Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever

Username is available taken
show password

Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Didn't know it?
click below
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

CDC 2AX5X -1,2,&3

What instrument measures the weight of air? Mercurial Barometer
What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level measured in inches of mercury? In psi? 29.92 inches of mercury; 14.7 psi
What are the two temperatures scales that are commonly used? Fahrenheit and Celsius
What is the term for the curve of the surface of an airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge? Camber
What aerodynamic forces affect in flight? Lift, weight, thrust, and drag
How does drag act in relation to relative wind? Parallel
Define AOA. The angle between mean chord line of an airfoil and the aircraft flight plan
How are airframe components joined? By rivets, bolts, screws, and adhesives
What are the five stresses to which airframes are subjected? Tension, compression, torsion, shear, and bending
Which fuselage design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or bulkheads to give shape to the fuselage? The monocoque design
What internal wing components serve as an attachment point for the skin? The ribs and stringers
What type of material is usually used for construction of flight control surfaces? Aluminum Alloy
What is used to round out the angle formed between the fixed tail surfaces and the fuselage? Fairing
What structural unit provides a smooth airflow around and into the engine inlet? Engine Nacelles
What component controls airflow around the weapons to reduce turbulence in the bay on some bomber aircraft? Bay spoilers or air spoilers
How do doors differ from panels? Doors are hinged
Most transparent structures on an aircraft, such as canopies, windshields, and windows, are made of what two materials? Transparent plastics or safety glass
How do paint removers and stripping compounds affect the plastic facings of a radome? It may adversely affect its electrical properties or strength
How are fuselage station numbers measured? In inches from the reference datum or zero point on or near the aircraft nose
What are the three axes that an aircraft operates around? Longitudinal, lateral, and vertical
What are the lateral control surfaces of the aircraft? Ailerons, spoilers/speed brakes, and wing flaps
What controls all directional movements of aircraft? Primary flight controls
What primary flight control guides the aircraft about the vertical axis? Rudder
Which type of stabilator has both sides connected together so that when one side moves the other side must move in the same direction and amount? Solid type
What is an elevon? It is a combination of an aileron and an elevator
What are five types of wing flaps? Plain, split, folwer, slotted, and leading edge slats or flaps
What is the difference between leading-edge flaps and wing slats? If the leading edge operates in conjunction with the trailing edge flaps, then you have leading-edge flaps. If they operate independently of the flaps then they are called slats.
What is the purpose of speed brakes? Increase the drag to slow the aircraft and/or reduce landing distance
List the three types of trim systems Roll, pitch, and yaw
Which type of flight control system reduces the need for long cables, turnbuckles; quick disconnects, push-pull rods, and associated flight control hardware? Fly-by-wire
What are the two major parts of the AFCS? Stab aug system and the A/P system
What system is used to make bomber aircraft stable for launching weapons? Stab aug
What auto pilot system mode automatically maintains aircraft speed? Mach hold
Define electricity. A class of physical phenomena arising from the existence and interactions of electric charges
Of what particles are atoms composed? Neutrons, protons, and electrons
List four examples of insulators. Wood, rubber, plastic, and glass
List four examples of conductors. Platinum, gold, copper, and silver
Where do you normally use semiconductors? In solid-state devices
What is EMF? Electromotive Force; the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor
Define electrical current. The movement of electrons through a conductor
What factors affect the amount of resistance in a conductor? The type of material used, temperature, and size
What unit of measurement is used to express electrical power? Watts
What is a simple definition of magnetism? The ability of a substance to attract
How are artificial magnets classified? Permanent or temporary
What is permeability? The ease of ability to conduct magnetic lines of force
What is residual magnetism? The amount of magnetism that remains in a temporary magnet
How is magnetism induced in magnetic material? Place in a magnetic field or bring it into contact with another magnet
Can magnetic lines of force be insulated? No
What are the three most commonly used shapes of magnets? Bar, ring, and horseshoe
How can a magnet be weakened? Heating or excessive jarring
Define flux. A term for magnetic lines of force
How is electromagnetism developed? By current or electricity
When current flows through a conductor, does a magnetic field exist? Yes
What must you know to apply the "left hand rule"? The direction of the current flow
What rule do you use to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop? The left-hand rule
How can an electromagnet's field strength be increased? By using a few turns of wire carrying a larger current or using many turns of wire carrying a small current
What is the purpose of a conductor? Provide a path for electrons to flow with minimum resistance
Why are protective devices installed in aircraft electrical systems? Protect against system overloads and shorts in a circuit
How much time must pass before resetting a trip-free type circuit breaker? After a cooling-off period of approx. 1 minute
What is the purpose of a current limiter? Provide protection against fault currents
Why is alternating current used as the primary electrical source in aircraft? Less power is lost during transmission and the elimination of insulation and brushes
What is the unit of measurement for frequency? Hertz
Define phase relationship. A condition in which two moving objects are changing in, or out, of step
What are the two classifications of AC generation systems? Variable-frequency and constant-frequency
What frequency is used for AC power generation on aircraft? 400 Hertz
How is voltage induced in a brush-type generator? DC from an integral exciter generator is passed through windings on the rotor
What are the three generators that make up a brushless AC generator? A permanent magnet generator, an AC exciter generator, and the main AC generator
What weak point was eliminated by the design of a brushless-type generator? Arcing (which more easily occurs in rarefied air)
What are the two main components of an AC generator? Rotor assembly and stator
What three components make up the stator? PMG armature, exciter field, and main armature windings
What are the two functions of the CSD governor system? To control the drive output speed and equalize the load between generators operating in parallel
If CSD output rotation drives the generator below 365Hz, what component removes the generator from the bus? Under-speed switch
If the CSD temperature rises to an overheat condition, what should be done to prevent further damage? Disconnect the CSD
What is installed on most IDGs to provide for easier installation and removal? A quick attach-detach clamp
What are the typical functions of a GCU? Voltage regulation, generator disconnect control, etc.
How is voltage regulation and current limiting accomplished in the GCU? By varying the generator excitation field
How does the frequency and load controller for each generator system regulate the frequency of the generator CSD? By controlling the magnetic trim head governor on the CSD
What are the internal components of a battery? Plates, separators, and electrolytes
What are the primary causes of premature failure of a lead-acid battery? Abuse, overcharge, low solution, undercharge, and mountings
What is the fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery? The cell
How are nickel-cadmium cells constructed? By inserting positive and negative plates in cases with nylon and cellophane separators
When does a nickel-cadmium batteries electrolyte reach its maximum level? When the battery is fully charged
How are motors classified? By voltage, current used (AC or DC), and methods of motor excitation
How can the direction of rotation for a series motor be changed? By reversing the current flow in a field winding or reversing current flow in the armature
What advantages does the series motor have over other types of motors? It operates on AC or DC excitation
How is the field winding of a shunt motor connected with the armature? In parallel
What type of T-R is used to charge a nickel-cadmium battery in many aircraft? Charging T-R
What is another name for a T-R? Converter
Define matter. Any substance that occupies space and has weight
Since liquids and gases have many properties in common, how are the frequently classified? As fluids
All matter is made up of what? Molecules
Which matter has the property of resisting changes in shape when a force is applied? Solid
When sufficient force to a solid cause distortion, the solid is said to have exceeded what? Its elastic limit
Which factors affect the amount of expansion and contraction of a solid? The amount of temperature change and expansion characteristics of the solid
What are the most outstanding characteristics of a liquid? Its ability to conform
For a liquid to transmit a pushing force, what condition must exist first? It must be completely enclosed in a container
What would cause a cylinder of air to increase in pressure when placed in the sun? The air (gas) expands as its temperature increases, and since it is confined by the cylinder, its pressure will increase
What is one of the main differences in the characteristics of gases when compared to liquids? Gases are compressible while liquids are not
State the basic principle of Pascal's Law. When a fluid is confined and force is applied, this force (pressure) is transmitted equally to all points in the system
Under what conditions does Pascal's Law not apply to fluids? Fluids in motion
State the basic principle of Boyle's Law. If the pressure on a confined gas varies, its volume will vary inversely in the same proportion as long as the temperature does not change
What is another name for Boyle's-Charles' Law? General Gas Law
What characteristic of a fluid determines its resistance to flow? Viscosity
What effect does an orifice have on fluid-flow when compared to a venturi? An orifice will cause more turbulence and thus more energy loss than a venturi because it is not streamlined
How can resistance to flow be reduced? By streamlining the flow
What pressure difference can be observed during fluid-flow through a venturi? There is a pressure drop at the narrow opening of a venturi as the rate of flow of the fluid increases at this point. The pressure will increase again after passing through the throat
How much fluid should a reservoir hold? Enough fluid to supply the normal operating needs of the system, along with an additional amount to replace fluid lost through minor leakage
Why do nonpressurized reservoirs have space above the fluid? To allow the fluid to purge itself of air bubbles that are picked up from the system
What prevents foreign material from entering the reservoir during servicing? A wire screen
What are the two main reasons for pressurizing a reservoir? -It stops the fluid from foaming at high altitudes -It ensures a positive supply of fluid to the pumps
How do you service a pressurized hydraulic reservoir with fluid? Use a portable servicing cart
What unit in the pressurized hydraulic reservoir pressurizes the hydraulic fluid to 5psi? A piston spring
To service or perform maintenance on an air-pressurized reservoir, what is the first thing you must do? Depressurize the reservoir
Name three functions of the air-pressurized reservoir pressure regulator. -It regulates the pressure to the reservoir -Acts like a relief valve -Has a differential valve to allow equalization of pressures between outside air and air inside the reservoir
How are pumps classified? By their displacement (volume) output
What two purposes does the hand pump serve? It can be used as an emergency source of pressure or as an auxiliary source of pressure for ground-checking the operation of the system units
When the hand pump handle is on the retraction stroke, which check valve is closed? The inlet check valve
What indicates that either check valve inside the hand pump has malfunctioned? The hand pump will become completely inoperative
If a third check valve is installed, what could be the problem if fluid is only sent into the system on the extension stroke? The inlet check valve is malfunctioning
What is a drawback of a constant-volume pump? As long as the pump rotates, the fluid-flow it produces will eventually build up pressure high enough in the confined area to burst the lines and container
What is the thinned portion of the drive shaft of a gear-type pump called? Shear section
On a vane-type pump, what keeps the vanes against the housing wall? Springs
In the constant-volume piston pump, what drives the cylinder block? Universal link
Why does a constant-volume piston pump always have a constant intake and output of fluid? There are always pistons somewhere between the upper and lower piston
What does the suction boost pump do for engine-driven pumps? Ensures the engine pumps get an adequate supply of fluid
What regulates pressure in a variable-volume pump? An integral flow control valve (compensator)
What is the main difference between a Vickers stroke-reduction pump and a constant-volume pump? The angle between the drive shaft and the cylinder block
What position is the Vickers pump's cylinder block and yoke in when the system is at 0 psi? The extreme angle position, full flow
Do the pistons have a stroke when the Vickers pump reaches the zero flow point? No
What are the two major component groups of the Kellogg pump? The rotating group and the pressure-compensating group
What determines the length of the Kellogg pump's stroke? The angle setting of the cam plate
What is the purpose of the creep plates in the Stratopower pumps? Cooler operation
Describe the pistons of the Stratopower pump. The pistons have fairly large hollow centers connected with cross-drilled holes
Which way would you turn the adjusting screw on the Stratopower pump to increase pressure? Clockwise
What is the purpose of a hydraulic motor? To convert hydraulic pressure into rotary mechanical motion
What can be used to control the speed of a hydraulic motor? Flow control valve
Explain the principle of a jackscrew. The screw remains stationary and the nut turns
What is the purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system? To store a volume of fluid under pressure, provide space for thermal expansion, and act as a cushion against pressure surges.
What is the most common type of accumulator used? Cylindrical type
Which accumulator has a drilled passageway in the piston for lubrication? Piston
Where is the air-servicing valve located on the piston accumulator? At the bottom of the accumulator
What is the piston accumulator serviced with? Nitrogen or dry air
Which accumulator has four separate chambers? Self-displacing accumulator
What is the only moving part of a self-displacing accumulator? The piston
In the self-displacing accumulator system, where is the relief valve located? Between the pressure line and return line
What are the three basic parts of a filter assembly? Head, element, and bowl
Which part of the filter assembly is mounted to the aircraft? Head
What does micron rating mean? The amount of dirt or contaminates that can be filtered out
How is oxygen separated from other gases in the air? By compressing and cooling the air
Why must aviator's breathing oxygen be "bone dry"? To ensure operation of oxygen system components Oxygen with high moisture content would freeze at high altitudes, causing the oxygen to be inoperative
List some of the warning signs of hypoxia. Blurred vision, slight shortness of breath, a vague weak feeling, light dizziness
What is the maximum pressure at which low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders are charged? 450psi
What color are low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders painted? Yellow
How are oxygen tubes color-coded? With bands of green and white cellulose tape
What two types of connections are used in a low-pressure oxygen system? Pipe-thread and flared-tube connections
What component reduces system pressure in a high-pressure gaseous oxygen system? A pressure-reducer valve
What construction methods prevent high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders from shattering? Heat-treated alloy wrapped with steel wire
What are the two main types of oxygen regulators? The continuous-flow and pressure-demand type
What's a disadvantage of the continuous-flow regulator as compared to other types? Wastes oxygen
The MD-1 oxygen regulator can be used with what types of oxygen systems? With high- or low-pressure gaseous or liquid oxygen systems
In an emergency the pressure-demand regulator can supply oxygen to what altitude? 50,000 ft
What should system pressure be during an operational check of a regulator? Near normal operating pressure
Explain how the molecular sieve bed operates. Nitrogen in the air is absorbed in one bed of molecular sieve while oxygen passes through the bed. When the molecular sieve becomes saturated, the concentration vents the nitrogen overboard
What happens if the MSOGS concentrator fails? It will turn on an OXYGEN caution light in the cockpit and automatically switch to the backup oxygen supply
What's the temperature of liquid oxygen? -297°F
Why should liquid oxygen never be sealed, capped, or trapped in a container without a relief valve? It will rupture the container
What factors are used to determine converter size? The number of crew, mission duration, and the type of oxygen regulation equipment used
What's probably the cause if frost appears on the outside of a LOX container? Vacuum loss
How are pressure control valves controlled? Spring-loaded bellows
What's the primary purpose of the pressure-closing valve? To maintain a constant head pressure on top of the liquid oxygen in the storage container
What's the normal position of the pressure-opening valve? Closed
Why is it important to ensure there is no moisture in the fill, buildup, and vent valve? It may freeze in the vent position
In what position should you manually place the buildup/vent during a filling operation? VENT position
How are the check valves in quick disconnect operated? Automatically
What are the two modes of operation in the supply sequence of the liquid oxygen system? The economy mode and demand mode
What technical manual covers the requirements for LOX systems inspection? -6 technical manual for the specific aircraft
What is the purpose of a bleed air system? To operate or control pneumatic systems or components
What are the three sources of bleed air used for system operations on jet aircraft? Aircraft engines; ground air cart; and gas turbine compressors, gas turbine units, or auxiliary power units
What equipment provides bleed air when the aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown? A ground cart
List the components of a bleed air system. Check valves, shut off valve, wing isolation or body crossover valves, flow control valves, pressure regulating valves, bleed air ducting, and the necessary controls
What is the purpose of a ground-air-connection check valve? Prevent the escape of bleed air from the system
What material is usually used for high-pressure/high-temperature ducting? Stainless steel
What action should you take to ensure a good airtight seal when installing a V-band clamp? Tap around the circumference of the clamp as it is tightened
Why should you install the bottom bolts on a bolted flange duct first? This forms a cradle and holds the gasket in place while you install the remaining bolts
Besides stainless steel, what other materials can be used in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting? Titanium to aluminum alloy
What type of lubricant can be used on beaded duct sleeves to aid in installation? Water only
Where in the aircraft is molded fiberglass ducting used to distributing conditioned air? Cabin area
What's the purpose of gaskets? To make an airtight seal with most types of flange connections
What devices are installed in bleed air systems to compensate for thermal expansion of ducting? Expansion joints (bellows), thermal compensators, universal joints, loops, horseshoe bends, and offsets
What's the most important reason for insulating ducts? To prevent heat damage to structural members, electrical wiring, and combustible material, as well as hydraulic, oxygen, and fuel lines
What type of insulating material is fireproof? Fiberglass fabric blankets
What is the purpose of the rubber accordion boot wrapped around the duct between the sections of the insulation? This boot allows for differences in expansion rates of the duct and insulation
What's used to lace the studs together in a metal foil blanket? Wire
What are the most common types of duct damage? Scratch, minor dent and gauge
Define gouge. A defect wherein the surface of the material is cut or removed sufficiently to cause the duct wall thickness to be reduced
Which bleed air duct system is subjected to the highest pressure/temperature? High-pressure/High-temperature
What should you do anytime you locate a nonpermissible leak in the high-pressure/high-temperature section of the bleed air system? Inspect the aircraft structure in the immediate area of the leak for heat damage
What is air conditioning? The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space
Does heat always move to cold or does cold always move to heat? Heat always moves to cold
While the aircraft is in flight, what controls the flow of ram air to the primary heat exchanger(s)? Moveable ram air inlet and/or exit doors that modulate in flight
During low airspeeds or grounding operation what induces cooling airflow to the primary heat exchangers when there is not enough ram air to cool the primary heat exchangers? Ejectors
What consists of a centrifugal air compressor and an expansion turbine, and is often known as a "pack"? Air Cycle Machine (ACM)
Why would some of the outlet air from the primary heat exchanger need to bypass the air cycle machine? If cabin temperature controls call for warmer air
What component provides an additional stage of cooling after the bleed air has left the primary heat exchanger and, if required, the air cycle machine? Secondary heat exchanger
What is the primary purpose of the refrigeration bypass valve? To prevent water from freezing in the water separator
What component uses centrifugal force to remove moisture in the air that is caused by rapid cooling? The water separator
What two forms of energy are essentially interchangeable? Pressure and temperature
What happens to heat of the engine bleed air as it passes through the primary heat exchanger(s)? Some of the heat is transferred to ram air
What happens to the pressure of the engine bleed air as it passes through the primary heat exchanger(s)? Almost no change
What happens to the air as it enters the compressor of the air cycle machine? The pressure increases and, therefore, the temperature increases
What results in a very large decrease to the air within the air cycle machine? As the air expands across the turbine, the pressure decreases greatly
What are the two methods of cooling used in a typical bootstrap system? -By transferring heat to the ram air -Removing most of the heat by expanding it and converting it into work to drive the compressor
The refrigeration bypass valve opens so that warm air can mix with the air in the water separator if the water separator's outlet air temperature falls below what temperature? 38°F
What percentage of the earth's atmosphere is nitrogen? 78%
List the three pressurization ranges. Unpressurized range, isobaric range, and differential range
What is the isobaric range? 8,000-21,000 ft above sea level
Where does the differential range extend? From where the isobaric range stops to maximum altitude of the aircraft
What component opens and closes to control the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area? Outflow valve
What is the approximate pressure at sea level? 14.7psi
The aneroid is fully expanded and the metering valve closed at what specific altitude? 8,000 ft
What two pressures are applied to the differential diaphragm? Control and atmospheric pressure
What section of the pressure regulator protects the crew from too fast a rise in cabin pressure? The rate control section
In addition to a regulator, two outflow valves, and a pneumatic relay, what other component is a part of the dual-differential regulator? Dump valve
What component operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails? Outflow valve
Why are two outflow valves used on aircraft with large crew areas? Because of the large volume of air to be relieve
How can the dump valve be operated in case of electrical failure? Manually
What are the three features of the pressure controller? Isobaric, differential, and rate controls
How is isobaric control maintained? Adjusting spring tension
What types of pressure act on the differential controller's diaphragm? Control head and atmospheric
How is the rate control orifice size adjusted? Rate control knob
During a dive, what prevents damage caused by reverse flow of atmospheric air? The ball check valve
Describe the purpose of the manual control valve. It's used to manually set and regulate the control pressure if the automatic cabin pressure controller fails
What happens if the pressure regulator test handle remains in the TEST position? The aircraft will pressurize on the ground
Where are fire detectors normally placed on aircraft? On conventional aircraft they are placed in the engine and baggage compartments. On jet aircraft they are placed on the engine section, nacelle, or tail cone
How are the thermal switches connected? In parallel with each other, and in series with the warning light
What are the two types of thermoswitches? FENWAL switch and Iron Fireman switch
How do the FENWAL and Iron Fireman detector switches operate? The inside of the switch has a low coefficient of expansion, while the shell has a high coefficient of expansion. When they are heated, they will expand and contact will be made.
What are two precautions you must take when handling thermal switches? Be cautious when handling these units. Use caution in securing the lock washer
What causes a thermocouple fire detector system to activate? A rapid rate of temperature increases beyond normal engine warm-up
What are the three circuits in the thermocouple fire warning system? The detector, alarm, and test circuits
How are the thermocouples connected in respect to each other? In series
What does a photoelectric detector cell consist of? A glass envelope, which is coated on the inside with infrared-sensitive lead sulfide
The amplifier of a photoelectric fire detection system is sensitive to what frequencies? Between 7 and 60 Hz
How can you distinguish the fire warning light from the overheat light in the photoelectric fire detection system? The overheat light flashes, and the fire warning light is steady
What are fire detector sensing loops made of? A center conductor embedded in a semiconducting compound enclosed within a tube
How do liquid agents extinguish fire? By excluding oxygen from the fire area
How will an insufficient nitrogen charge affect agent discharge? The cylinder won't have enough pressure to discharge properly
What shape are aircraft fire extinguisher containers? Spherical
What prevents leakage between the bonnet assembly and container during discharge? A rubber O-ring packing
How are squibs fired? Applying a 28VDC to the squib
What is incorporated in some two-shot systems to delay electrical current to the bonnet assemblies? Time delay relay
What does a flashing red light in a fire emergency control handle (T-handle) indicate? An overheat
What is usually found at the lowest point of a fuel tank? A sump and drain
What is installed in fighter aircraft fuel tanks that prevent fuel sloshing and reduce the potential for fuel ignition or explosion if the aircraft is hit by enemy fire? Foam blocks
Which fuel tank type is made of a rubber or nylon material and conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage where it sits? Bladder-type
Which type of fuel tank is not removable and is not self-sealing? Integral
What is the primary purpose of a centrifugal pump? Pressurize the fuel manifold
What distinct advantage do centrifugal-type pumps have over other types of pumps? They tend to run cooler because there is no contact between the rotating impeller and the stationary housing of the pump body
Why must the centrifugal-type pump be installed at a location where fuel will flow to the pumps inlet? Rotary vane-type pumps
When would a rotor vane-type pump most likely be used? Scavenging operations
What principle applies to the operation of an ejector pump? Venturi
What is the function of the rotor in an air-refueling pump? To remove fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impeller
List two types of check valves. Flapper and pressure-loading
What is the purpose of the small-drilled hole in the center of the flapper? Allows some fuel to return from other parts of the system to lubricate a dry pump
How is pressure-loaded check valves opened? By pump pressure only
Why is shutoff valves installed in a manifold? To control the flow of fuel or air through a manifold or into a tank
What is an advantage of the sliding gate shutoff valve? It has the advantage of being able to control a large flow of fuel
What components make up a rotary plug shutoff valve? Valve body, motor, and rotor plug
What type of seal is used between the disc and valve body of a disc type shutoff valve? O-ring
What is the purpose of a fuel-level control valve? Provides for automatic control of the fuel level during the filling of a fuel tank
Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on what principle? Hydromechanical
How is the diaphragm-type valve controlled? Electrically
What controls the operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve? The pilot valve
What condition may cause temporary malfunction of a vent float valve? Frozen condensation within the valve
What is the definition of a switch? A component used to open or close an electrical circuit or to select paths through the circuit
List three types of fuel-controlled switches. Pressure, float, and fuel-flow indicator
How are float switches actuated? By fuel level
What switch indicates a flow or no flow condition? Fuel-flow indicating switch
List two types of fuel quantity indicating switches. The DC liquid-level and capacitance-type
What type of fuel quantity indicating system uses the potentiometer wiper mechanism? The DC liquid-level type
The capacitance-type fuel indicating system shows how much fuel is in the tank, using what form of measurement? Pounds of fuel
What component controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank? Air Pressure regulator
If the air pressure regulator fails, what unit will relieve the excess pressure? The pressure/vacuum relief valve
What item of a disconnect coupling prevents fuel leakage from an installed external tank? An O-ring
What is the purpose of the aircraft fuel system? Stores fuel and delivers the proper amount of clean fuel at the right pressure to meet the demands of the engine
What are the four components of the engine feed system? Pumps, check valves, shutoff valves, and thermal relief valves
If a pump fails to operate, what component prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the pump? Check valves
What is the purpose of thermal relief valves? To relieve pressure from heat expanded fuel
What controls all shutoff valves in an engine feed system? Throttles
What is the purpose of the crossfeed system? To ensure fuel is supplied to the engines at all time
What are the three methods used to transfer fuel? Pump, air pressure, and gravity flow
What component controls fuel level in the receiving tank during fuel transfer? Fuel level control valve
How is a fuel control valve controlled? Either by the solenoid or the pilot float
What components are required during gravity transfer of fuel? Shutoff valve and float valve
Where are vent ports located? Top of the fuel tank
List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe action. Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness
What should be accomplished after a maintenance action? The area should be policed and left in a clean, orderly condition
Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers? Slips and falls
What is considered to be the direct cause of many accidents? Unsafe acts and conditions
What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents? Horseplay
What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes? Gloves and long-sleeved shirts
What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist? Squatting position, back straight
Why must supervisors be given formal safety training? Accident prevention know how
Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training. Personal interviews by the supervisor and 5 minute "stand up" talks
When should you replace cracked or broken tools? Immediately
What should you do if your clothes become splashed or sprayed with chemicals? Leave the area immediately and remove them
What information does MSDS provide you? An explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with.
What information must be included on hazardous waste labels? Melting, boiling, and flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage, and spill procedures
What must be considered to make a sealant effective? Type of waste and the "accumulation start" entries. Correct sealant be chosen for the specific area or situation and be applied correctly.
Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is? Two-part can kit, semkit cartridge, premixed and frozen
What TO covers sealants, solvents, and adhesives? 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691
What is the sealant application life? The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77° F and 50% relative humidity.
What is the purpose of solvents? Dissolve oily soils so that they can be easily wiped away or absorbed on a cloth
List three sources of antenna radiation. High frequency radio transmitter, radar, and electric countermeasure devices
What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body? Burns beneath the skin, cataracts in the eyes, and body organ damage
Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake assembly. Blowout or fire
From what direction do you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes? Aircraft's nose or tail direction - never in line with the axles
List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine Engine intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high-intensity sound
What's the normally considered safe distance from an operating jet engine intake? 25 ft to the front and sides of the intake duct
What is normally considered a safe distance to the rear of jet engine exhaust? About 200ft
Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous? If a turbine wheel disintegrates while you're in the plane of rotation, there's a good chance that you'll have serious fatal injuries.
In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high-intensity noise areas? Ear defenders
Define and "explosive loaded" aircraft. When an aircraft carries munitions, internally, or externally
Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked? A designated explosives parking area
Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices? ONLY weapons personnel
Describe a composite material. Many different materials such as fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar, etc
Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most likely chance of being affected by the dangers of composite materials? Aircraft fire
Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? FOD translates into the loss of resources, money, or someone's life
What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? They can be ingested into an aircraft engine through its intake.
Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program? Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)
Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards? Everyone
What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? Tools
If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool report? The person who was issued the too
What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine's intake or exhaust? Pocket less coveralls or equipment (Bunny suit)
To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair? Base airfield manager
What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations? Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item that has been lost during aircrew operations from engine start to engine shutdown
Who must develop a DOPP (Dropped Object Prevention Program)? All units that fly, service, or maintain aircraft
What are the prime contributors to dropped objects? Latches and fasteners
Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered? QA
What references provide guidance for servicing operations? AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and specific aircraft TOs
What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin? Skin can become irritated, and it could progress to a severe rash
Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals? To ensure the extinguisher wasn't previously discharged
What TOs list criteria for positioning fire extinguishers? 00-25-172 and aircraft specific
What's the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen servicing? 50 ft
What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX servicing? Thaw it with warm air or water.
What device is used to help prevent over pressurization of an aircraft component during pneumatic servicing? Pressure regulator
Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas components? Because of nitrogen's inert qualities
What references contain info about ground handling? Specific aircraft TO, AFI 91-203, AFI 11-218, TO 00-25-172
Where do most aircraft specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions? In the first couple steps of the task
Preparations for aircraft launch include what? Checking the aircraft forms and obtaining all required AGE.
When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller? Police the parking area and prepare AGE for pickup
During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions? When taxiing through congested areas.
Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line for 5 ft after a turn? To relieve loads on MLG
As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshaling your aircraft? In front of the aircraft and to the left of the pilot
When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft? When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway
When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind? Head the aircraft into prevailing winds
What are the usual causes of towing accidents? Inexperienced personnel and failure to follow correct towing procedures
What's the minimum number of tow crew members? Three
During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly? Sudden starts/stops may damage the aircraft.
What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway? Get clearance from the control tower.
In addition to the aircraft's -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for grounding an aircraft? 00-25-172
What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft? Weigh aircraft, change landing gear, repair landing gear, and change tire/brake
What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage to the aircraft structure? Jack Pads
If the aircraft TO doesn't establish it, what's the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operation? 15mph
What is the basic function of maintenance? To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level? On-Equipment and Off-Equipment
What does preventative maintenance on our equipment help ensure? It is ready and available when needed.
What TO describe preventative maintenance concepts? 00-20-1
What, if properly used, helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going, and how (or if) you are going to get there? Maintenance Performance Indicators (MPI)
Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit's performance? MC rate
What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate? Experiencing many hard brakes, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high commitment rates
Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of a unit's maintenance quality? Repeat/recur rate
What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate? Ensure that you always use the proper tech data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and repairing aircraft.
When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed? They are discovered and the decision is made to defer them.
What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is scheduled for extended downtime? Coordinate with your production superintendent and PS&D scheduler to get some downtime scheduled so that you can fix as many DDs as possible.
List three processes of the MDD system. -Collection –Storage –Retrieval
What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD? AFMEA, MAJCOMS, and DOD
On-base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback? Base managers and supervisors
Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems and equipment? AFMC
What does the ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine? Actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft
In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms? 00-20-1
What AFTO 781 series form is the identification document for the series binder? 781F
What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the MIS? 781
Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form? 781H
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or maintenance personnel? 781A
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time? 781J
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection information? 781K
What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule shown on AFTO Form 781K? 781D
What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and 781K forms? 781M
What is AFTO Form 95 used for? For a permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment including engines, engine modules and designated MDS specific -6 TO components
What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an AFTO Form 95? It accompanies the equipment when transferred
What is IMDS designed to give managers? Visibility and control of resources at unit level
Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts? IMDS CDB/SBSS
Why are preventative maintenance schedules entered into IMDS? To help track and report completion, deviation, or rescheduling actions
What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities? IMDS JDD
What is the purpose of the initial evaluation? To determine what specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do.
As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required for the new work center? What is the purpose of GAS?
What is the purpose of GAS? Enables you to tell a school house how they are doing.
What is CFETP? A comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, core home station training, and deployment/UTC task requirements for an entire FS
What type of information is found in Part I of the CFETP? Information necessary for overall management of the specialty
In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks, and technical references to support training? Part II, Section A
What is TBA? An AF Portal, web-based application providing AF personnel real-time visibility of qualifications, certificates, and status of training.
What is the purpose of TBA? Allows authorized users with ready access to training related info currently maintained in many different places and not readily accessible to those who need the info.
What is the description of the training manager's role in TBA? This role has oversight of an organization
What makes up a TO library? One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or a special-purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs
Where would you find a transient aircraft library? On bases where it’s common to service or perform organizational or intermediate level maintenance on aircraft not normally assigned to the base.
What information is required on a TO binder? Binder number and contents of the binder
What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number? They further subdivide the TO into system and subsystems as applicable
ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions? TO catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management
What's the purpose of the LOAP? Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items
What are the four major types of TOs? -Technical Manuals –TCTOs –Abbreviated TOs –MPTOs
Describe the types of information found in technical manuals. Instructions pertaining to operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon systems, and overhaul of component parts
How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled? Trouble, Probable Cause, and Remedy
What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual? Schematics of each related system for that TO
Name three types of abbreviated TOs. -Check Lists (CLs) –Charts -Workcards (WCs)
Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs? To simplify use
What are some examples of abbreviated TOs? Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run.
What type of TO lists minimum inspection requirements? Workcards (WCs)
What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text? -Immediate Action –Record -Urgent Action –Interim -Routine Action
Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page? Immediate Action
What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property? Urgent Action
Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through prolonged usage? Routine Action
Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures? Record
How are ITCTOs issued? By electronic means when urgent circumstances don't allow for a timely publication of emergency instructions.
What are category MPTOs? Category 00
What form is used for TO improvement reporting? AFTO IMT 22
What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports? -Emergency –Urgent -Routine
Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason? When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or it affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage.
What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized? Urgent
What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days? Routine
What are the two categories of publications? -Directive -Nondirective
What type of publications does not list procedures or detailed "how-to" instructions? PDs
What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force? Instruction
Which type of directive publication has two categories - departmental and field level? Manuals
What is the purpose of an OI? To assign responsibility, direct, actions, and prescribe procedures
What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent? VA
Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions, and VA's online? AF e-publishing website
Information about nonpowered AGE can be found in which technical orders? The 35 and 37 series
What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand? A base assembly, upper-structure assembly, platform assembly, and, on most stands, a hydraulic system
How is height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 maintenance stand? By the extension and retraction of a hydraulic cylinder assembly
Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder? B-2
What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand? The safety pins are installed
What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing? Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position to prevent the wheel assembly from swiveling.
How is operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled? Hydraulically
Created by: Cal12Pepper
Popular Military sets




Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards