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2AX5X Vol 1

QuestionAnswer
What are the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe condition? Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness.
What should be accomplished after any maintenance action? Area should be policed, and left in a clean orderly condition.
Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers? Slips and Falls.
List the principles of RM, 1. Accept no unnecessary risk 2. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level 3. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at all levels 4. Apply the process cyclically and continuously
What's considered to be the direct cause of many accidents? Unsafe acts and conditions.
What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents? Horseplay
What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes? Gloves and long-sleeved shirts to prevent burns.
What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist? Squatting position.
Why must supervisors be given formal safety training? 1. Accident prevention if they are used to carry out assigned responsibilities of determining and eliminating hazards 2. Supervisors must have accident prevention "know-how" if they are to train their personnel in OJT.
Name two most frequent methods used in job safety training Personnel interviews by supervisors and five minute "Stand Up" talks.
When should you replace cracked or broken tools? Immediately
What methods can you follow to prevent fires in maintenance areas? 1. Do not let oily rags accumulate 2. Obey "No Smoking" signs 3. Never dispose of cigarettes or flammables in wastebaskets 4. Never let clothing become saturated, change immediately if occurs 5. Do not store flammable liquids in open containers
What characteristics constitute a hazardous chemical? 1. Combustible 2. Unstable 3. Irritant 4. Explosive 5. Water reactive 6. Corrosive 7. Flammable 8. Toxic
What should you do if clothes becomes soaked or sprayed with chemicals Leave the area immediately and remove them.
What information does MSDS provide you? Explanation of physical data of the chemicals you work with, these properties include, but are not limited to melting point, boiling point, flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage, and spill procedures.
What information must be included on hazardous waste labels? Accumulation point and "accumulation start" entries.
What must be considered to make a sealant effective? Correct sealant is used for job and area and be applied correctly.
Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is? 1. Two part can kit 2. Semkit cartridge 3. Premixed and frozen.
What TOs cover sealants, solvents, and adhesives? TOs 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691.
What is the sealant application life? The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77 degrees Fahrenheit and 50 percent relative humidity.
What is the purpose of solvents? Dissolve oily and greasy soils so that they can be wiped away or absorbed on a cloth.
What are three sources of antenna radiation? High frequency radio transmitters, radar, and electronic countermeasure devices(ECM).
What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body and vital organs? Burns beneath the skin, cataracts of the eyes, and cooking of the internal organs.
Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake. Blowout or fire.
From what direction do you approach an aircraft tire with overheated brakes? From aircraft nose or tail section, never in line with the axles.
What are the major danger areas around an operating jet engine? Intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high intensity sound.
What's normally considered a safe distance from an operating jet engine intake? 25 feet to the rear of operating exhaust
Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous? The turbine wheel can disintegrate during operations and launch shrapnel through aircraft skin.
In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high intensity noise areas? A headset or ear defenders.
Define an "explosives loaded" aircraft An aircraft that carries munitions internally or externally.
Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked? Designated explosives parking areas.
Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices? Weapons Personnel only
Describe a composite material. Used throughout the fuselage section, wings, empennages, central fins, engine cowlings as appropriate, various other panels and doors can all be made from many different materials such as fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar, etc. They can cause health risks.
As a minimum, what should the job safety training on composite material include? Need for and use of approved PPE, maintenance and care of PPE, safe chemical handling procedures, emergency treatment practices in case of exposure, ignition, or inhalation of composite liquid, vapor, or dust.
Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most likely chance of being affected by the dangers or composite materials? Aircraft fire
Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? The damage foreign objects cause translates into the loss of resources, money, or in a worst case scenario, someone's life.
What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? Can be ingested into aircraft intakes.
Who is tasked with the overall responsibility of the FOD prevention program? Wing Vice-Commander.
Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards? Everyone.
What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? Their tools.
If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool report? The person who was issued the tool or item.
What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine's intake or exhaust? Pocket-less coveralls(bunny suit) or equivalent.
To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair? Base airfield managers.
What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations? Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item that has been lost during aircraft operations from engine start to engine shutdown.
Who must develop a DOPP? All units that fly, service, and maintain.
What are the prime contributors to dropped objects? Latches and fasteners.
Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered? Quality Assurance.
What references provide guidance for servicing operations? AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and aircraft specific TOs
During fuel servicing, what three important points should you keep in mind? Right grade of fuel, protecting yourself from health hazards, preventing fires and explosions.
What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin? A severe rash.
Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals? To ensure fire extinguisher was not previously extinguished.
What TO(s) lists criteria for positioning fire extinguishers? 00-25-172 and specific aircraft TOs.
What's the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen servicing? 50 Feet.
What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX Servicing? Thaw it with warm air or water.
What device is used to help prevent over pressurization of an aircraft component during pneumatic servicing? Pressure regulator.
Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas components? Because of nitrogen's inert qualities.
When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, what three measures should you take to prevent contaminating the aircraft systems? 1. When servicing with cans or drums ensure cleanliness and product integrity are maintained
What references contain information about ground handling? Specific aircraft TOs, AFI 11-218, AFI 91-203, and TO 00-25-172
Where do most aircraft-specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions? In the first couple of steps for the task.
Preparations for aircraft launch include what? Checking the aircraft forms, and obtaining all required AGE.
When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller? Policing the parking area and prepare the AGE for pickup.
During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions? When taxing through congested areas.
Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line 5 feet after a turn? To relieve the loads on the main landing gear.
As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshaling your aircraft? In front of the aircraft to the left of the pilot.
When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft? When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway.
When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind? Head the aircraft into prevailing winds.
What are the usual causes of towing accidents? Inexperienced personnel and a failure to follow proper procedures.
What's the minimum number of tow crew members? Three
During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly? Sudden stops may cause damage to aircraft structure.
What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway? Get clearance from control tower.
In addition to your aircraft's -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for ground an aircraft? 00-25-172
What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft? To weigh aircraft, change a landing gear component, repair a landing gear, or gear component, perform a retraction check or change a tire or brake.
What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage to the aircraft structure. Jack Pads.
If the aircraft TO doesn't establish it, what's the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operations? 15 MPH.
What is the basic function of maintenance? To ensure the assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
The degree of maintenance capability depends on what? 1. Mission requirements 2. Economics of repair 3. Transportation limitations 4. Component reliability 5. Workload agreements 6. Facility requirements 7. Task Frequency 8. Special Training Required
What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level? 1. On-equipment 2. Off-equipment
What does preventative maintenance on our equipment help ensure? Preventative (Scheduled) maintenance ensures that equipment is ready available when needed.
What TO describes preventative maintenance concepts? TO 00-20-1, Aerospace equipment maintenance inspection, documentation, policies, and procedures.
What, if properly used helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going, and how (or if) you are going to get there? Maintenance performance indicators.
Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit's performance? Mission Capable(MC) rate.
What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate? Experiencing hard breaks, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high commitment rates.
Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of unit's maintenance quality? Report/recover discrepancy rate.
What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate? Ensure that you use the proper technical data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and repairing aircraft.
When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed? 1. Discount and the decision is made to defer them 2. Scheduled with a start date greater than fire calendar days after the discrepancy date or awaiting parts with a valid off-base requisition.
What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is scheduled for extended downtime? Co-ordinate with production superintendent and PS&D Scheduler and try to get some downtime to fix as many DD's as possible.
List three processes of the MDD system? Collecting, Storing, and Retrieving maintenance data.
What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD? AFMEA, MAJCOMs, and the DOD.
On base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback? Base managers and supervisors.
Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems and equipment? AFMC.
What does ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine? The actual versus approved configuration of the aircraft.
In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms? TO 00-20-1
What AFTO 781 series form is the identification documents for the series binder? AFTO 781F
What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the MIS? AFTO 781
Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form? AFTO 781H
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or maintenance personnel? AFTO 781A
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time? AFTO 781J
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection information? AFTO 781K
What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule shown on AFTO form 781K. AFTO 781D
What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and 781K forms? AFTO 781M
What is an AFTO Form 95 used for? To create a permanent record of significant maintenance action on aerospace equipment including engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components.
What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an AFTO Form 95? It accompanies the equipment being transferred.
What is IMDS designed to give managers? Visibility and control of resources at the unit level.
Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts? IMDS CDB/SBSS Interface.
Why are preventative maintenance schedules entered into IMDS? To track and report completion, deviation, or rescheduling actions.
What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities? IMDS JDD Subsystem.
What is the purpose of initial evaluation? Determine the specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do.
As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required for the new work center? Verify his or her qualifications to ensure he or she is still proficient to perform that task.
What is the purpose of a GAS? Enables the trainer to let the schoolhouse know how the student is doing.
What is a CFETP? A comprehensive education and training document the identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, core and home station training, and deployment/unit type code (UTC) task requirements for an air force specialty.
What type of information is found in Part 1 of the CFETP? Information necessary for the overall management of the specialty.
In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks, and technical references to support training? Part 2 section A.
What is TBA? An Air Force portal, web-based application providing air force personnel real-time visibility of qualifications, certifications, and status of training.
What is the purposes of TBA? Allows authorized uses ready access to training related information currently maintained in many different places that are not readily accessible to those who need the information.
What is the description of the training manager's role in TBA? This role has oversight of an organization.
Who is ultimately responsible for the personnel assigned? Commander
Who has the most capability in TBA? Workcenter supervisor.
All users will have access to this role? Trainee.
Who manages one or more work centers? Flight Chief.
Who initiates task authentication within the ITP? Trainer.
What makes up a TO library? One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements that is maintained on a continuing basics, or a special purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs.
Where would you find a transient aircraft library? On bases where it is common to service or perform organizational or intermediate-level maintenance on aircraft not normally assigned to the base.
What information is required on a TO binder? Binder number and contents of binder.
What group of a TO number tells you the type of TO? Group Three.
What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number? They break the TO down into system and subsystem.
ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions? TO Catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management.
What's the purpose of the LOAP? Provide a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items.
What are the four major types of TOs? Technical manuals, abbreviated TOs, TCTOs, methods and Procedures Technical Orders (MPTO).
Describe the types of information found in technical manuals. Operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon system, overhaul of component parts.
How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled? Trouble, probable cause, remedy.
What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual. Each of the related systems for that TO.
Name three types of abbreviated TOs. CLs, WCs, and Charts.
Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs To simplify use.
What are some examples of abbreviated CLs? Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run.
What type of TOs list minimum inspection requirements? Work cards.
What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text? 1. Immediate actions 2. Urgent Action 3. Routine Action 4. Record 5. Interim
Which type of TCTO has red meansaround the first page? Immediate Action.
What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property. What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property.
Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through prolonged usage? Routine Action.
Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures? Record.
How are ITCTOs issued? Electronic means.
What category are MPTOs? OO
What form is used for TO improvement reporting? AFTO IMT 22.
What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports? Emergency, urgent, and routine.
Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason? When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or if it affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage.
What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized? Urgent.
What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days? Routine.
What are two categories of publications? Directive and non directive.
What type of publication does not list procedures or detailed "how-to" instructions? Policy directives (PDs).
What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force? Instructions departmental, and AFIs.
Which type of directive publication has two categories--departmental and field level? Manuals.
What is the purpose of an OI? Assign responsibility, direct actions, and prescribe procedures.
What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent? Visual Aids.
Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions and VAs online? Air Force E-Publishing website.
Information about non powered AGE can be found in which technical orders? The 35 and 37 series technical orders.
What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand? A base assembly, upper structure assembly, platform assembly, and on most stands, a hydraulic system for raising and lowering the platform.
How is the height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 Maintenance stand? Hydraulic hand pump.
Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder? B-2.
What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissor-type maintenance stand? Ensure safety pins are installed.
What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing? Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position.
How is the operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled? Hydraulically
Other than transporting heavy loads, what's an additional use for the model 3000 transportation trailer? Holding engines while inspections are performed.
What can happen to an engine that has not been properly supported? It may twist or bend, damaging the engine or its sub parts.
Describe what the two-hand pumps are designed to do in a hydro mechanical jack? The larger pump is used to raise the ram at a higher speed to meet the load. The smaller pump allows for greater ease of life with a full load engaged.
How do you control the speed of lowering a jack? By the amount the release valve is opened.
Tripod jacks are generally used for what procedures? 1. Weighing an aircraft 2. changing a landing gear component 3. Repair a landing gear or gear component 4. Perform a landing gear retraction check.
What are some of the uses of the axle jack? 1. Tire Change 2. Brake Change 3. Wheel/bearing inspection and lubrication.
Aircraft Oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen? Gaseous(GOX) and Liquid (LOX) Oxygen.
What are the properties of LOX? A pale blue water like substances, that boils at -187 degrees Celsius or -297 degrees Fahrenheit. When warmed to a gaseous state, it expands to 860 times its original volume.
How much LOX does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold? 50 Gal.
What is the pressure gage range on a TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank? 0-100 PSI.
What position should the pressure buildup valve on the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank be in? Closed.
Why should LOX never be confined in any completely airtight piping or container? Because it expands to approximately 860 times its original volume.
What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems serviced with a specific LOX cart? AFTO Form 134, Aviator Breathing Oxygen servicing trailer log.
What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle? Aviator's breathing oxygen.
How many oxygen cylinder's is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen-servicing trailer designed to transport? Eight.
What is nitrogen used for on aircraft maintenance. Pressure-operated mechanisms.
Why is nitrogen the preferred gas for servicing aircraft systems? Because it is an inert gas that doesn't form flammable or explosive mixtures with air or oxygen.
The gaseous nitrogen cart is designed to use what method? Cascading.
What's the primary function of powered AGE? Provide an auxiliary means of external power without operating the aircraft engines, APU, or internal systems to support maintenance.
What happens to the waste product when the SGNSC separates the nitrogen from the air? Enriched with 33% oxygen.
What is the purpose of the MC-1A air compressor? To provide high or low pressure clean, dry air for servicing aircraft pneumatic systems, hydraulic accumulators, also struts and tires.
How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing? 15 CFM up to 200 PSI.
How is heat increased or decreased on the H-1 Heater? By allowing more or less fuel into the burner section.
How is heating accomplished on the NGH? By a 60 hz alternator that powers a separate oil burner and combustion blower.
What is the temperature range of conditioned air provided by the C-10 air conditioner? 47 to 200 degrees Fahrenheit.
From where does the C-10 receive its source of air? Hot bleed air from a gas turbine compressor.
What's the electrical power output of the A/M32A-86 Generator? 115/200 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 Phase.
How much air is the A/M32A-60 capable of producing? 150 pounds per minute at 50 psi.
What source of power is used to start the A/M32A-95 generator? A nickel cadmium battery, or two 12 volt gel pack batteries.
How much electrical power can the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight produce? 120 VAC, 60 Hz electrical power.
How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight be raised? 12 Feet.
How is power supplied to the MK-3A-3? A 93 HP, 440 volt, 3-Phase, 60 cycle, 1,760 rpm electric motor with a two-stage start-split winding.
How is the MJ-2A Hydraulic test stand driven? By a diesel engine.
How are the hydraulic systems designated on the MJ-2A Hydraulic test stand? Primary and secondary
What's the primary function of a tow vehicle? To tow and parts large aircraft.
What is the adjustable height and lift capability of the electric, split deck maintenance platform? 6.7 to 37 feet height, and lift capacity of 2,000 pounds
What TO cover aircraft hardware? TO 1-1A-8, Aircraft and missile repair--structured hardware.
The size of a bolt is stated in what terms? Length, diameter, and threads per inch.
Define the grip length of a bolt? Unthreaded portion.
What type of a bolt is available with thin heads for use in tight places? Hex head.
What kind of bolt is used where shearing or sideways stress occurs? Clevis.
What special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are applied? Eyebolt.
What feature distinguishes the internal wrenching bolt from other bolts? The head is recessed.
List three kinds of non self-locking nuts. Plain, check, and wing nuts.
List two uses for plain washers. To provide a smooth bearing surface, and under lock washers to prevent damage to surfaces of soft material.
How are screws usually described? By the shape of their head.
What type of rivet is usually used for fastening aircraft structures? Common, solid shank rivets.
What type of aircraft fastener is not designed to carry a structural load? Quick-release fasteners.
How is cable size determined? By the diameter.
Why are some cables coated with a nylon jacket? To increase the service life by keeping lubricants in and dirt out and dampening vibration.
What is the purpose of a turnbuckle? To adjust the tension on aircraft cables.
Pulleys are made of what? Molded or machine phenolic of light alloy metal such as aluminum.
What keeps cables from coming in contact with structural parts of the aircraft? Fairleads.
What's the purpose of a pressure seal? To prevent pressure loss in these areas.
What units are used to transmit motion about an axis and to change the direction of force of a cable or push-pull rod? Quadrants and bell cranks.
What is a control rod? Rigid devices that transmit push and pull motions.
What devices limit movement of a control surface? Stops.
Where are torque tubes used in flight control systems? Where they are needed to transmit twisting force.
How are aluminum alloy and stainless steel tubing easily distinguished? By their different metallic luster. In addition, aluminum alloy tubing may be stamped with the actual alloy designation.
Where is aluminum-alloy tubing commonly used? As a return line.
Why is stainless steel tubing preferred on external brake lines and other exposed system lines? To prevent damage caused by flying gravel and stones and ground-handling accidents.
What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting? Blue.
Describe the color-code tape used in identifying hydraulic lines. Blue band, yellow band, and white band overprinted with a row of black bordered circles.
A system line is 38 inches long and passes through a bulkhead. The bulkhead divides the line so that 25 inches are on one side. How many bands of tape should the line have? Three.
Before you install a tubing assembly, you should inspect it for what conditions? Obstructions, ducts, scratches, and damage to the flared ends.
What can result from over-tightening a tubing nut? May damage the tubing flare, or damage the sleeve or nut of the fitting.
What information can be obtained from markings on flexible hoses? Manufacturer's code number or symbol marking, the date of manufacture, size and specification numbers are also marked on the hose.
What prevents chafing of a passing through a bulkhead? Bulkhead-type grommets and cushion clips and ensuring adequate clearance.
How should hose connections be made to an engine or engine-mounted accessories? Install the hose so that 1 1/2 inches of slack or an adequate bend is provided between the last point of support and the attachment to the engine or accessory.
What safety-wire method is most commonly used? Double-twist.
Using the double-twist method, how many closely space bolts can be safetied in a series? No more than you can secure with a 24 inch length of wire.
When is 0.032 inch safety cable used to safety parts? When parts have a nominal hole diameter of 0.075 inch or smaller.
What is a retaining ring? A retaining ring is a fastener that holds components onto a shaft or in a housing/bore when installed in a groove and the retained part until it can go no further.
When are spiral retaining rings used? Where there is little clearance between the housing and the part to be retained.
What parts of a Cannon plug ensure connector halves aren't mismatched? A key and keyway arrangement in the barrel of the plug and receptacle.
AN-type Cannon plugs are being replaced with what type of plugs? MS.
What TO provides information concerning connector repair? TO 1-1A-14.
Why is aluminum foil not used as a cover for cannon plugs? May cause a short circuit.
Why should you not attempt to remove a Cannon plug's insert from the shell? It is permanently bonded and can't be removed without destroying it.
What do torque wrenches measure? The force of pull in pounds when tightening hardware; nuts, bolts, clamps, etc.
How do indicating-type torque wrenches display the applied torque? By a pointer that moves over an indicating scale.
What type of torque wrench automatically released when you apply a predetermined amount of torque? Breakaway.
How much free travel does the breakaway toque wrench allow when the preset toque level is reached? Approximately 5 to 10 degrees.
What may happen if you over-tighten a component greater than the value set on a torque wrench? It may cause internal damage to the torque wrench, it adds a higher torque value to the part, and part failure could occur.
What is the working range of a breakaway or indicating type torque wrench? Not lower than 20 percent and not greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench.
When torqueing a bolt, to what should you set the torque value? The upper limit of the specified torque value allowed by the TO.
When you're using a torque wrench to tighten a series of nuts, do you tighten each nut to the specified torque before starting to torque the other nuts? No, gradually tighten each until they all meet the specified toque and tighten the nuts opposite of each other in sequence.
Before storing a torque wrench, to what setting should you set the grip? Why? Lowest; this removes tensions from the spring in the handle and preserves the accuracy of the torque wrench.
Torque wrenches should have some kind of label(paper, tape, or other) on the handle. What information do you determine from this label before using the torque wrench? The calibration date.
What do you do if you discover that a torque wrench is overdue calibration? Don't use it; turn it in for calibration.
What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened? 1. Torsion 2. Tension
Why is breakaway torque measured? To ensure product integrity.
What is prevailing torque usually associated with? Self-Locking screws and nuts.
What is a multi meter? A combined instrument consisting of an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter.
What is the major advantage of a Fluke multi meter? The ability to take readings without having to look at the display at the same time as you are looking at the test leads.
How many input receptacles does the Fluke meter have? Four.
What are the different Fluke meter modes of operation? Range, Relative, minimum/maximum, and hold-reset/min/max.
When does the Fluke meter perform a self test? Every time you turn the meter on.
Which measuring technique should you use for troubleshooting a loose wire? Continuity.
What should be done if the digital meter goes from OL to 0 when performing a continuity check? Continue using it (this is the normal indication).
What is a feeler gauge? A tool used to the gap between two parts.
What is incorporated into the feeler gauge case? A locking screw.
What are three commonly used micrometers? Outside micrometer, inside micrometer, depth micrometer.
What determines a micrometer's range? The longest movement possible between the spindle and the anvil of the micrometer.
What do outside calipers measure? Outside diameter.
How are simple calipers adjusted? By pulling or pushing the legs to open or close them?
What are transfer calipers used for? Measure chambered grooves or flanges.
How are slide calipers graduated? Inches, fractions or millimeters.
What is used on depth gauges as the reference surface or master standard from which measurements are taken? The supporting block.
What must be done to the depth gauge before any measurements are taken? You must zero the gauge before measuring any depth.
Whose responsibility is supply discipline? All military and uniform employees, regardless of grade or position.
Why is it important to promptly process repairable items? The repairable item is as important as a serviceable item, since the repairable item may be the only part available.
What are some examples of bench stock items? Nuts, bolts, cotter keys, washers, resistors, capacitors, light bulbs, sealants, and batteries.
How should operating stock be identified? Clearly identify as "Operating Stock" and label them with their noun, NSN, or part number (if applicable), U/I, and shelf life, if applicable.
What is the basic purpose of a QRL? To provide maintenance personnel with a speedy identification and communication capability for placing a demand on a supply.
What form is normally used to request parts/supplies? AF Form 2005
What form is used to request items that don't have an NSN? DD Form 1348
What form is used as a control document whenever you loan a tool to another individual? AF IMT 1297
What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system? To bring about the economy of spares procurement through effective management of assets.
When does base supply order a replacement DIFM item? When it is determined the unserviceable item cannot be repaired on base, or the item is condemned.
What documents are used to control a DIFM item through the repair cycle? DD Form 1348 and AFTO Form 350 part II
When shop action is complete, what form is used to tag the item for turn-in? AFTO Form 350
What are the two categories of supply-type items that require turn-in? 1. Recoverable 2. Consumable
Unserviceable and scrap material should not be thrown out, but turned in to whom? DRMO
Which part of the AFTO Form 350 serves as a production-scheduling document? Part II
Which condition tags and labels are easily identified by their yellow margins and letters? DD Form 1574 and 1574-1
What's the purpose of deficiency reporting? Establish a system to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies.
Which DR Category, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness? CAT I
What DR Category identifies a potential enhancement? CAT II
What does the engine warrant program guarantee against? Defects in AFMC workmanship.
You submit reports against the engine warranty program IAW what directive? TO 00-35D-54
What's the purpose of the planned inspection and maintenance concept? Provides a method of performing required inspections and repairs on a scheduled and controlled basis.
Name the two overall inspection concepts used at base level to inspect aircraft. PH and PE.
Which inspection is due upon the accrual of the number of flying hours or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable MDS-specific -6 technical order, and is more extensive in scope than the HPO/BPO inspections? PE
What is the primary object of the PH inspection concept? To reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of commission from a normal flight schedule for any given inspection package.
Which inspection concept consists of the HSC, major, and minor inspections. Isochronal.
Describe and briefly explain the use of the two primary aids of the planned inspection and maintenance concept. 1. Inspection WCs outline minimum inspection requirements 2. SCs depict a basic planned work schedule and sequence in which the inspection WCs can be used.
How are WCs sequenced? In the most logical or practical order of accomplishment.
What TOs cover aircraft inspection concepts? TO 00-20-1 and aircraft -6 TO.
What inspection is performed to ensure that no serious defects or malfunctions exist? PR
What inspection is performed just prior to takeoff? EOR
What type of inspection is performed between flights? TH
When is a BPO inspection performed? After the last flight of the specified flying period.
If an aircraft is out of commission for more than 30 consecutive days, what minimum inspections is required before the aircraft is returned to operational status? A calendar inspection.
Who determines the additional requirements for a 90-day NO FLY Calendar inspection? MXG/CC
Give three occasions when a special inspection may be required? 1. After a specified number of flying/equipment hours 2. Following the lapse of a specific calendar time 3. After the occurrence of a specific or unusual event.
When is an acceptance inspection performed? When an aircraft is newly assigned to an organization and on all aircraft and engines received from depot.
Under what two conditions must we comply with time replacement items? 1. After the accrual of a specific interval of time 2. Following the occurrence of a specific or unusual condition.
Why do you make periodic checks of accountable equipment on aircraft? To maintain control and serviceability of equipment.
Which form is used to transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels? DD Form 1149.
What form is used to indicate the physical presence or absence of aircraft -21 equipment? AF IMT 2691
When aircraft -21 equipment is transferred with an aircraft, which form is used as a receipt document for the organization receiving the equipment? AF IMT 2692
When is a weight and balance update required? Anytime a component weighs more than 5 pounds or causes more then a 0.1 percent change in CG is removed or installed.
Who updates the weight and balance? QA personnel must update the aircraft weight and balance records to check and show CG difference.
What is the DD Form 365-1; Chart A used for? This form lists all equipment and other items that are or may be installed, and for which provisions or fixed storage has been made in a definite location in the aircraft.
The DD Form 365-3; Chart C is used for what? All changes to the aircraft basic weight and movement regardless of the size shall be recorded (typed or clearly written in ink) on the chart C to keep it correct and up-to-date.
When is an aircraft in balance? When all weight items are in, on, or of the aircraft are distributed so that the longitudinal CG of the aircraft lies within a predetermined CG range.
What is the definition of arm? The distance of weight from a reference datum.
What is the definition of battle damage? Damage sustained during combat operations.
What are the repair standards designed to do? To last for the projected aircraft life, restore structural members to their original strength and return all aircraft system components to a like-new condition.
What are the three fundamental preparations of ABDR? 1. Allowing the use of time-saving temporary repairs 2. Training maintenance personnel in the skills and techniques required to effect rapid repairs 3. Providing the material necessary to accomplish rapid combat maintenance.
What has been a critical and decisive factor in successful military campaigns? The ability to quickly return battle damaged weapon systems to combat.
Who accomplishes aircraft battle damage assessments? Only fully qualified assessors from MAJCOM approved aircraft maintenance specialties.
What is corrosion? The electrochemical deterioration of a metal due to its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment.
What happens to iron exposed to moist air? Returns to its natural state- iron oxide or rust.
What is produced by the effects of an alternating cyclic stress and corrosive environment? Corrosion fatigue
Define numerous worm-like traces of corrosion beneath the paint film. Filiform
What type of corrosion is first seen as a general dulling of the surface? Uniform surface
What is indicated by a lifting up or swelling of the surface grains of metal? Exfoliation
What form of corrosion resembles a white or gray powdery, dust-like deposit on the surface of the metal? Pitting
What occurs when different metals are in contact? Galvanic corrosion
Define a selective attack along a metal's grain boundaries. Intergranular corrosion
What appears as corroded cracks in metal? Stress fractures.
This type of corrosion may occur when a foreign material covers a surface. Crevice/concentration cell.
Which TO contains detailed instructions for corrosion prevention and treatment? TO 1-1-691
Corrosion is removed using what overall method or technique? By the mildest effective technique.
The frequency of aircraft cleaning depends on what? The type of aircraft and the environmental conditions to which the aircraft is exposed.
What factors should be considered when selecting a cleaner? Type and amount of soil to be removed, material size and surface condition of the port, and degree of cleanliness required.
What is the most common type of solvent cleaner used on the aircraft? MIL-PRF-680, Type II.
What is the preferred type cleaner for cleaning the interior cockpit, floor, and deck area? MIL-PRF-85570, Type II.
How do you clean optical glass? Spray the cleaner onto a flannel cloth, carefully wipe the lens surface, and then wipe dry with a clean flannel cloth.
What solution is used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? Bromenthymel blue.
What cleaning agent is used to clean light and moderate soils from the painted exterior of the aircraft? MIL-PRF-85570, Type 1 or Type II, or MIL-PRF-87937, Type II or IV.
What procedure do you use to clean landing gear's exposed pistons? Clean with a clean cloth dampened with hydraulic fluid; wipe away from seals.
When outside temperatures are below 40 degrees Fahrenheit, where should the aircraft be cleaned? In an indoor heated wash rack.
What should you do if cleaner is splashed in your eyes? Rinse your eyes thoroughly with fresh water for 15 minutes and report to the nearest medical facility.
What are the purposes of lubrication? To prevent wear between moving parts, fill air spaces, displaces water, and provides a barrier against corrosive media.
What type of information is found on a lubrication chart? Items to be lubricated, type of lubricant and method of application.
When can you apply a lubricant to a corroded surface? Never.
How do you properly lubricate all aircraft grease fittings? Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident.
In addition to your specific aircraft TO, where are safety and maintenance precautionary measures found? TO 1-1-691
Since various hazardous materials are used during lubrication, what should be used at all times? PPE
Why should you not wear rings, watches, or other metallic objects during cleaning/lubing your aircraft? Keep from getting caught in moving parts.
Created by: Roy_White820