| What does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition? 012 | Aircraft or system has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment within normal turnaround times. | |
| What are three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the Aircraft Section? 012 | Dedicated, Assistant Dedicated, and Flying Crew Chiefs | |
| In a general sense, what are DCCs and ADCCs charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft? 012 | Managing and supervising all maintenance on their assigned aircraft | |
| The specialist section is normally responsible for what duties? 012 | Aircraft troubleshooting, on equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management | |
| Why is the specialist section NCOIC responsible for promoting cross-talk with other unit specialist sections? 012 | To obtain information on system/component repeat, recur, and CND trends. | |
| Which specialist is responsible for maintaining ECS, bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems? 012 | E&E specialists | |
| Who must the specialist expediters coordinate with in determining maintenance priorities for specialist support? 012 | Pro Super and flight-line expediter | |
| What are the two standard elements in an AMU Weapons Section? 012 | Loading and Maintenance | |
| Who serves as the key advisor to the AMXS MOO on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armament system capabilities for the AMU? 012 | Weapons section NCOIC | |
| What are weapons expediters responsible for monitoring with regard to the Weapons Section NCOIC? 012 | Monitoring all armament system maintenance and loading operations | |
| Who must the weapons expediter coordinate with for the delivery and pick up of all munitions? 012 | MOC or Munitions Control | |
| Who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft undergoing munitions loading and unloading? 012 | Load Crew Chief | |
| The NCOIC of the AMU Support Section must come from one of what two AFSCs? 012 | 2AXXX or 2WXXX | |
| What is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to a support section? 012 | 12 months | |
| What information must Supply Support personnel keep expediters updated on? 012 | The status of all Back-Ordered parts | |
| List the nine standard flights that make up the MXS. 013 | Accessories, AGE, Armament, Avionics, Fabrication, Maintenance, Munitions, Propulsions, TMDE | |
| If the MXS has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing? 013 | They can separate the MXS into two squadrons: EMS and CMS | |
| What sections are in a standard Accessories Flight? 013 | E&E, Egress, Fuels, and Hydraulics | |
| What Accessories Flight section is responsible for repairing oxygen and nitrogen servicing carts? 013 | E&E | |
| When egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the Egress Section request assistance from? 013 | Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) | |
| What three sections normally make up the AGE flight? 013 | Repai & Inspection; Servicing, Pick-up, and Delivery; and AGE Production Support | |
| What AGE Flight section is responsible for maintaining TO files? 013 | AGE Production Support | |
| What is the overall mission of the Armament Section? 013 | To perform off-equipment maintenance for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters. | |
| Who does the Armament Flight CC/Chief assist in recommending distributions of 2W1X1 personnel to satisfy on- and off-equipment weapons release and gun system maintenance? 013 | Wing Weapons Manager (WWM) | |
| Which Armament Flight section coordinates with MOF PS&D in scheduling inspections, TCTOs, and time-changes? 013 | Armament Maintenance | |
| Which Avionics Flight section off-equipment maintenance and/or CND screening on communication and navigation components and systems, including assigned SE not maintained by TMDE? 013 | Communications-Navigation | |
| Which Avionics Flight section maintains LANTIRN pods? 013 | Sensors | |
| What section maintains, programs, and performs TCTOs on avionics components when the specified test stations and support equipment are available in the section? 013 | Avionics Intermediate | |
| What sections make up a Fabrication Flight? 013 | Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Metals Tech, and NDI | |
| What two Fabrication Flights are responsible for corrosion control? 013 | Aircraft Structural Maintenance and Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance | |
| What is Metals Technology section tasked with doing? 013 | Inspecting, repairing, servicing, manufacturing, heat treating, testing, cleaning, and welding aircraft, equipment, components, and tools. | |
| What four sections normally make up the Maintenance Flight? 013 | Repair and Reclamation, Wheel and Tire, Aircraft Inspection, and Transient Alert. | |
| Which maintenance flight removes, replaces, and rigs flight control surfaces? 013 | Repair and Reclamation | |
| What is the definition of Transient Aircraft? 013 | Aircraft not assigned to the local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing. | |
| Which Munitions Flight section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers? 013 | Munitions Production | |
| Which Munitions Flight section manages unit mobility and training programs? 013 | Munitions Systems | |
| Who acts as the wing focal point for propulsion maintenance programs and gives advice to wing leadership about propulsion issues? 013 | Propulsion Flight CC/Chief | |
| Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013 | Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance (JEIM) | |
| Which Propulsion Flight section is responsible for maintaining, managing, and storing engine support trailers? 013 | Engine Equipment Maintenance | |
| Which TMDE Flight section performs in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair using laboratory equipment and calibration standards? 013 | PMEL | |
| Who do the PMEL QA section evaluators report their inspection findings to? 013 | TMDE Flight CC/Chief | |
| What are the four elements of the TMDE Production Control section? 013 | Customer Service, Production Scheduling, Traffic Management, and Maintenance Supply Liason | |
| Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? 001 | Preventive | |
| What is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes? 001 | Cross-Tells | |
| Who is the Office of Primary Responsibilities (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001 | MXG/CC | |
| Which maintenance capability category is is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance? 002 | Intermediate Level Maintenance | |
| All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through who? 002 | Quality Assuarance | |
| What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations? 002 | Centralized Repair Facility | |
| What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability? 003 | Reliability and Maintainability | |
| Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that, if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known? 003 | 1B | |
| Which maintenance group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors? 003 | Quality Assuarnce | |
| What is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e. a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)? 004 | Operating Instruction | |
| When OIs apply to multiple groups, they should be published as what? 004 | Wing OIs | |
| Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment? 005 | AFTO IMT 95 | |
| Printed copies of AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to what locations? 005 | Locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. | |
| What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating times, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels? 005 | AFTO IMT 95 | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed on relationship between engine and components? 006 | Comprehensive Engine Management System | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply actions? 006 | Maintenance events | |
| Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the MDC system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions? 006 | Job Data Documentation (JDD) | |
| Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual? 006 | Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA) | |
| In addition to being familiar with with the units assigned weapon system(s), the squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least a...? 006 | 5-Level | |
| What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability? 007 | Metrics | |
| What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators? 007 | Leading and lagging | |
| Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact the maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007 | Leading | |
| Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends? 007 | Lagging | |
| Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency? 008 | Priority 1 | |
| Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program? 009 | WG/CC | |
| Who is personally responsible for managing the FOD/DOP programs? 009 | WG/CV | |
| Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009 | MXG/CC | |
| Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009 | MXG/CD | |
| Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance? 009 | MXG SUPT | |
| Who is help legally responsible for their units EPA program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042? 010 | SQ/CC | |
| Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents? 010 | Maintenance Operations Squadron | |
| Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT? 010 | AF IMT 55 | |
| Section NCOICs are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, as long as they don't interfere with what? 010 | Upgrade/Qualification Training | |
| Section NCOICs must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials as close to the Point of Maintenance as possible without affecting what? 010 | Accountability and control procedures | |
| When a MX Pro Super is appointed, who must he/she inform of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift? 010 | MOC | |
| How many standard squadrons are in a MXG? 011 | 3 | |
| Which MOS flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health? 011 | Maintenance Operations (MOF) | |
| The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of with IMDS-CDB subsystem? 011 | Location | |
| Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health tracking program? 011 | Engine Management | |
| Which Maintenance Operations Squadron section maintains standardized jacket-files and attends pre- and post-dock inspection meetings? 011 | Plans, Scheduling and Documentation | |
| The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections? 011 | Training Management; Development and Instruction | |
| What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft, and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations? 012 | Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) | |
| What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting? 012 | Fault Reporting Manuals | |
| Who must ensure the applicable aircraft forms sets are provided to debrief at the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations? 012 | Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super | |
| The Aircraft Section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of assigned aircraft is greater than? 012 | 18 | |
| Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management? 012 | Specialist Section | |
| Which technician maintains aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components? 012 | Electro-Environmental(E&E) Specialists | |
| Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, -21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment? 012 | Support section | |
| Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Management Squadron, if maintenance manning exceeds how many people? | 700 | |
| In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance? 013 | Sub-pools | |
| Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations? 012 | Support section | |
| Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation? 013 | Guidance and Control Systems | |
| Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining LANTIRN pods? 013 | Sensors | |
| Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet stringent standards of aerospace grade equipment? 013 | Metals Technology | |
| If a Refurbishment Flight is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight, or? 013 | Fabrication Flight | |
| Which Munitions Flight section recieves, stores, warehouses, handles, inventories, ships and, transports containers, dispensers, and training items? 013 | Material | |
| Which Propulsion Flight section store, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs, engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013 | Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance | |
| The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through what? 013 | Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory | |
| Where is there a list of AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? 201 | Part 2 of the Career Field Education and Training Program | |
| What type of aircraft maintenance training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convience? 201 | Distance learning | |
| Other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance related specialized course? 201 | Aircraft Communication/Navigation Systems Course | |
| Training Detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM? 201 | Air Education and Training Command (AETC) | |
| The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight training course? 201 | Maintenance Orientation | |
| For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? 202 | When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles, or associated equipment. | |
| What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster? 202 | Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment. | |
| What form is used to add someone to a special certification roster? 202 | AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notice | |
| What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? 202 | Decertify them and have them removed from the SCR for that task. | |
| Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what? 203 | The technical qualifications, certifications and training status of weapons systems and support professionals Air Force wide | |
| TBA allows all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? 203 | Network access. | |
| What provides notifications on TBA application problems,software release (problem corrections) projected downtimes and training update information? 203 | The "System-Messages" Board | |
| What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? 203 | The role, or roles, you have been assigned by a role manager | |
| What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application and not for operational unit training management activities? 203 | TBA User Practice Environment | |
| Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? 204 | Phase 1 | |
| What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? 204 | Lead Commands | |
| What course must MSgts or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience? 204 | Aircraft familiarization course. | |
| What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? 204 | Maintenance qualification training. | |
| What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? 204 | Phase III, Special Qualification Training (SQT). | |
| What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? 205 | That the initial training has not been performed or loaded. | |
| When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course? 205 | Any applicable pen-and-ink changes. | |
| If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues? 205 | AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet. | |
| When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? 205 | Develop a master task list. | |
| What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement? 205 | If it is performed by 51 percent of more of personnel in the workcenter. | |
| With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? 205 | The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5- or 7-level. | |
| What type of training tasks—both core and non-core—require third-party certification? 205 | Critical Tasks | |
| What is the quantitative expression representing manpower requirements in response to varying workload? 206 | Manpower standards | |
| What is the funded or unfunded statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program? 206 | Manpower Requirement | |
| What is the work that an organization is required to perform, but not given the manpower authorizations to do? 206 | Unfunded mandate | |
| What are positions deemed important by organizational leadership, but have not been validated called? 206 | Out-of-Hide positions | |
| What does the UMD provide a listing of? 206 | Both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements. | |
| What does the UPMR provide a listing of? 206 | Unit authorizations (including gains and losses) by workcenter or FAC with the name and rank of the actual person filling each position. | |
| What is a manning assist used for? 206 | To alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high workload | |
| Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours? 207 | MXG/CC | |
| What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel? 207 | Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them. | |
| Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuous duty period? 207 | Personnel required to handle, load, or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives. | |
| Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization? 207 | It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing them to shift specific duties. | |
| Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? 207 | The Pro Super or MOO/ MX SUPT | |
| With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD? 208 | Maintenance Group | |
| In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing? 208 | Managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems. | |
| Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters? 208 | To identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems associated with supply support. | |
| What is the purpose of a readiness spares package? 208 | To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support planned wartime or contingency operations for a specified period of time pending resupply. | |
| In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages? 208 | Mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spares packages. | |
| What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages? 208 | It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system. | |
| Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations? 208 | To support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days. | |
| What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages? 208 | To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking. | |
| What is the purpose of a bench stock? 209 | To provide maintainers with quick access to items needed on a day-to-day basis. | |
| If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together? 209 | No | |
| In addition to clearly identifying items as “Work Order Residue,” how should you also label them? 209 | With noun, national stock number or part number, unit of issue, and shelf-life, if applicable. | |
| Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items? 209 | Any resource that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned-in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked—provided they are still serviceable. | |
| What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item? 209 | AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request. | |
| What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? 209 | AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request. | |
| Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data? 209 | MXG/CC or their designated representative. | |
| What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)? 210 | Any substance that is toxic or flammable—be it gas, liquid or solid—which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the environment. | |
| What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response? 210 | Local HAZMAT response plans | |
| What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container? 210 | Product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures. | |
| What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker? 210 | AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record. | |
| What is used to document items that have been drained and purged? 210 | AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation. | |
| What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? 211 | Block I. | |
| What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? 211 | Block III | |
| What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian’s span of control? 211 | AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt | |
| What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey? 211 | DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, or DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher | |
| Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes? 211 | XD or XF | |
| Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established? 211 | To promote the economic recovery of precious metals from excess and surplus materials | |
| What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? 211 | Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO). | |
| What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PMICs)? 211 | To identify items that were obtained through supply that contain precious metals | |
| Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? 212 | XD or XF. | |
| What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)? 212 | Urgency of Need (UND) designator. | |
| Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts? 212 | Priority Monitor Report (D18). | |
| Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? 212 | Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23). | |
| Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? 212 | Due-Out Validation List (M30). | |
| What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? 213 | File cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets. | |
| What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit? 213 | AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt | |
| Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation? 213 | Installation commander | |
| What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority “C” designation? 213 | Security Response Team and a motorized patrol | |
| What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority “A” designation? 213 | Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority “A” assets, keep the aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control. | |
| For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section’s organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed? 213 | As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock number (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check. | |
| Once a unit’s listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated? 213 | Every 6 months. | |
| If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can’t be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? 213 | Not Reparable This Station (NRTS). | |
| What do expedite supply requests represent? 214 | An urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation | |
| Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of “A” or “B.” What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? 214 | 01 thru 04 | |
| Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of “1”? 214 | Within 30 minutes | |
| What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment? | MICAP requests | |
| Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? 214 | Customer Service at LRS or your local supply support section | |
| When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets? 215 | Requesting organization. | |
| When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to? 215 | LRS Supply Point Manager. | |
| What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? 215 | AF IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In Request. | |
| Why are TNB storage locations established? 215 | To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance | |
| How are TNBs arranged? 215 | By tail number, serial number, or identification number. | |
| What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed? 215 | Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed. | |
| What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply? 216 | Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR). | |
| In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply? 216 | An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets. | |
| What is a support point as it relates to the DR process? 216 | Any activity that assists the Action Point | |
| Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for? 216 | Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report. | |
| What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs? 216 | Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS). | |
| Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs? 216 | Screening Point. | |
| When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR? 216 | When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit. | |
| If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact? 216 | Your MAJCOM | |
| What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort? 217 | To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use. | |
| What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations? 217 | Group: Lead TODO, Squadron: TODO, and Section: TODA. | |
| What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? 217 | Quality Assurance | |
| What form should be used to establish a TODO account? 217 | AFTO IMT 43. | |
| For what purpose are checklists developed? 217 | To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical. | |
| What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? 218 | Quality Assurance | |
| Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? 218 | The flight or section performing the TCTO | |
| What form should be used to submit a TO change? 219 | AFTO IMT 22. | |
| What is a preliminary TO? 219 | An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process | |
| What are the two main types of TO changes? 219 | Corrections and Improvements | |
| When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? 219 | 48 hours after submission. | |
| What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? 219 | AF IMT 1000 | |
| Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? 220 | Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment | |
| How long does a TO waiver remain in effect? 220 | Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver). | |
| A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action? 221 | That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time. | |
| When may CA authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated? 221 | In high priority circumstances, when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount time (i.e., red ball maintenance). | |
| What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item? 221 | The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the CANN action | |
| Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations? 221 | Concurrent CANN/inspection. | |
| Which CANN program has the advantages of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability? 221 | Consolidated CANN program. | |
| What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area? 221 | Antistatic, nonmetal wheels. | |
| In addition to having enough signs stating “Caution, (or Danger) High Radiation Area” that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place? 221 | A red rotating/flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier. | |
| To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked? 221 | Read/follow all applicable cautions, warnings and notes in the applicable TO. | |
| Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time-frame? 221 | Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission. | |
| During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be reaccomplished if the aircraft status changes? 221 | An exceptional release or conditional release. | |
| To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running? 221 | A safety observer | |
| How can impoundment be defined? 221 | The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be completed. | |
| What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official? 221 | MSgt or above (or civilian equivalent). | |
| What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures? 221 | Quality Assurance | |
| Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment? 221 | The Impoundment Official. | |
| What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? 222 | To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment | |
| Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? 222 | TO 32–1–101. | |
| What does an MIL provide a listing of? 222 | All contents in a particular CTK. | |
| What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance? 222 | Tool Accountability System (TAS). | |
| Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment? 222 | Wing Weapons Manger | |
| The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called? 222 | World Wide Identification (WWID) code | |
| What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? 222 | Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on-/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center | |
| What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? 222 | All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered. | |
| Who is required to comply with FOD Program prevention directives? 223 | All personnel (military, civilian, and contractors) working in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines and maintenance areas. | |
| Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? 223 | WG/CV. | |
| Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV? 223 | MXG/CC. | |
| How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held if a unit’s FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard? 223 | Monthly. | |
| As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object? 223 | Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned. | |
| What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223 | All wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft. | |
| Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? 223 | Local wing DOP program monitor | |
| What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? 224 | The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station | |
| What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? 224 | 12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest. | |
| What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? 224 | AFI 21–101 | |
| What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of? 225 | The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes. | |
| Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? 225 | Quality Assurance | |
| Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? 225 | QA OIC/SUPT | |
| How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? 225 | 6 months | |
| An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from? 225 | Other MAJCOM agencies and field units. | |
| If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive? 225 | Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal, and Unsatisfactory | |
| How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? 225 | PASS/FAIL | |
| How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? 225 | .5% | |
| When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? 225 | AF, MAJCOM, and local directives | |
| QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? 225 | Acceptable quality level | |
| A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? 225 | Work Center Supervisor | |
| What is the goal of the PIP program? 226 | To identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability | |
| How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? 226 | By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting commander’s calls, presenting the program at maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas. | |
| Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling? 226 | With the ALC and LRS | |
| What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s? 226 | Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00–5–1. | |
| If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with? 226 | Affected agencies | |
| When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine? 226 | Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the unit’s control. | |
| What does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do? 227 | Determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft | |
| What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing? 227 | MOF PS&D. | |
| What is a formal modification proposal? 227 | A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment | |
| Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment? 227 | MAJCOM. | |
| How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M? 227 | Annually | |
| In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system? 227 | Lead Command | |
| How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)? 202 | Semi-annually | |
| In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of 202 | MSgt | |
| Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time... 203 | Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel | |
| In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected down-times, and training update information? 203 | Application problems | |
| What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training? 204 | II | |
| What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses? 204 | Maintenance qualification | |
| How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)? 205 | Monthly | |
| An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required? 205 | 30 | |
| Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)? 205 | Unit training manager | |
| Manpower authorizations are... 206 | Funded | |
| A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held... 206 | Monthly | |
| The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is how long? 207 | 12 Hours | |
| Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to how long? 207 | 16 hours | |
| Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems? 208 | Maintenance supply liaison | |
| Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to which commander? 208 | Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) | |
| What is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 208 | Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets. | |
| The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days? 208 | 30 | |
| Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock? 209 | XB3 | |
| The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? 209 | 30 | |
| Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date? 209 | II | |
| Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements? 209 | MXG Commander | |
| What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? 209 | Engineering Data Service Center. | |
| What are obvious signs of pollution? 210 | Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground | |
| Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center? 210 | Section supervisor | |
| Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? 210 | AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag. | |
| Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? 211 | Squadron Commander | |
| What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor? 211 | IIB. | |
| What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? 211 | DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. | |
| Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? 211 | Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) | |
| Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? 211 | Mission Support Group (MSG) commander. | |
| Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals? 211 | C | |
| Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day? 212 | D04, Daily Document Register. | |
| Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A? 212 | D18, Priority Monitor Report | |
| Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support? 212 | M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report | |
| Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms? 213 | Host installation commander | |
| When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every... 213 | 3 Hours | |
| Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming? 213 | Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector | |
| Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? 214 | Customer | |
| Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare? 214 | AR or BR | |
| Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with? 215 | LRS material management element. | |
| Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor? 215 | Semiannually. | |
| When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify who? 215 | MOC | |
| When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted? 216 | Supply Discrepancy Report | |
| Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group? 216 | Originating Point | |
| Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization? 216 | Action Point | |
| Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within how long? 216 | 24 hours | |
| What is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 217 | Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required | |
| What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) by owning and managing agencies?218 | Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation | |
| The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? 219 | Quality Assurance | |
| What are three technical order (TO) change priority categories? 219 | Urgent, Routine, and Priority | |
| Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system? 220 | A4U | |
| Who designates cannibalization authorities? 221 | Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander | |
| If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify who? 221 | Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D). | |
| Do weapons loading operation institute a restricted maintenance area? 221 | No | |
| Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent what? 221 | Aircraft status changes | |
| Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? 221 | Applicable Impoundment Authority | |
| Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? 222 | MXG/CC | |
| How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? 222 | 9 | |
| The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within what section? 223 | Quality Assurance | |
| The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident? 223 | 24 | |
| What, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223 | Explosive Munitions | |
| A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW... 223 | AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting | |
| Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? 224 | AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management. | |
| Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 225 | Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT). | |
| When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days? 225 | 30 | |
| What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? 225 | Personnel Evaluation | |
| What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task? 225 | Quality Verification Inspection | |
| In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system? 227 | Lead Command |
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