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2015 7LVL 2AX7X CDC

        Help!  

Question
Answer
Wrong Answer
To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed? 001   On a pre-planned and scheduled basis.    
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Using equipment generates what type of maintenance? 001   Corrective (unscheduled) maintenance.    
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What are two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance? 001   On-equipment and off-equipment.    
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Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose? 001   Highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance, equipment, training, or processes.    
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What should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas? 001   Relevant background information and history.    
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What are two major goals if Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001   Increase local repair capability where appropriate, and to reduce the overall cast of operations.    
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In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance? 002   Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot.    
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Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment, at the backshop level? 002   Intermediate    
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What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility? 002   Depot    
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What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level? 002   The 2 Level Maintenance (2LM) approach   Banana  
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What type of facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from multiple bases to one location? 002   A Regional Repair Center.    
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What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities? 002   Centralized Repair Facility    
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How can a successful R&M program be defined? 003   One that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capability.    
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What is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG) 003   Address product deficiencies affecting R&M that the field unit cannot resolve and to resolve Deficiency Reports (DR) that the Single Manager assigns to them.    
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Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs the PIWG? 003   The Single Manager    
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As an end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process? 003   Identify deficiencies, and properly submit reports.    
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Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or schedule risks to the project or life cycle support of the system, or results in a production stoppage and no acceptable workaround is know? 003   1E    
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Which DR priority results in inconvenience or annoyance for development or maintenance for development or maintenance personnel but does not prevent the accomplishment of the task? 003   2D    
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Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause death,severe injury, or severe occupational illness and no workaround is known? 003   1A    
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Which DR priority has other effects, such as enhancements having little or no impact to OSS&E under current requirements? 003   2E    
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Which DR priority if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system and no workaround is known? 003   1B    
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Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and adequate performance is achieved through significant compensation or acceptable workaround? 003   2A    
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Which DR priority adversely affects technical, cost, or scheduled risks to the project or to life cycle support of the system but an acceptable workaround is known? 003   2B    
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Which DR priority adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS&E and no acceptable workaround is known? 003   1D    
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Which DR priority prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability or critically restricts OSS&E, to include interaction with other mission critical platforms or systems, and no acceptable workaround is known? 003   1C    
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Which DR priority does not affect capability but may result in user/operator inconvenience or annoyance? 003   2C    
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When the scope of an OI will cross organizational group lines, at what level should it be published? 004   Wing Level    
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What office assumes responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it? 004   Office of primary responsibilty    
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Can an AF civilian service employee act as the POC for an OI? 004   Yes    
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Which section acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guide in the MXG? 004   Quality Assurance    
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What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command? 004   Inter-Command    
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What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SAs? 004   Programs and Resources Flight    
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What is the most important thing you must know about SAs? 004   Learn what is in them.    
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What is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment? 005   A permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment, including aircraft engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components.    
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Who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting? 005   Item Managers    
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For aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95s not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from another location? 005   When the gaining location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve the historical information.    
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During what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotor blades have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95? 005   Upon transfer into the disposal system.    
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Upon transfer to engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for? 005   The maintenance facility that preserves the engine.    
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What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for? 005   To document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels    
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Which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS? 006   IMDS-CDB    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks engines/components for time change? 006   Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS)    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment? 006   Automatic Test Equipment Reporting System (ATERS)    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to create, schedule, and change work center events? 006   Maintenance Events    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem automates location of aircraft, missiles, and AGE? 006   Location    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the Maintenance Data Collection System? 006   Job Data Documentation    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors Estimated Time in Commission? 006   Status and Inventory Reporting    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem supports flying operation in three phases? 006   Operational Events    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows forecasting of TCTOs and Time Changes? 006   Inspection and Time Change    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring and control of TCTO progress? 006   Time Compliance Technical Order    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows monitoring of manpower resources? 006   Maintenance Personnel    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives capability to forecast and schedule training? 006   Training Management    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem can be used to order parts? 006   IMDS-CDB/SBSS    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem gives the ability to update aircraft operating time? 006   Automated Debriefing    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem updates/monitors approved/actual aircraft configuration? 006   Generic Configuration Status Accounting System (GCSAS)    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem is used to prefill/print AFTO forms 781 A, J, AND K. column B? 006   Aircraft Automated Forms    
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In regards to the MIS data integrity, what are work center and shift supervisors responsible for doing? 006   Reviewing the data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control on a daily basis.    
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What section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual? 006   Maintenance Operations Flight Maintenance Management Analysis (MOF MMA) Section    
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What section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered into the MIS? 006   The section that entered the data.    
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As roadmaps, what can maintenance metrics, if used properly, help you determine? 007   Where you have been, where you're going, and how to get there.    
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What are two major categories that metrics are often divided into? 007   Leading and Lagging indicators    
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What type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007   Leading    
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What type of indicator shows firmly established trends? 007   Lagging    
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What is the percentage of aircraft that land in code 3 status called? 007   Break Rate (BR)    
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What is the average number of deferred discrepancies across the fleet of possessed aircraft called? 007   Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR)    
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The percentage of code 3 aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4,8 or 12 hours is called? 007   Fix Rate (FR)    
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What is the most important and accurate measure of the units maintenance quality called? 007   Repeat/Recurring (R/R) Discrepancy Rate    
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What are the average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month known as? 007   Utilization (UTE) Rate    
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What is the best known yardstick for measuring a units performance? 007   Mission Capable (MC) Rate    
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What is the average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons known as? 007   Total Not Mission Capable Maintenance (TNMCM) Rate    
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What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start of recovery? 008   Priority 2    
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What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTOs, and TCIs? 008   Priority 4    
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What maintenance priority level should be assigned to perform routine maintenance of AGE and repair cycle assets? 008   Priority 5    
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If a change is made to the repair priority level, does the LRS parts delivery have to be changed to match it? 008   No    
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Although the "Wing Standup" meeting is used to keep the WG/CC updated about maintenance issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting? 009   Identifying and resolving issues/disagreements related to the schedules.    
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In addition to attending a monthly maintenance and flying schedule meeting, what does the WG/CC ensure at meetings with regard to MXG and OG interaction? 009   Ensure that MXG and OG participate in developing an annual maintenance and flying program, and a joint plan to ensure the best use of aircraft, equipment, and personnel.    
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Who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager? 009   Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)    
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In addition to ensuring effective FOD/DOP programs, what must the FOD/DOP manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis? 009   Chair the FOD and DOP prevention committee meetings.    
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Why is it important for the MXG/CC to standardize maintenance disciplines, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009   Leads to greater interoperability, improves maintenance quality, and ensures maintenance effectiveness.    
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As well as overseeing the development and publication of all maintenance-related OIs, what specific guidance must the MXG/CC establish for cannibalization responsibilities and actions? 009   Guidance on individual responsibilities and specific CANN actions.    
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Who is responsible for ensuring effective management of all maintenance training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequately train newly assigned MXG personnel? 009   MXG/CC    
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Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009   MXG/CD    
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Who does the MXG SUPT work directly for? 009   MXG/CC    
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Other than acting as a technical advisor, the MXG SUPT advises the MXG/CC on what type of issues? 009   Personnel, morale, and welfare issues, as well as on problems not identified through maintenance data systems or QA inspection reports.    
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What is the MXG SUPT's primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the MXG? 009   Serves as the Groups focal point for enlisted manning.    
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What responsibilities does a SQ/CC have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maintenance qualification programs? 010   He/she must emphasize the quality of the programs and not just focus on minimum upgrade time frames.    
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Even though SQ/CCs are ultimately responsible for unit deployment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness? 010   Unit Deployment Manager (UDM)    
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If squadron manning authorizations are not right, what can the SQ/CC do to help remedy the situation? 010   He/she can coordinate with the Wing Manpower Office, through the group maintaining manager, for assistance in preparing an ACR to alter his/her manning authorization.    
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What two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT? 010   MOF/CC & MOF SUPT    
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In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for? 010   Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO)    
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Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet? 010   MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT    
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Who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manager, weapons safety, and airfield management? 010   MOO/MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS    
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Who is responsible for reviewing and consolidating monthly maintenance plan inputs from the various MXS flights/section and for forwarding them to MOF PS&D? 010   MXS MOO with the assistance of the MX SUPT    
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Mi MOS, who are flight chiefs responsible to in the area of leadership, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel? 010   MOF/CC    
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With regards to job environment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of? 010   Any hazardous conditions they may encounter on the job.    
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Who is responsible for reviewing PRDs and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maintenance is being taken to correct the underlying problem? 010   AMU OIC or SUPT    
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Who chairs a daily maintenance production meeting to develop and modify the overall maintenance plan of attack? 010   AMU OIC or SUPT    
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What is the primary job of the section NCOIC/section chief? 010   To act as the first line manager and supervisor and to serve as the technical authority and advisor for his or her particular section?    
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What AF IMT should a section NCOIC use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his/her workers? 010   AF IMT 55    
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For section managed TMDE, what is a section NCOIC responsible for ensuring? 010   That maintenance and calibration requirements are accomplished.    
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The section NCOIC should ensure cross-utilization training requirements do not interfere with what? 010   Upgrade/qualification training    
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The section NCOIC should ensure his/her section is organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maintenance (POM) as possible without jeopardizing what? 010   Accountability and control procedures.    
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What is the primary job of an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010   Direct overall maintenance of his/her AMU    
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What is the grade required to be appointed as an AMU flight-line Pro Super? 010   SNCO or civilian equivalent    
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If one is appointed, what is the primary job of the MX Pro Super? 010   To provide maintenance squadron specialist non-availability to MOC at the beginning of each shift, identify production requirements and shortfalls to his/her Officer/MX SUPT, and direct overall maintenance efforts to meet unit mission requirements.    
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Which MOF section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maintenance production and overall execution of the flying and maintenance schedules? 011   MOC    
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Who is responsible for appointing, in writing, a highly qualified individual to manage the Engine Health Management Program? 011   MXG/CC    
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Which MOF section is responsible for coordinating aircraft maintenance requirements and ensuring proper utilization scheduling between the OG and MXG and any other applicable external agencies? 011   PS&D    
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What is the primary mission of the Maintenance Management Analysis section? 011   To track, analyze, and present information to help the various levels of leadership assess the health of their units aircraft and equipment.    
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Other than teaching, what is the mission of the Maintenance Training Flight? 011   To serve as MXGs single point of contact for all training matters affecting maintenance and to be responsible for the overall management and contact of the Training Management subsystem of IMDS.    
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What are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron commanders with training matters? 011   Managing squadron enlisted specialty training programs    
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Is the MTF allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned AETC Training Detachment? 011   No    
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Programs and Resources Flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the MXG? 011   Manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment programs    
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Within the Programs and Resources Flight, who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey? 011   Logistics Planner    
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What are the standard sectons of an AMU? 012   Debrief, Aircraft, Specialists Weapons, and Support    
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What is the definition of an Aircraft Sortie? 012   The cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties    
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In addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight-line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur? 012   MOC & Pro Super    
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What are some of the references that flight-line expediters must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties? 012   Copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklists, base grid map with cordon overlay, IPI listing, MESL, QRL, WUC manual, and a tracking device for aircraft status.    
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Flight-line expediters must track the serial number, location, priority, status,ETIC, and configuration of all aircraft. What are some of the other items that must be tracked? 012   OAP condition codes, fuel load, munitions load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable.    
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What are some of the information elements that Debrief personnel enter into the aplicable MIS? 012   Discrepancy and deviation information, utilization, and applicable flight data (including landing status, system capability, and other applicable cause codes)    
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Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying operations? 012   Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super    
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What are some of the entries that Debrief must ensure the aircraft commander/pilot makes on the applicable AFTO 781 IMTs/Forms during the debrief session? 012   New discrepancies noted, aircraft condition codes, flying time, servicing data, and any other required entries    
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What does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition? 012   Aircraft or system has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment within normal turnaround times.    
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What are three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the Aircraft Section? 012   Dedicated, Assistant Dedicated, and Flying Crew Chiefs    
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In a general sense, what are DCCs and ADCCs charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft? 012   Managing and supervising all maintenance on their assigned aircraft    
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The specialist section is normally responsible for what duties? 012   Aircraft troubleshooting, on equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management    
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Why is the specialist section NCOIC responsible for promoting cross-talk with other unit specialist sections? 012   To obtain information on system/component repeat, recur, and CND trends.    
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Which specialist is responsible for maintaining ECS, bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems? 012   E&E specialists    
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Who must the specialist expediters coordinate with in determining maintenance priorities for specialist support? 012   Pro Super and flight-line expediter    
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What are the two standard elements in an AMU Weapons Section? 012   Loading and Maintenance    
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Who serves as the key advisor to the AMXS MOO on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armament system capabilities for the AMU? 012   Weapons section NCOIC    
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What are weapons expediters responsible for monitoring with regard to the Weapons Section NCOIC? 012   Monitoring all armament system maintenance and loading operations    
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Who must the weapons expediter coordinate with for the delivery and pick up of all munitions? 012   MOC or Munitions Control    
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Who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft undergoing munitions loading and unloading? 012   Load Crew Chief    
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The NCOIC of the AMU Support Section must come from one of what two AFSCs? 012   2AXXX or 2WXXX    
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What is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to a support section? 012   12 months    
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What information must Supply Support personnel keep expediters updated on? 012   The status of all Back-Ordered parts    
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List the nine standard flights that make up the MXS. 013   Accessories, AGE, Armament, Avionics, Fabrication, Maintenance, Munitions, Propulsions, TMDE    
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If the MXS has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing? 013   They can separate the MXS into two squadrons: EMS and CMS    
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What sections are in a standard Accessories Flight? 013   E&E, Egress, Fuels, and Hydraulics    
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What Accessories Flight section is responsible for repairing oxygen and nitrogen servicing carts? 013   E&E    
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When egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the Egress Section request assistance from? 013   Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD)    
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What three sections normally make up the AGE flight? 013   Repai & Inspection; Servicing, Pick-up, and Delivery; and AGE Production Support    
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What AGE Flight section is responsible for maintaining TO files? 013   AGE Production Support    
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What is the overall mission of the Armament Section? 013   To perform off-equipment maintenance for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters.    
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Who does the Armament Flight CC/Chief assist in recommending distributions of 2W1X1 personnel to satisfy on- and off-equipment weapons release and gun system maintenance? 013   Wing Weapons Manager (WWM)    
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Which Armament Flight section coordinates with MOF PS&D in scheduling inspections, TCTOs, and time-changes? 013   Armament Maintenance    
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Which Avionics Flight section off-equipment maintenance and/or CND screening on communication and navigation components and systems, including assigned SE not maintained by TMDE? 013   Communications-Navigation    
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Which Avionics Flight section maintains LANTIRN pods? 013   Sensors    
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What section maintains, programs, and performs TCTOs on avionics components when the specified test stations and support equipment are available in the section? 013   Avionics Intermediate    
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What sections make up a Fabrication Flight? 013   Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Metals Tech, and NDI    
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What two Fabrication Flights are responsible for corrosion control? 013   Aircraft Structural Maintenance and Low Observable Aircraft Structural Maintenance    
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What is Metals Technology section tasked with doing? 013   Inspecting, repairing, servicing, manufacturing, heat treating, testing, cleaning, and welding aircraft, equipment, components, and tools.    
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What four sections normally make up the Maintenance Flight? 013   Repair and Reclamation, Wheel and Tire, Aircraft Inspection, and Transient Alert.    
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Which maintenance flight removes, replaces, and rigs flight control surfaces? 013   Repair and Reclamation    
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What is the definition of Transient Aircraft? 013   Aircraft not assigned to the local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing.    
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Which Munitions Flight section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers? 013   Munitions Production    
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Which Munitions Flight section manages unit mobility and training programs? 013   Munitions Systems    
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Who acts as the wing focal point for propulsion maintenance programs and gives advice to wing leadership about propulsion issues? 013   Propulsion Flight CC/Chief    
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Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013   Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance (JEIM)    
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Which Propulsion Flight section is responsible for maintaining, managing, and storing engine support trailers? 013   Engine Equipment Maintenance    
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Which TMDE Flight section performs in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair using laboratory equipment and calibration standards? 013   PMEL    
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Who do the PMEL QA section evaluators report their inspection findings to? 013   TMDE Flight CC/Chief    
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What are the four elements of the TMDE Production Control section? 013   Customer Service, Production Scheduling, Traffic Management, and Maintenance Supply Liason    
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Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? 001   Preventive    
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What is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes? 001   Cross-Tells    
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Who is the Office of Primary Responsibilities (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? 001   MXG/CC    
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Which maintenance capability category is is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance? 002   Intermediate Level Maintenance    
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All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through who? 002   Quality Assuarance    
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What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations? 002   Centralized Repair Facility    
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What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability? 003   Reliability and Maintainability    
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Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that, if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known? 003   1B    
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Which maintenance group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors? 003   Quality Assuarnce    
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What is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e. a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)? 004   Operating Instruction    
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When OIs apply to multiple groups, they should be published as what? 004   Wing OIs    
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Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment? 005   AFTO IMT 95    
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Printed copies of AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to what locations? 005   Locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.    
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What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating times, and maintenance history as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels? 005   AFTO IMT 95    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed on relationship between engine and components? 006   Comprehensive Engine Management System    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply actions? 006   Maintenance events    
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Which IMDS-CDB subsystem replaced the MDC system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions? 006   Job Data Documentation (JDD)    
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Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual? 006   Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)    
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In addition to being familiar with with the units assigned weapon system(s), the squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least a...? 006   5-Level    
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What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability? 007   Metrics    
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What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators? 007   Leading and lagging    
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact the maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission? 007   Leading    
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends? 007   Lagging    
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Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency? 008   Priority 1    
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Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program? 009   WG/CC    
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Who is personally responsible for managing the FOD/DOP programs? 009   WG/CV    
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Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy? 009   MXG/CC    
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Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG? 009   MXG/CD    
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Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance? 009   MXG SUPT    
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Who is help legally responsible for their units EPA program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042? 010   SQ/CC    
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Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents? 010   Maintenance Operations Squadron    
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Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT? 010   AF IMT 55    
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Section NCOICs are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, as long as they don't interfere with what? 010   Upgrade/Qualification Training    
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Section NCOICs must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials as close to the Point of Maintenance as possible without affecting what? 010   Accountability and control procedures    
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When a MX Pro Super is appointed, who must he/she inform of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift? 010   MOC    
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How many standard squadrons are in a MXG? 011   3    
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Which MOS flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health? 011   Maintenance Operations (MOF)    
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The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of with IMDS-CDB subsystem? 011   Location    
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Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health tracking program? 011   Engine Management    
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Which Maintenance Operations Squadron section maintains standardized jacket-files and attends pre- and post-dock inspection meetings? 011   Plans, Scheduling and Documentation    
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The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections? 011   Training Management; Development and Instruction    
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What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft, and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations? 012   Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU)    
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What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting? 012   Fault Reporting Manuals    
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Who must ensure the applicable aircraft forms sets are provided to debrief at the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations? 012   Flight-line Expediter or Pro Super    
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The Aircraft Section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of assigned aircraft is greater than? 012   18    
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Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management? 012   Specialist Section    
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Which technician maintains aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components? 012   Electro-Environmental(E&E) Specialists    
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Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, -21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment? 012   Support section    
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Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Management Squadron, if maintenance manning exceeds how many people?   700    
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In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance? 013   Sub-pools    
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Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations? 012   Support section    
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Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation? 013   Guidance and Control Systems    
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Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining LANTIRN pods? 013   Sensors    
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Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet stringent standards of aerospace grade equipment? 013   Metals Technology    
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If a Refurbishment Flight is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight, or? 013   Fabrication Flight    
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Which Munitions Flight section recieves, stores, warehouses, handles, inventories, ships and, transports containers, dispensers, and training items? 013   Material    
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Which Propulsion Flight section store, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs, engines, quick engine change kits, and test components? 013   Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance    
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The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through what? 013   Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory    
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Where is there a list of AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? 201   Part 2 of the Career Field Education and Training Program    
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What type of aircraft maintenance training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convience? 201   Distance learning    
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Other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance related specialized course? 201   Aircraft Communication/Navigation Systems Course    
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Training Detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM? 201   Air Education and Training Command (AETC)    
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The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight training course? 201   Maintenance Orientation    
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For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? 202   When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles, or associated equipment.    
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What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster? 202   Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment.    
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What form is used to add someone to a special certification roster? 202   AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notice    
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? 202   Decertify them and have them removed from the SCR for that task.    
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Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what? 203   The technical qualifications, certifications and training status of weapons systems and support professionals Air Force wide    
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TBA allows all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? 203   Network access.    
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What provides notifications on TBA application problems,software release (problem corrections) projected downtimes and training update information? 203   The "System-Messages" Board    
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What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? 203   The role, or roles, you have been assigned by a role manager    
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What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application and not for operational unit training management activities? 203   TBA User Practice Environment    
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Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? 204   Phase 1    
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What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? 204   Lead Commands    
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What course must MSgts or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience? 204   Aircraft familiarization course.    
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What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? 204   Maintenance qualification training.    
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What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? 204   Phase III, Special Qualification Training (SQT).    
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What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? 205   That the initial training has not been performed or loaded.    
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When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course? 205   Any applicable pen-and-ink changes.    
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If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues? 205   AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.    
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When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? 205   Develop a master task list.    
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What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement? 205   If it is performed by 51 percent of more of personnel in the workcenter.    
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With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? 205   The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5- or 7-level.    
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What type of training tasks—both core and non-core—require third-party certification? 205   Critical Tasks    
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What is the quantitative expression representing manpower requirements in response to varying workload? 206   Manpower standards    
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What is the funded or unfunded statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program? 206   Manpower Requirement    
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What is the work that an organization is required to perform, but not given the manpower authorizations to do? 206   Unfunded mandate    
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What are positions deemed important by organizational leadership, but have not been validated called? 206   Out-of-Hide positions    
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What does the UMD provide a listing of? 206   Both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements.    
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What does the UPMR provide a listing of? 206   Unit authorizations (including gains and losses) by workcenter or FAC with the name and rank of the actual person filling each position.    
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What is a manning assist used for? 206   To alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high workload    
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Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours? 207   MXG/CC    
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What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel? 207   Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them.    
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Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuous duty period? 207   Personnel required to handle, load, or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives.    
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Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization? 207   It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing them to shift specific duties.    
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Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? 207   The Pro Super or MOO/ MX SUPT    
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With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD? 208   Maintenance Group    
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In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing? 208   Managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems.    
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Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters? 208   To identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems associated with supply support.    
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What is the purpose of a readiness spares package? 208   To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support planned wartime or contingency operations for a specified period of time pending resupply.    
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In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages? 208   Mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spares packages.    
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What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages? 208   It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system.    
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Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations? 208   To support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days.    
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What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages? 208   To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking.    
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What is the purpose of a bench stock? 209   To provide maintainers with quick access to items needed on a day-to-day basis.    
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If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together? 209   No    
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In addition to clearly identifying items as “Work Order Residue,” how should you also label them? 209   With noun, national stock number or part number, unit of issue, and shelf-life, if applicable.    
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Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items? 209   Any resource that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned-in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked—provided they are still serviceable.    
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What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item? 209   AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request.    
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What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? 209   AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request.    
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Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data? 209   MXG/CC or their designated representative.    
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What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)? 210   Any substance that is toxic or flammable—be it gas, liquid or solid—which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the environment.    
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What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response? 210   Local HAZMAT response plans    
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What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container? 210   Product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures.    
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What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker? 210   AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.    
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What is used to document items that have been drained and purged? 210   AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation.    
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What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? 211   Block I.    
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What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? 211   Block III    
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What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian’s span of control? 211   AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt    
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What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey? 211   DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, or DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher    
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Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes? 211   XD or XF    
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Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established? 211   To promote the economic recovery of precious metals from excess and surplus materials    
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What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? 211   Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).    
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What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PMICs)? 211   To identify items that were obtained through supply that contain precious metals    
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? 212   XD or XF.    
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What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)? 212   Urgency of Need (UND) designator.    
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Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts? 212   Priority Monitor Report (D18).    
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Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? 212   Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23).    
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Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? 212   Due-Out Validation List (M30).    
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What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? 213   File cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets.    
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What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit? 213   AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt    
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Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation? 213   Installation commander    
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What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority “C” designation? 213   Security Response Team and a motorized patrol    
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What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority “A” designation? 213   Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority “A” assets, keep the aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control.    
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For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section’s organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed? 213   As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock number (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check.    
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Once a unit’s listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated? 213   Every 6 months.    
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If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can’t be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? 213   Not Reparable This Station (NRTS).    
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What do expedite supply requests represent? 214   An urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation    
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Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of “A” or “B.” What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? 214   01 thru 04    
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Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of “1”? 214   Within 30 minutes    
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What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment?   MICAP requests    
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Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? 214   Customer Service at LRS or your local supply support section    
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When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets? 215   Requesting organization.    
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When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to? 215   LRS Supply Point Manager.    
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What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? 215   AF IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In Request.    
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Why are TNB storage locations established? 215   To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance    
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How are TNBs arranged? 215   By tail number, serial number, or identification number.    
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What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed? 215   Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed.    
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What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply? 216   Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR).    
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In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply? 216   An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets.    
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What is a support point as it relates to the DR process? 216   Any activity that assists the Action Point    
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Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for? 216   Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report.    
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What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs? 216   Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).    
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Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs? 216   Screening Point.    
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When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR? 216   When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit.    
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If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact? 216   Your MAJCOM    
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What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort? 217   To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use.    
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What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations? 217   Group: Lead TODO, Squadron: TODO, and Section: TODA.    
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What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? 217   Quality Assurance    
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What form should be used to establish a TODO account? 217   AFTO IMT 43.    
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For what purpose are checklists developed? 217   To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical.    
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What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? 218   Quality Assurance    
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Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? 218   The flight or section performing the TCTO    
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What form should be used to submit a TO change? 219   AFTO IMT 22.    
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What is a preliminary TO? 219   An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process    
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What are the two main types of TO changes? 219   Corrections and Improvements    
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When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? 219   48 hours after submission.    
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What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? 219   AF IMT 1000    
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Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? 220   Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment    
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How long does a TO waiver remain in effect? 220   Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver).    
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A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action? 221   That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time.    
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When may CA authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated? 221   In high priority circumstances, when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount time (i.e., red ball maintenance).    
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What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item? 221   The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the CANN action    
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Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations? 221   Concurrent CANN/inspection.    
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Which CANN program has the advantages of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability? 221   Consolidated CANN program.    
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What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area? 221   Antistatic, nonmetal wheels.    
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In addition to having enough signs stating “Caution, (or Danger) High Radiation Area” that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place? 221   A red rotating/flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier.    
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To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked? 221   Read/follow all applicable cautions, warnings and notes in the applicable TO.    
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Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time-frame? 221   Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission.    
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During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be reaccomplished if the aircraft status changes? 221   An exceptional release or conditional release.    
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To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running? 221   A safety observer    
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How can impoundment be defined? 221   The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be completed.    
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What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official? 221   MSgt or above (or civilian equivalent).    
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What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures? 221   Quality Assurance    
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Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment? 221   The Impoundment Official.    
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What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? 222   To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment    
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Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? 222   TO 32–1–101.    
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What does an MIL provide a listing of? 222   All contents in a particular CTK.    
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What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance? 222   Tool Accountability System (TAS).    
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Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment? 222   Wing Weapons Manger    
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The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called? 222   World Wide Identification (WWID) code    
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What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? 222   Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on-/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center    
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What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? 222   All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered.    
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Who is required to comply with FOD Program prevention directives? 223   All personnel (military, civilian, and contractors) working in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines and maintenance areas.    
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Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? 223   WG/CV.    
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Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV? 223   MXG/CC.    
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How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held if a unit’s FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard? 223   Monthly.    
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As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object? 223   Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned.    
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What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223   All wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft.    
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Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? 223   Local wing DOP program monitor    
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What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? 224   The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station    
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What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? 224   12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest.    
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What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? 224   AFI 21–101    
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What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of? 225   The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes.    
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Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? 225   Quality Assurance    
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Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? 225   QA OIC/SUPT    
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How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? 225   6 months    
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An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from? 225   Other MAJCOM agencies and field units.    
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If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive? 225   Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal, and Unsatisfactory    
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How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? 225   PASS/FAIL    
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How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? 225   .5%    
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When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? 225   AF, MAJCOM, and local directives    
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QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? 225   Acceptable quality level    
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A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? 225   Work Center Supervisor    
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What is the goal of the PIP program? 226   To identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability    
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How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? 226   By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting commander’s calls, presenting the program at maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas.    
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Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling? 226   With the ALC and LRS    
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What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s? 226   Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00–5–1.    
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If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with? 226   Affected agencies    
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When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine? 226   Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the unit’s control.    
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What does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do? 227   Determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft    
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What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing? 227   MOF PS&D.    
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What is a formal modification proposal? 227   A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment    
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Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment? 227   MAJCOM.    
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How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M? 227   Annually    
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In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system? 227   Lead Command    
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How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)? 202   Semi-annually    
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In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of 202   MSgt    
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Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time... 203   Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel    
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In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected down-times, and training update information? 203   Application problems    
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What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training? 204   II    
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What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses? 204   Maintenance qualification    
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How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)? 205   Monthly    
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required? 205   30    
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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)? 205   Unit training manager    
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Manpower authorizations are... 206   Funded    
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A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held... 206   Monthly    
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The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is how long? 207   12 Hours    
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Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to how long? 207   16 hours    
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Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems? 208   Maintenance supply liaison    
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Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to which commander? 208   Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)    
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What is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 208   Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.    
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The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days? 208   30    
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Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock? 209   XB3    
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The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? 209   30    
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Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date? 209   II    
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Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements? 209   MXG Commander    
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What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? 209   Engineering Data Service Center.    
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What are obvious signs of pollution? 210   Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground    
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Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center? 210   Section supervisor    
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Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? 210   AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.    
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Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? 211   Squadron Commander    
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What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor? 211   IIB.    
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What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? 211   DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.    
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Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? 211   Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)    
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Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? 211   Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.    
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Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals? 211   C    
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Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day? 212   D04, Daily Document Register.    
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Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A? 212   D18, Priority Monitor Report    
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Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support? 212   M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report    
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Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms? 213   Host installation commander    
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When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every... 213   3 Hours    
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Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming? 213   Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector    
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Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? 214   Customer    
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Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare? 214   AR or BR    
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Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with? 215   LRS material management element.    
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Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor? 215   Semiannually.    
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When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify who? 215   MOC    
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When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted? 216   Supply Discrepancy Report    
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Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group? 216   Originating Point    
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Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization? 216   Action Point    
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Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within how long? 216   24 hours    
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What is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 217   Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required    
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What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) by owning and managing agencies?218   Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation    
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The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? 219   Quality Assurance    
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What are three technical order (TO) change priority categories? 219   Urgent, Routine, and Priority    
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Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system? 220   A4U    
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Who designates cannibalization authorities? 221   Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander    
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If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify who? 221   Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).    
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Do weapons loading operation institute a restricted maintenance area? 221   No    
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Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent what? 221   Aircraft status changes    
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Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? 221   Applicable Impoundment Authority    
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Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? 222   MXG/CC    
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How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? 222   9    
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The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within what section? 223   Quality Assurance    
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The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident? 223   24    
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What, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program? 223   Explosive Munitions    
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A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW... 223   AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting    
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Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? 224   AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.    
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Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 225   Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).    
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When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days? 225   30    
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What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? 225   Personnel Evaluation    
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What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task? 225   Quality Verification Inspection    
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In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system? 227   Lead Command    
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