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Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease? a. antigen B. antibody c. pathogen d. micro-organism Pathogen
Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria? a. sporozoa b. chlamydia c. rickettsiae d. mycoplasma Sporozoa
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? a. illness b. virulence c. incubation c. convalescence incubation
The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through a. cilia b. sneezing c. handwashing d. the lymphatic system cilia
Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution? a. airborne b. droplet c. contact d. enteric enteric
Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure ? a. droplet b. contact c. airborne d. respiratory airborne
What is the most serious type of meningitis a. viral b. serum c. bacterial d. pneumoncoccal bacterial
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is? a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. irregular menstral cycle c. vaginal discharge d. chlamydia PID
Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms? a. medical sepsis b. medical asepsis c. surgical sepsis d. surgical asepsis surgical asepsis
Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? a. disinfectant b. antiseptic c. detergent d. antitoxin antiseptic
What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in? a. airborne b. droplet c. contact d. reverse reverse
What procedures are followed when tx an infectious pt to the radiology dept? a. you must don a gown,mask, and gloves prior to tx the pt b. notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions c. give the pt a gown, mask, and gloves to w give the pt a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before tx
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an iso unit is a. a storage cart b. an isolation cart c. the supple room d. the rn station an isolation cart
When using a mask in an iso unit, put the mask on a. after entering the unit, and take it off before leaving b. after entering the unit, and take if off after leaving c. before entering, and take it off before leaving d. before entering, and take it o before entering, and take it off before leaving
What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization? a. cleaning b. disinfection c. pasteurization d. decontamination cleaning
How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer? a. 3 min b. 5 min c. 10 min d. 12 min 12 min
Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? a. formaldehydes b. hydrochloric acid c. phenolics d. alcohol hydrochloric acid
How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers? a. daily b. daily and weekly c. daily and monthly d. weekly and monthly daily
Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every a. load b. other load c. 12 hours d. 24 hours 24 hours
How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers? a. every load b. every 30 loads c. at least once per day d. at least once a week at least once per day
Which basic human need category is rest included in? a. safety b. security c. self-esteem d. physiological physiological
What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis? a. iron b. soy c. niacin. d. calcium iron
Plasma lipids include what three substances? a. vitamins, minerals, and herbs b. water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats c. nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride d. triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
What two actions are included in the physiological need for rest? a. rest and activity b. pain free and rest c. activity and pain free d. pain free and exercise activity and pain free
What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs? a. babinski b. grasping c. rooting d. moro moro
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age? a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 30 months 24 months
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? a. Blood pressure b. assessing current fitness status c. establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants d. providing services designed to maintain a healthy life blood pressure screeing
What substances does the body need in order to absorb vitamin b12? a. gastric acid b. intrinsic factor c. hydrogen ions d. red blood cells intrinsic factor
Vitamin b6 concentration in food sources is lost through a. dehydration b. packaging c. cooking d. freezing freezing
Large doses of vitamin C causes all of the following except a. heartburn b. constipation c. kidney stones d. abdominal cramps kidney stones
Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except a. digitalis b. calcium c. mineral oil d. thiazide diuretics mineral oil
A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of a. rickets b. night blindness c. pernicious anemia d. prolonged clotting times prolonged clotting times
Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments? a. ulcerative colitis b. heparin overdose c. malabsorption syndrome d. prolonged use of salicylates heparin overdose
Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble? a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin E d. vitamin K Vitamin C
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen a. during a blood transfusion b. as a result of not using table salt c. when a individual is unable to sink in water d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss through an excessive amount of fluid loss
Half-normal saline solution is represented by a. 0.2% b. 0.40% c. 0.45% d. 0.50% 0.45%
Potassium helps to maintain a. facial muscle tone b. clarity of eye sight c. heartbeat regulations d. alertness in the cerebellum heartbeat regulation
Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except? a. diabetes b. gastric ulcers c. cardiac disease d. renal impairment diabetes
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with a. coffee, cranberry juice or water b. orange or grapefruit juice c. soda, water, or milk d. tea, milk, or coffee tea, milk or coffee
Which route is injectable iron administered? a. intra muscular b. intra venous c. transdermal d. z track z track
When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as a. attraction b. catabolism c. anabolism d. cataclysm anabolism
Cellular metabolism is controlled by specific kind of a. muscle b. protein c. glucose d. enzyme enzyme
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called a. salts b. acids c. catalyzed d. synthesized acids
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by a. excessive thirst and nocturia b. acetone in the breath and urine c. constant hunger despite caloric intake d. severe vomiting resulting in weight loss acetone in breath and urine
Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes? a. protect against disease at the cellular level b.the body's only defense against infection c. proliferate hemoglobin and carry o2 to the body d. carry amino acids to the kidneys for dea protect against disease at the cellular level
The two main categories of leukocytes are a. agranulocytes and basophils b. granulocytes and agranulocytes c. neurophils and granulocytes d. monophils and lymphocytes granulocytes and agranulocytes
Neurtophils are also known as a. polypeptides b. polysaccharides c. multigranulocytes d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes polymorphonuclear leukocytes
The life span of lymphocytes is a. 12 hours b. 2 weeks c. years d. days 12 hours
What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms a. lymphocytes and macrophages b. polyleukocytes and monocytes c. monocytes and phagocytes d. neutrophils and leukocytes lymphocytes and macrophages
When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will be enlarged a. Cervical b. thoracic c. auxillary d. supratrochlear supratrochlear
Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by a. artificially acquired passive immunity b. artificially acquired active immunity c. naturally acquired passive immunity d. naturally acquired active immunity artificially acquired active immunity
the body's first step in the healing process is a. inflammation b. collecting c. infection d. bruising inflammation
During which staqe of healing are immature fiber cells are capillaries formed a. bruising b. maturation c. inflammation d. reconstruction inflammation
The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage a. bruising b. maturation c. inflammation d. reconstruction reconstruction
Full maturation of a wound is evident when a. new capillaries form b. the scar is deep red in color c. the scaring is white and glossy d. a scab completely covers the wound the scaring is white and glossy
For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is a. guilt b. acceptance c. fear and anxiety d. shock and disorientation shock and disorientation
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or resp arrest? a. hypercalcemia b. hypocalcemia c. hyperkalemia d. hypernatremia hyperkalemia
What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a pt has excessive vomiting, suctioning, or ingested too many antacids? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabilic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis metabolic alkalosis
Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis
Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabilic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory acidosis
To avoid infections, you should change a pt's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 16 hours d. 24 hours 8 hours
When selecting an iv solution, what size bags in (cc) would you possibly be able to select from a. 100-200 cc b. 500-750 cc c. 100-2,000 cc d. 500-2,000 cc 100-2,000 cc
Normally, how high above the pt should you hang an iv bag solution a. 6-12 in b. 18-24 in c. 24-36 in d. 36-48 in 24-36 inches
If a pt exhibits a mild allergic response to an iv solution, what should you do a. slow the infusion b. discontinue the iv immediately c. replace the tubing and the container d. send the solution to the lab for analysis slow the infusion
How much fecal material should you collect to send to the lab for stool specimen a. 1 tablespoon b. 2 tablespoons c. 3 tablespoons d. all of the defecated stool 2 tablespoons
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the pt to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for a. 1-2 min b. 2-3 min c. 3-4 min d. 4-5 min 2-3 minutes
During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away a. to allow the blood to clot b. to prevent spillage of blood c. in contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results d. it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
What step should you take before operating a glucose meter a. read the operating instructions b. confirm the order with a co-worker c. choose a site to obtain a blood sample d. ask all family members to leave the room read the operating instructions
The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is a. 40-110 mg/dl b. 70-115 mg/dl c. 90-150 mg/dl d. 120-200 mg/dl 70-115 mg/dl
In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to id the pt's a. temperature b. complaint of headache c. hx of cardiac arrhythmias d. physical deformity of the left leg complaint of a headache
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the a. rectum b. sigmoid colon c. ascending colon d. transverse colon rectum
What position would you normally place a pt in for a sigmoidoscopy a. folwer b. supine c. prone d. sims sims
When educating the pt with psuedofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, instruct the pt to avoid all the following except a. in the opposite direction of growth b. in the direction of the growth c. with facial skin strecthed d. with slow strok in the direction of hair growth
How do you measure the visual field a. id loss of vision b. id slopes in peripheral margins c. determine degrees away from fixation d. determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis
How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 vision tester (ovt) a. seven b. five c. four d. three seven
How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set (pip) test a. 13 b. 15 c. 24 d. 30 30
When performing a pulmonary function test on a pt, according to AF standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 sec (fev1) OR forced vital capacity (fvc) % is less than a. 65 b. 75 c. 80 d. 90 80
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are a. 1;1 b. 1;2 c. 2;2 d. 2;3 2;3
Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate a. spinal cord b. sinoatrial node c. atrioventricular node d. frontal lobe of the brain sinoatrial node
Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate a. l atrium b. r atrium c. l ventricle d. r ventricle l ventricle
Any artifical products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called a. artifact b. disturbances c. random waves d. deflection waves artifact
If you are performing an ecg on someone who is rated, a copy of that ecg must be sent to the a. major command (majcom) b. local medical exam board (meb) c. command level ecg library d. USAF Central ECG library USAF Central ECG library
For orthostatic v/s measurements, what is the correct sequence and correct time interval a. lying,sitting,standing; 3 min b. lying,sitting,standing; 5 min c. standing,sitting,lying;3 min d. standing,sitting,lying; 5 min lying, sitting, standing; 3 min
Notify the nurse or dr immediately if the pt's o2 sat falls below a. 88% b. 90% c. 97% d. 100% 97%
When checking the eyes during neurological exam, the pupils should a. constrict quickly and simultaneously b. dilate quickly and simultaneously c. constrict quickly and separately d. dilate quickly and serarately constrict quickly and simultaneously
When can the minor surgery procedure begin a. when the provider says its time b. after the consent form is signed c. once a set of vital signs are repeated d. only after housekeeping has cleaned the room after the consent form is signed
When cleaning a 2 in laceration on a healthy active duty male's r forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step a. begin suturing b. flush the wound c. dig out the debris with an allis clamp d. soak the wound in a flush the wound
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires tx, what should you do next a. apply a sterile dressing b. assess sensory awareness c. begin suturing the wound d. soak the wound in cold water assess sensory awareness
In the AF, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance a. daily b. weekly c. bimonthly d. monthly daily
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped a. 100 mm Hg b. 150 mm Hg c. 200 mm Hg d. 300 mm Hg 300 mm Hg
Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on a. code 1; cold b. code 2; cold c. code 3; hot d. code 4; hot code 3; hot
When transmitting information about a pt over the radio, what information should not be broadcast a. age b. name c. chief complaint d. medications and allergies name
In the AF, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only a. when the senior med tech on board approves it b. when local protocol authorizes it c. during the response phase d. during the transport phase when local protocol authorizes it
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the EMT is called a. expanded primary survey b. secondary survey c. trauma hx d. scene sizeup scene sizeup
If the pt is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute a. high concentration o2 with pp aviator mask b. ventilations with bvm and high flow o2 c. high concentration o2 with nonrebreather d. low concentration o2 with na ventilations with bvm and high flow o2
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a pt with a. significant mech of injury, focuses on the area of the body greatest threat b. insignificant mech of injury, focuses on the area of the body greatest threat c. a significant mech of injury, other b a signifant mech of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the pt are
When you ask a medical pt what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questions about a. onset b. quality c. radiation d. provocation provocation
While gathering a hx of illness, when you ask a med pt if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine a. time b. quality c. severity d. radiation time
When preparing to unload a pt from an ambulance, what should you do first a. turn the o2 off in the ambulance b. ensure all straps are secured on the pt c. make a list of supplies that need to be restocked d. place an emt on eithr side of the stretche ensure all straps are secured on the pt
If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should a. immediately place the pt in an upright position b. collect a sample for the testing at the hospital c. pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze d. not block the fluid from draining not block the fluid from draining
While examining a pt that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect a. hematoma b. cushing reflex c. basal skull fx d. parietal skull fx basal skull fx
Which acronym is used by emt in the field to describe a possible fx a. range of motion (rom) b. Painful, swollen deformity (psd) c. purified protein derivative (ppd) d. alert verbal painful unresponsive (avpu) painful swollen deformity (psd)
While working in the er, a pt comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first a. the pt's visual acuity b. if the pt is experiencing any pain c. whether the pt is authorized care in the facility d. if th if the pt is wearing contact lenses and which type
In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system a. l atrium b. r atrium c. l ventricle d. r ventricle r ventricle
When setting up a cardiac monitor, legal document you should pay particuler attention to and fix if is not correct is the a. ecg tracing date and time b. code blue record of events c. ambulance run sheet d. doctor's note ecg tracing date and time
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a. pharmacist b. clinical provider c. clinical pharmacist d. pharmaceutical technician clinical pharmacist
Out of the several names given each medication which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer a. trade name b. official name c. generic name d. chemical name trade name
Which statement is true regarding the role of a med service tech in medication administration a. techs are not trained to prepare meds for admin b. a rn or dr must directly observe techs when they are administering meds c. techs are permitted to admin techs are permitted to admin meds under supervision of an rn or dr
Which statement is not considered one of the pts legal and ethical rights a. be informed of a drug name b. be informed of a drug purpose c. choose the method of administration d. receieve clearly labeled med containers choose the method of administration
Which one of these is not included in the five rights of medication administration a. right time b. right dose c. right route d. right documentation right documentation
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once a. stat b. single c. standing d. as needed (PRN) stat
A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways a. one b. two c. four d. five two
Drug administration is controlled primarily by a. state amendments b. facility mandate c. federal law d. state law federal law
What classification of drugs is not acceptable for medical use a. schedule I b. schedule II c. schedule III d. schedule IV schedule I
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as a. schedule I b. schedule II c. schedule III d. schedule IV schedule II
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances a. drug regulatory act b. drug control regulation c. controlled substances act d. attorney general mandate of 1974 controlled substances act
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs a. chemotherapeutic b. substitutive c. supportive d. curative curative
The purpose of most drub therapy is to a. maintain a low level of the drug in the body b. maintain a constant level of the drug in the body c. cause the level of the drug to increase rapidly c. cause the level of the drug to decrease rapidly maintain a constant level of the drug in the body
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting a. slower to circulation level b. higher body metabolism c. lower body metabolism d. lower digestive system content lower digestive system content
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temp can affect drug action a. warmer temp increases circulation and cause rapid drug action b. warmer temp decreases circulation and cause slow drug action c. colder temp cause vessels to dilate/slow react warmer temps increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs a. internet search b. physician desk reference c. nurses pharmacy handbook d. technicians pharmacy handbook physician desk reference
What publication contains a list of medications available from the mtf's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and administration guidelines a. nurses drug reference b. local facility formulary c. physicians desk reference d. technicians phar local facility formulary
An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a a. spirit b. paste c. tincture d. liniment liniment
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content a. antiarrhythmics b. antiemetics c. cathartics d. antacids cathartics
Which of these elements is not required on a medication order a. patients age b. patients name c. specified time d. providers signatures patient age
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except a. for ensuring aic jones is available for work b. performing all steps in the modified six med rights c. being knowledgeable of the side effects d. verifying any for ensuring aic jones is available for work the next day
how many pounds are equal to 65 kg a. 130 b. 143 c. 152 d. 170 143
Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injections a. there is no possibility of local irritation b. only small amounts of a drug may be administered c. they are usually less expensive than oral d. drug action is faster than intra only small amounts of a drug may be administered
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is a. intravenous (iv) push b. intramuscular (im) c. subcutaneous (sc) d. IV drip intramuscular (im)
Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered a. ventral surface of the forearm b. lateral hip area c. posterior hand d. upper arms upper arms
What method of administration delivers medication directly into a patients digestive system a. oral b. buccal c. inhalation d. sublingual oral
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid meds being administered to inpatients are usually poured at that location a. in the pharmacy b. at a work station c. at the rn station d. at the pts bedside at the pts bedside
Which one of these statements is a disadvantage of inhalation medication a. unconscious pts cannot be treated b. positive-pressure devices are sometimes used c. monitoring the precise amount of drug admin is difficult d. resp distress is not relieved monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult
Which statement is proper procedure for administering inhalations into the resp tract of a pt a. document an increase in pulse or bp and notify the rn b. instruct pts to inhale normally when activating the nebulizer c. assess pts v/s before, during, a assess pts v/s before, during, and after the therapy
Into what body cavity are otic medications administered a. external auditory canal b. internal auditory canal c. lower conjunctival sac d. upper conjunctival sac external auditory canal
To administer ear drops in a pt under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe a. down to straighten the canal b. outward to expose the canal c. inward to confine the canal d. up to shorten the canal down to straighten the canal
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the pts vagina do you hang the bag a. 4-8 inches b. 6-10 inches c. 112-18 inches d. 24-36 inches 24-36 inches
Which of the following medications primary action is pain relief a. endorphins, hypnotics, and sedatives b. analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics c. placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics d. stimulant, sedatives, and placebo analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics
Opiods are contraindicated with a. the tx of extremity injuries b. phenergan combination c. head injury tx d. caffeine use head injury tx
Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with a. preventing the formation of prostaglandins b. the recovery of alcohol abuse c. increased kidney functions d. curing joint dysfunctions preventing the formation of prostaglandins
Which of the following medications are used primarily for analgesic actions in the tx of arthritis a. acetaminophen b. salicylates c. potassium d. tramadol acetaminophen
Which statement is not true of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs a. alleviate pain of arthritis b. raises prostaglandin levels c. used for long term tx d. increases risk of gastrointestinal problems raises prostaglandin levels
Contradictions of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except a. when taken with dairy b. for pts with asthma c. for pts taking anticoagulants d. when undergoing elective surgery when taken with dairy
Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence a. dexadrine b. concerta c. caffeine d. raitalin caffeine
All of the following are contraindications of cns stimulants except a. alcoholism b. irritability c. drug dependency d. eating disorder irritability
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter a. noreponephrine b. adrenaline c. dopamine d. derotonin seratonin
Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following except a. urinary retention b. pupil constriction c. cardiac arrhythmias d. postural hypotension pupil construction
Antianxiety medications are prescribed for a. suicidal tendencies tx b. the treatment of withdrawals c. prolonged tx d. the treat of insomnia the treat of insomnia
Antipsycotic medications are categorized as a. hypnotics b. major tranquilizer c. seizure medications d. antisynovial producers major tranquilizers
Which medication potentiates the effects of analgesics when combines with antipsychotics a. phenergan b. tylenol c. haldol d. zoloft phenergan
The effects of cardiac glycosides is to a. slow vasodilation b. increase respirations c. lower blood pressure d. strengthen the heartbeat strengthen the heartbeat
Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check a. brachial b. apical c. radial d. pedal apical
Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except a. vertigo b. diplopia c. tachycardia d. bradycardia tachcardia
Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for pts with a. lung conditions that cause bronchspasm b. heart block and chf c. renal and hepatic impairment d. diabetes militeus lung conditions that cause bronchspasm
Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by a. potentiating the actions of the potassium given concurrently b. working synergistically with barbiturates to decreases heart rate c. increasing the blood o2 n reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries
Contraindications for procainamide include personw with known a. congestive heart failure b. hepatic disorders c. renal disease d. pregnancy chf
Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to a. treat anemia b. produce bradycardia c. increase myocardial excitability d. maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion
The most common side effect of antihypertensives is a. tinnitus b. tachycardia c. vasoconstriction d. postural hypotension postural hypotension
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by a. antagonizing myocardial excitability b. producing the enzyme protease c. decreasing vasoconstriction d. increasing heart rate decreasing vasoconstriction
When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what is the effect a. antogonize hypokalemia b. potentiate hypotension c. potentiate depression d. synergism potentiate hypotension
Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with a. barbiturates b. stimulants c. diuretics d. aspirin diuretics
The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer a. protamine sulfate b. vitamins b12 c. vitamins K d. heparin vitamin K
Mr Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin tx post surgically to prevent a. headaches post spinal anesthesia b. gastrointestinal bleeding c. peripheral vein collapse d. deep vein thrombosis deep vein thrombosis
The most serious complications of thrombolytic therapy is a. bleeding b. arrhythmia c. tachycardia d. casoconstriction bleeding
Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of which of the following a. excessive gas b. constipation c. vomiting d. diarrhea constipation
Which type of laxative is sorbitol a. saline b. stimulant c. hyperosmotic d. bulk forming hyperosmotic
Which of the following medications is a laxative a. kaopectate b. mineral oil c. imodium d. lactinex mineral oil
among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteriods fall with a. curative b. palliative c. restorative d. supportive supportive
Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result from a. the adrenal glands over producing corticosteroids b. an abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroids therapy c. short term tx therapy of asthma cortocosteroid d. excessive urinat an abrupt withdrawal of adrenal cortocosteroid therapy
Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection a. insulin b. tapazole c. corticosteroids d. thyroid agents corticosteroids
Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with a. daypro or antacids b. alcohol or salicylates c. triclyclics or caffeine d. procardia or anticoagulants alcohol or salicylates
Some of the symptoms associated with type II diabetes are all of the following except a. polydipsia b. slow healing c. vision problems d. excessive weight loss excessive weight loss
Which of the following medications can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest a. tetracyclines b. theophylines c. gentamycin d. procardia theophyline
The influenza vaccine is manufactured a. from plants b. with an inactive virus c. to cure the flue strain for the year d. synthetically with live viral properties with an inactive virus
Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of a. contaminated food or water b. droplets through the air c. blood and body fluids d. reused linen contaminated food or water
Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products a. anthrax b. influenza c. small pos d. hep b influenza
How many doses are given in a series of hep b vaccine regiment a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 3
Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the AF a. small pox b. influenza c. anthrax d. tetanus tetanus
What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis a. antineoplastics b. antihistimines c. antifungals d. antivirals antihistamines
When a pt has been prescribed Tesslon perles to help stop coughing, would patient-education would be appropriate a. take only at bedtime b. take with orange juice c. do not chew the capsule d. do not take with food or milk do not chew the capsule
Which statement would be the responsibility of the med tech during a routine pt admit a. evaluate pt b. obtain pt hx c. transcribe dr orders d. obtain v/s, height and weight obtain v/s height and weight
What considerations determine the steps in the routine admit process a. pt condition and the cost of admit per day b. facility policy and pt distance from home c. pt condition and facility policy d. facility policy and pt request pt condition and facility policy
While admitting a pt, you notice that the pt seems dizzy and unstable, what do you do a. call the dr to order restaints b. inform the rn that the pt is a fall risk c. look at the pt's meds, it could be a side effect d. put restraints on the pt til dr inform the rn that the pt is a fall risk
Who authorizes tx of pt care for an interservice tx a. chief Rn b. both service chiefs c. receiving dr d. chief of hospital services both service chiefs
During the tx of a psych pt requiring sedation, how are valuables safeguarded a. Designated custodian signs for prop. forward by registered mail b. " " forward by overnight mail c. an aeromedical evac tech signs, tx with pt d. " " nurse, tx designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
Which statement allows a pt to depart from a med facility for a short period of time 24-48 hrs a. pass b. discharge c. subsisting elsewhere d. absent without leave pass
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the dr within a. 4 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 12 hrs d. 24 hrs 24 hrs
The most common forms that a med tech will be resp for completing are the a. intake and output flow sheet and v/s b. blood transfusion record and dr orders c. v/s record and progress notes d. progress notes and dr orders intake and output flow sheet and v/s record
Whats the proper method of annotating shift change totals on dd form 792 intake and output worksheet a. no documentation is required at shift change b. document all totals put remarks section c. document in grand total d. circle the last accumulated t circle the last accumulated total
If an inpt chart with dr's orders for v/s every 4 hrs was blank whtat would you assume a. pt was likely off the unit having test done b. pt is doing well and no problems were noted c. dr probably changed the orders verbally d. v/s were not completed v/s were not completed
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving rn diagnoses a. planning b. assessing c. evaluating d. implementing planning
Relative to the rn process,what is a client goal a. an observable change in pt behavior b. a measurable change in the pt condition c. a realistic and measurable statement of the end result of care d. " " of the expected change in pt behav a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in pt behavior
Which action is performed to help the pt reach their goals most effectively a. nursing interventions b. nursing diagnosis c. nursing skills d. charting nursing intervention
What is a way to help relieve most of the pt's concerns prior to surgery a. sedation b. back massage c. o2 therapy d. preoperative teaching preoperative teaching
What has a significant impact on the pt's perceived quality of care and tx a. reduce recovery time b. dry mucous membranes c. produce an unconscious state d. prevent aspiration during surgery dry mucous membranes
Which surgical case would likely be performed in a same day surgery clinic a. hip replacement b. hysterectomy c. appendectomy d. odonectomy odonectomy
Without provider approval, what are the max minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 30
What precaution is taken for a postoperative pt who received a radioisotope implant a. isolation is necessary b. no precautions necessary c. a lead apron is placed over the pt d. lead aprons are placed on other recovery pt's isolation is necessary
When performing a neuro check on a pt. which exam would indicate an appropriate response to light a. opqrst b. perrla c. eom d. rom perrla
With regard to blood transfusion, one of your resp. is to document a pt's tansfusion on a. standard form 518 b. standard form 3066 c. af form 2019 d. af form 3066 standard form 518
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process a. platelets b. leukocytes c. packed cells d. anticoagulants platelets
How is whole blood normally supplied a. 100 units b. 250 units c. 450 units d. 500 units 450 units
What is the guidleline for the max min of time from pickup to transfusion a. 20 b. 30 c. 60 d. 90 30
If a pt you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. what do you do a. continue monitoring, normal effect b. place pt on either side c. admin 100 % o2 d. stop the transfusion stop the transfusion
A post-operative pt is agitated, thrashing violently or crying they are likely experiencing a. extreme pain b. hyperthermia c. emergence delirium d. electrolyte imbalances emergence delirium
Ideally in what pt is a pt placed in before performing oropharyngeal suctioning a. modified lateral b. trendelenberg c. semisitting d. supine semisitting
A fx that results from disease, is called a. hairline b. pathologic c. congenital d. traumatic pathologic
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what ortho problem a. inflammatory disease b. congenital problems c. traumatic injuries d. infectious disaease traumatic injury
Ortho deformities such as clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as a. infectious b. congenital c. pathological d. temporary congenital
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in pts with ortho disorders because it a. causes drop foot b. causes venous stasis c. causes external hip rotation d. promotes flexion deformities of the hip promotes flexion deformities of the hip
What ortho problem would you suspect if your pt complains of soreness or aching a. muscular pain b. bone infection c. malignant tumor d. psychomsomatic issues muscular pain
Which in not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fx a. age b. gende c. extent of injury d. circulation to the area gender
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a. phantom limb pain b. phantom limb sensation c. physiological phenomena d. psychological phenomena phantom limb pain
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of the limb a. suction b. o2 c. NG tube d. tourniquet tourniquet
Rehab for a pt with a spinal cord injury is normally a. a life-long process b. of no use because they do not fully recover c. continued for 6 mon after injury occurred d. continued for up to 2 yrs after the final surgery a life-long process
Turning a pt on a stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause a. aspiration b. cardiac arrest c. disorientation d. resp arrest cardiac arrest
During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to a. sustain life b. stop ischemia c. maintain mobility d. monitor vital signs sustain life
During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful a. early infancy b. preschool c. school age d. adolescence preschool
which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control a. strictly enforced rules b. use of safety restraints c. changes in daily routine d. established daily rituals and routines established daily rituals and routines
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is a. fantasy b. projection c. regression d. displacement regression
When caring for a child with n/v the primary concern would be a. hypernatremia b. hyperkalemia c. dehydration d. aspiration dehydration
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child a. the physician needs to suture the childs face b. the child continues to climb out of bed c. to prevent the child from falling out of a highchair d. you have other tasks to do, and no times for you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly pts is generally a. less because of frequent daytime naps b. more because of insufficient activity c. the same as required by all ages d. more than a youthful pt less because of frequent daytime naps
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly pt a. explain the importance of nutrition b. ask the pt to try new foods c. cater to the pts customs d. bring a try full of choices cater to the pts customs
The first stage of dying is a. bargaining b. depression c. anger d. denial denial
What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the veing into the surrounding tissues a. infiltration b. embolism c. phlebitis d. extravasation extravasation
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed a. environment b. personality c. character d. herdity personality
What affects an individuals feeling about themselves a. socioeconomic status b. opinions of others c. self perception d. job title self perception
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless action a. compulsion b. delusion c. anxiety d. conflict compulsion
Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality a. phobia b. neuroses c. delusion d. psychoses neuroses
A pt who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of a. withdrawal b. suspicion c. anxiety d. anger withdrawal
Who are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories a. severity of behavior or shared characteristics b. shared characteristics or established criteria c. severity of behavior and pt age d. established criteria and pt age shared characteristics or established criteria
When does a rehab process begin with a mentally ill pt a. during preadmission b. within 12 hours of admission c. within 24 hours of admission d. as soon as the pt is admitted as soon as the pt is admitted
What major problem affects mental health tx a. attitude of society b. cost of medical care c. lack of adequate medication d. limited number of appointments attitude of society
When observing and reporting on mentally ill pts. the most important factor to consider is a. behavior b. appearance c. conversation d. sleeping habits behavior
If you see a mentally ill pt sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions except a. telephone for help b. try to describe the pt, including the pts clothing c. note the direction in which the pt is heading d. leave the other pts leave the other pts to follow the escaping patient
Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child a. child b. abuser c. parents d. society abuser
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises a. report the suspected abuse b. only report of the pt admits abuse c. counsel the parent on their actions d. nothing report the suspected abuse
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse a. counseling is sought b. tension and stress builds c. physical or verbal abuse occurs d. spouse states it will never happen again spouse stats it will never happen again
If a pt is being restrained, what position should they be in if the pt is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated a. supine b. prone c. semi-recumbent d. high fowlers prone
For pts who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to a. schedule activities for afternoon or evening b. begin the program early in the pts hosp stay c. plan the activities in conjunction w/ pain med d. begin the program early in the pt's hospital stay
When planning activities for pt's with psychological problems, your primary goal a. motivate the pt b. reassure the pt c. show sincere concern d. develop a good rapport develop a good rapport
What should you do to help pts who become angry and hostile a. involve the pt in group therapy sessions b. allow the pt to become physically abusive c. refer the pt to the rn or dr d. allow them to channel hostility through verbal expression allow them to channel hostility through verbal expression
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, pt positioning should be changed every a. 1 hr b. 2 hrs c. 3 hrs d. 4 hrs 2 hrs
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing a. prevent back, hip, and leg strain b. prevent back, hip, and neck strain c. maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain d. maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and neck strain maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your a. axis b. head c. internal gridle d. base of support base of support
Which technique for moving the pt up in bed in not used for a pt who has back or chest injuries a. one person b. two person c. shoulder lift d. two person with drawsheet shoulder lift
When turning a pt, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the pt a. do not push too hard b. raise the far side rail c. raise the near side rail d. lock the wheels on the bed raise the far side rail
When transferring pts, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by a. locking beds and wheelchairs before the rransfer b. using good teamwork and proper body mech c. explaining the procedure to the pt prior to transfer d. knowing the pt's weigh using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
A pt's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent a. the pt from falling out of bed b. pressure on the back of the legs c. pulmonary hypertension d. embolism pressure on the back of the legs
Which devices can be used to slide a pt from the bed to a stretcher a. drawsheet and trapeze b. drawsheet and roller board c. drawsheet and patient hoist d. roller board and pt hoist drawsheet and roller board
When helping a pt ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands a. beside pts near arm interlocked with pts near arm b. beside pts with 1 hand on pts waist, 1 hand under near arm c. beside and behind pt d. beside, behind pt 1 ha beside the pt with one hand on the pts waist and one hand under his or her near arm
Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by pts who can bear some weight on both legs a. two point b. three point c. four point d. swing through four point
Which gait is used by pts who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other a. two point b. three point c. four point d. swing through four point
Isometric exercises are activities that involve a. muscle relaxation without body movement b. " " without any body movement c. muscle contraction without body movement d. muscle contraction with body movement muscle contraction without body movement
Care must be taken to ensure pts do not hold their breath while performing isometric exercises a. muscle strain b. heart attack c. dizziness d. acidosis heart attack
What diet is usually ordered for pts who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount a. soft b. bland c. liquid d. regular liquid
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days a. soft diet b. full liquid c. clear liquid d. mineral-restricted clear liquid
What should the solution temp be during gastric gavage a. hot b. chilled c. lukewarm d. room temp room temp
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the max amount of urine to remove a. 550-800 cc b. 650-900 cc c. 750-1000 cc d. 85-=1100 cc 750-1000 cc
During catheterization of a female pt, how many inches is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder a. 2-3 b. 3-4 c. 4-5 d. 5-6 2-3
The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to a. prevent the risk of contamination of cath tip b. prevent dripping of urine on the bed linen c. eliminate any possible pain d. prevent air from entering into the bladder prevent air from entering into the bladder
For what length of time in minutes should the pt retain the solution of a cleaning enema a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 5
The pts colostomy bag should be changed when it is a. one third full b. one half full c. three fourths full d. full one third full
What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range a. 85-88% b. 89-91% c. 92-95% d. 95-98% 95-98%
For pts using a nonbreathing mask, the inspired o2 concentration is a. 30-40 percent b. 40-50 percent c. 60-90 percent d. 80-100 percent 60-90 percent
Which mask is suggested for pts with copd a. venturi b. simple c. nonbreathing d. positive pressure venturi
Before performing tracheostomy care, you would first a. untie the neck strings b. remove the dirty dressing c. assess the stoma for patency d. put on you unsterile gloves assess the stoma for patency
This is usually described by the pts as a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest a. flutter b. syncope c. palpitation d. fibrillation palpitation
When preparing a pt for insertion of central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the pt to decrease air embolism a. webber b. valsalva c. vagal d. allen valsalva
For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in what position should the pt be placed a. left lateral recumbent b. right lateral recumbent c. trendelenburg d. supine trandelenburg
How many mins should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eye a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 20
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many mins of an accident a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 30
How are corneal abrasions detected a. x rays b. vanogram c. angiogram d. fluorescein stain fluorescein stain
Damage to the epidermis with possible damage tothe dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn a. superficial b. full thickness c. partial thickness d. severe thickness partial thickness
When caring for pt with electrical burns at a facility, your 1st priority is a. to apply sterile dressings to the burn sites b. management of the pt airway c. evaluate extent of the burn d. infection control management of the pt airway
How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound a. dry b. wet c. wet to dry d. wet to wet wet to dry
What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for prolonged period of time a. reflex vasoconstriction b. reflex vasodilatation c. babinskis reflex d. haab reflex reflex vasoconstriction
When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place a. 10-20 min b. 20-30 min c. 30-40 min d. 40-5- min 20-30 min
Created by: mornelas
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