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Pharmacology
Final Exam
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| biologics | chemical agents that produce biological responses within the body; they are synthesized by cells of the human body, animal cells, or microorganisms |
| clinical pharmacology | an area of medicine devoted to the evaluation of drugs used for human therapeutic benefit |
| formularies | lists of drugs and drug recipes commonly used by pharmacists |
| natural alternative therapies | herbs, natural extracts, vitamins, minerals or dietary supplements |
| pathophysiology | the study of diseases and the functional changes occurring in the body as a result of diseases |
| pharmaceutics | the science of preparing and dispensing drugs |
| pharmacology | the study of medicines; the discipline pertaining to how drugs improve the health of the human body |
| therapeutics | the branch of medicine concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering |
| bioavailability | the ability of a drug to reach its target cells and produce its effect |
| chemical name | strict chemical nomenclature used for naming drugs established the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) |
| combination drugs | drug product with more than one active generic ingredient |
| controlled substance | in the United States, a drug restricted by the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act. In Canada, a drug subject to guidelines outlined in Part III, Schedule G, of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act |
| generic name | nonproprietary name of a drug assigned by the government |
| mechanism of action | how a drug exerts its effects |
| pharmacologic classification | method for organizing drugs on the basis of their mechanism of action (how they work pharmacologically) |
| prototype drug | an original, well-understood drug model from which other drugs in a pharmacologic class have been developed |
| restricted drugs | in Canada, a drug not intended for human use, covered in Part IV, Schedule H, of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act |
| scheduled drugs | in the United States, a term describing a drug placed into on of five categories (I through V) based on its potential for misuse or abuse |
| therapeutic classification | method for organizing drugs on the basis of their therapeutic usefulness |
| trade name | proprietary name of a drug assigned by the manufacturer; also called the brand name or product name |
| allergic reaction | a hyperresponse of body tissues to a foreign substance (allergen), in which patients experience uncomfortable and potentially serious symptoms, including difficulty breathing, pain, swelling, skin rash, and other unfavorable signs |
| anaphylaxis | an acute allergic response to an antigen that results in severe hypotension and may cause death if untreated |
| apothecary system | former system of weights and measures used by health care providers and pharmacists; replaced by the metric system |
| ASAP order | means "as soon as possible"; a physician's order referring to the time frame that is often defined as less than 30 minutes |
| astringent effect | the shrinkage of swollen membranes or binding together of body surface material |
| buccal route | the administration of medications by the cheek or mouth |
| compliance | taking a medication in the way it was prescribed by the practitioner; in the case of OTC drugs, following the instructions found on the label |
| enteral route | the major route by which drugs enter the body through the digestive tract |
| enteric-coated | hard, waxy coating that enables drugs to resist the acidity of the stomach; enables drugs to dissolve in the small intestine |
| household systems | older system of measurement involving teaspoons, tablespoons, cups, drops, pounds, etc |
| intradermal (ID) route | method of parenteral drug delivery in which drugs are injected into the dermis of the skin |
| intramuscular (IM) route | method of parenteral drug delivery in which drugs are injected into layers of muscle beneath the skin |
| intravenous (IV) route | method of parenteral drug delivery in which drugs are injected into the venous circulation |
| metric system | the most common system of measurement |
| parenteral route | the major route by which drugs enter the body other than the enteral or topical route |
| prn order | Latin; pro re nata; physician's order; means 'to administer as required by the patient's condition' |
| routine orders | standard order usually carried out within 2 hours of the time it was written by the physician |
| single order | a physician's order for a drug that is to be given only once at a specific time; an example is a preoperative order |
| six rights of drug administration | practical guidelines for nurses to use during drug preparation, delivery, and administration of drugs |
| standing order | a physician's order written in advance of a situation, which is to be carried out under specific circumstances |
| STAT order | comes from statim, the Latin word meaning 'immediately'; the time frame between writing the STAT order and administering the drug may be 5 minutes or less, depending on facility rules |
| subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route | method of parenteral drug delivery in which drugs are injected into the hypodermis of the skin |
| sublingual (SL) route | method of enteral drug delivery in which drugs are placed under the tongue |
| sustained-release | tablets or capsules that are designed to dissolve very slowly |
| three checks of drug administration | checks used by nurses together with the six rights to help ensure patient safety and drug effectivness |
| topical route | the route by which drugs are placed directly onto the skin and associated membranes |
| transdermal | method of drug delivery, usually by a patch, in which drugs are absorbed across the layers of the skin for the purpose of entering the bloodstream |
| transmucosal | method of topical drug delivery in which drugs are applied directly to mucosal membranes, including the nasal and respiratory pathways and vagina |
| absorption | the process of moving a drug across body membranes |
| agonists | drugs that are capable of binding with receptors in order to cause a cellular response |
| antagonists | drugs that block the response of another drug |
| biotransformation | the chemical conversion of drugs from one form to another that may result in increased or decreased activity |
| distribution | the process of transporting drugs through the body |
| efficacy | the effectiveness of a drug in producing a more intense response as its concentration is increased |
| enterohepatic recirculation | recycling of drugs and other substances by the circulation of bile through the intestine and liver |
| excretion | the process of removing substances from the body |
| first-pass effect | a mechanism whereby drugs are absorbed across the intestinal wall and enter into blood vessels, known as the hepatic portal circulation, which carries blood directly to the liver |
| half-life (t1/2) | the length of time required for a drug to decrease its concentration in the plasma by one half of the original amount |
| metabolism | the sum total of all chemical reactions in the body or an organ (for example, the liver) |
| pharmacodynamics | the study of how the body responds to drugs and natural substances |
| pharmacokinetics | the study of what the body does to drugs |
| potency | the power or strength of a drug at a specified concentration or dose |
| prodrugs | drugs that become more active after they are metabolized |
| receptor | the structural component of a cell to which a drug binds in a dose-related manner to produce a response |
| receptor theory | a cellular mechanism by which most drugs produce their effects |
| assessment | appraisal of a patient's condition that involves gathering and interpreting data |
| etiologies | causes of the patient's disease or condition |
| evaluation criteria | objective assessment of the effectiveness and impact of interventions |
| evaluation phase | part of the nursing process that provides an objective assessment of the effectiveness of the interventions |
| goal | an objective that the patient or nurse seeks to attain or achieve |
| implementation phase | part of the nursing processing during which the nurse carries out activities that assist in accomplishing established goals |
| interventions | action that produces an effect or that is intended to alther the course of a disease or condition |
| nursing diagnosis | clinically based judgement about the patient and his or her response to health and illness |
| nursing process | five-part decision-making system that includes assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation |
| outcome | objective measure of goals |
| planning phase | stage of the nursing process that links strategies or interventions to established goals and outcomes |
| botanicals | a plant extract used to treat or prevent illness |
| complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) | general term for treatments that consider the health of the whole person and promote disease prevention |
| Dietary Supplement and Nonprescription Drug Consumer Protection Act | law that requires companies that market herbal and dietary supplements to include their address and phone number on the product labels so consumers can report adverse events |
| Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 | primary law in the United States regulating herb and dietary supplements |
| dietary supplements | a nondrug substance regulated by the DSHEA |
| herbs | plants with a soft stem that is used in healing or as a seasoning |
| specialty supplements | a nonherbal dietary supplement used to enhance body functions |
| addiction | the continued use of a substance despite its negative health and social consequences |
| alcohol intoxication | a condition of altered mental and physical function resulting from drinking more alcoholic beverages within a time frame than the body can tolerate |
| attention deficit disorder (ADD) | consistent difficulty in focusing attention on a task for a sufficient length of time |
| cross-tolerance | the process of adapting to a new drug as a result of having already been exposed to a related drug |
| designer drugs | drugs that are produced in a laboratory and are intended to mimic the effects of other psychoactive controlled substances |
| Narcolepsy | condition characterized by uncontrolled daytime sleepiness |
| Opioid | natural or synthetic morphine-like substance obtained from the unripe seeds of the poppy plant |
| physical dependence | the condition of experiencing unpleasant withdrawal symptoms when a substance is discontinued |
| psychedelics | substances that alter perception and reality |
| psychological dependence | an unpleasant, intense craving for a drug after it has been withdrawn |
| tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) | the active chemical in marijuana |
| tolerance | the process of adapting to a drug over time and requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect |
| withdrawal syndrome | unpleasant symptoms experienced when a physically dependent client discontinues the use of an abused drug |
| acetylcholine (Ach) | primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system; also present at somatic neuromuscular junctions and at parasympathetic and sympathetic preganglionic nerves |
| adrenergic | a term relating to nerves that release norepinephrine or epinephrine |
| adrenergic agent | another name for a sympathomimetic drug |
| adrenergic blockers | a drug that blocks the actions of the sympathetic nervous system |
| adrenergic drugs | another name for a sympathomimetic drug |
| alpha receptor | type of subreceptor found in the sympathetic nervous system |
| anticholinergics | drugs that inhibit the action of acetylcholine at its receptor |
| beta receptor | type of subreceptor found in the sympathetic nervous system |
| cholinergic | a term relating to nerves that release acetylcholine |
| cholinergic blockers | a drug that blocks the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system |
| cholinergic drugs | another name for parasympathomimetic drugs |
| ganglia | collections of neuron cell bodies located outside the CNS |
| muscarinic | type of cholinergic receptor found in smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands |
| nicotinic | type of cholinergic receptor found in ganglia of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems |
| norepinephrine | primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system |
| parasympathetic nervous system | portion of the autonomic system that is active during periods of rest and digestion |
| parasympathomimetics | drugs that mimic the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system |
| sympathetic nervous system | portion of the autonomic system that is active during periods of stress and which produces the fight-or-flight response |
| sympatholytic | a drug that blocks the actions of the sympathetic nervous system |
| sympathomimetic | a drug that mimics the actions of the sympathetic nervous system |
| antidepressants | drugs used for the treatment of depression and a range of anxiety disorders, including panic, obsessive-compulsive, social phobia, and post-traumatic stress disorders |
| anxiety | state of apprehension and autonomic nervous system activation resulting from exposure to a nonspecific or unknown cause |
| anxiolytics | drugs that relieve anxiety |
| barbiturates | class of drugs derived from barbituric acid; they act as CNS depressants and are used for their sedative and antiseizure effects |
| benzodiazepines | class of drugs used to treat anxiety and insomnia |
| black box warning | warning label surrounded by a black border and issued by the FDA to emphasize the important and serious life-threatening risks associated with the use of the drug |
| CNS depressants | drugs that lower neuronal activity within the CNS |
| generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) | difficult-to-control, excessive anxiety that lasts 6 months or more |
| insomnia | the inability to fall asleep or stay asleep |
| limbic system | area in the brain responsible for emotion, learning, memory, motivation, and mood |
| obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) | anxiety characterized by recurrent, intrusive thoughts or repetitive behaviors that interfere with normal activities or relationships |
| panic disorder | anxiety characterized by intense feelings of immediate apprehension, fearfulness, terror, or impending doom |
| phobias | fearful feelings attached to situations or objects |
| post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) | anxiety characterized by a sense of helplessness and the reexperiencing of a traumatic event, for example, war, physical or sexual abuse, natural disasters, or murder |
| rebound insomnia | increased sleeplessness that occurs when long-term antianxiety or hypnotic medication is discontinued |
| reticular activating system (RAS) | the brain structure that projects from the brainstem and thalamus to the cerebral cortex; responsible for sleeping and wakefulness and performs an alerting function |
| reticular formation | a network of neurons found along the entire length of the brainstem connected with the reticular activating system |
| sedative-hypnotic | drug that produces a calming effect when given in lower doses, and produces sleep when given in higher doses |
| sedatives | drugs that relax or calm the patient |
| antidepressants | drugs used for the treatment of depression and a range of anxiety disorders, including panic, obsessive-compulsive, social phobia, and post-traumatic stress disorders |
| attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) | a disorder typically diagnosed in childhood and adolescence characterized by hyperactivity as well as attention, organization, and behavior control issues |
| bipolar disorder | a disorder characterized by extreme and opposite feelings, such as euphoria and depression or calmness and rage; also called manic depression |
| dysthymic disorder | less severe type of mood disorder that may prevent a person from feeling well or functioning normally |
| major depressive disorder | a disorder characterized by at least five symptoms of depression |
| monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) | drugs inhibiting monoamine oxidase, an enzyme that terminates the actions of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, and serotonin |
| mood disorder | a disorder involving a change in behavior, such as major depressive disorder or bipolar disorder |
| mood stabilizers | drugs that level mood to treat bipolar disorder and mania |
| selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) | drugs that selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin into nerve terminals |
| serotonin syndrome (SES) | a set of signs and symptoms associated with overmedication with antidepressants |
| serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) | drugs that block the recycling of two neurotransmitters, serotonin and norepinephrine |
| tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) | drugs with a three-ring chemical structure that inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into nerve terminals |
| akathisia | uncontrolled limb and body movements |
| extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) | symptoms where muscles become very rigid because of overmedication with antipsychotics or by lack of dopamine function in the corpus striatum |
| negative symptoms | symptoms that subtract from normal behavior; signs that are used to assist with the diagnosis of schizophrenia |
| neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) | a potentially fatal condition caused by some antipsychotic medications; symptoms include an extremely high body temperature, drowsiness, changing blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, and muscle rigidity |
| neuroleptics | drugs used to treat "nervous-type" conditions such as psychoses |
| parkinsonism | degenerative disorder of the nervous system caused by a deficiency of the brain neurotransmitter dopamine; this deficiency results in the disturbances of muscle movement |
| positive symptoms | symptoms that add on to normal behavior; signs that are used to assist with the diagnosis of schizophrenia |
| schizoaffective disorder | disorder with symptoms similar to schizophrenia and mood disorders |
| schizophrenia | type of psychosis characterized by abnormal thoughts and thought processes, withdrawal from other people and the outside environment, and apparent preoccupation with one's own mental state |
| tardive dyskinesia | involuntary movements of facial muscles and the tongue that occur due to long-term antipsychotic therapy |
| acetylcholinesterase (AchE) | an enzyme that degrades acetylcholine within the synapse, enhancing the effects of the neurotransmitter |
| Alzheimer's disease (AD) | most common dementia, characterized by loss of memory, confusion, disorientation, and loss of judgment; hallucinations and delusions may also occur |
| Dementia | degenerative disorder characterized by progressive memory loss, confusion, and the inability to think or communicate effectively |
| Dystonia | muscle spasm characterized by rigidity and abnormal, occasionally painful, movements or postures |
| multiple sclerosis (MS) | autoimmune disorder of the central nervous system; a condition in which antibodies slowly destroy tissues in the brain and spinal cord |
| neuromuscular blocking agents | drugs that bind to acetylcholine receptors, preventing contraction of skeletal muscle |
| parkinsonism | degenerative disorder of the nervous system caused by a deficiency of the brain neurotransmitter dopamine; this deficiency results in the disturbances of muscle movement |
| spasticity | condition in which certain muscle groups remain in a continuous contracted state |
| action potential | an electrical signal of a single cell (muscle or nerve) generated by the opening and closing of special ion channels located on the cell's membrane |
| Convulsions | uncontrolled muscle contractions or spasms that occur in the face, torso, arms, or legs |
| Eclampsia | condition in which seizures and/or a coma develop in a patient with preeclampsia |
| Epilepsy | disorder of the CNS characterized by seizures and/or convulsions |
| febrile seizures | abnormal state of neuronal discharge resulting from high fever |
| generalized seizures | seizures that travel throughout the entire brain on both sides |
| partial | seizures that start on one side of the brain and travel a short distance before stopping |
| partial (focal) seizures | seizures that start on one side of the brain and travel a short distance before stopping |
| pre-eclampsia | condition in which hypertension develops because of pregnancy or recent pregnancy. Hypertension is accompanied by proteinuria and/or edema |
| seizure | symptom of epilepsy characterized by abnormal neuronal discharges within the brain |
| status epilepticus | condition characterized by repeated seizures |
| analgesic | drug used to reduce or eliminate pain |
| aura | sensory cue such as bright lights, smells, or tastes that precede a migraine |
| Aδ fibers | nerves that transmit sensations of sharp pain |
| Bradykinin | chemical mediator of pain released following tissue damage |
| C fibers | nerves that transmit dull, poorly localized pain |
| cyclooxygenase (COX) | key enzyme in the prostaglandin metabolic pathway that is blocked by aspirin and other NSAIDs |
| endogenous opioids | chemicals produced naturally within the body that decrease or eliminate pain; they closely resemble the actions of morphine |
| migraine | severe headache preceded by auras that may include nausea and vomiting |
| narcotic | natural or synthetic drug related to morphine; may be used as a broader legal term referring to hallucinogens (LSD), CNS stimulants, marijuana, and other illegal drugs |
| nociceptor | receptor connected with nerves that receive and transmit pain signals to the spinal cord and brain |
| opiate | natural substance extracted from the poppy plant |
| opioid | natural or synthetic morphine-like substance obtained from the unripe seeds of the poppy plant |
| patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) | use of an infusion pump to deliver a prescribed amount of pain relief medication over a designated time |
| prostaglandins | chemicals released after tissue damage, leading to pain, inflammation, and other body reactions |
| substance P | neurotransmitter within the spinal cord involved in the neural transmission of pain |
| tension headache | common type of head pain caused by stress and relieved by nonnarcotic analgesics |
| amides | type of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen (—NH—CO—) |
| anesthesia | medical procedure involving drugs that block the transmission of nerve impulses and cause loss of sensation and/or consciousness |
| esters | type of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon and oxygen (—CO—O—) |
| general anesthesia | medical procedure that produces loss of sensation throughout the entire body and unconciousness |
| local anesthesia | loss of sensation to a relatively small part of the body without loss of consciousness |
| atherosclerosis | a buildup of fatty substances and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls |
| bile acid | chemicals secreted in bile that aid in the digestion of fats |
| high-density lipoprotein (HDL) | lipid-carrying particle in the blood that contains high amounts of protein and lower amounts of cholesterol; considered to be "good" cholesterol |
| HMG-CoA reductase | primary enzyme in the biochemical pathway for the synthesis of cholesterol |
| Hypercholesterolemia | high levels of cholesterol in the blood |
| Hyperlipidemia | excess amounts of lipids in the blood |
| Lecithin | phospholipid that is an important part of cell membranes |
| Lipoprotein | substance carrying lipids in the bloodstream |
| low-density lipoprotein (LDL) | lipid-carrying particle that contains lower amounts of protein and high amounts of cholesterol; considered to be "bad" cholesterol |
| phospholipid | type of lipid that contains two fatty acids, a phosphate group, and a chemical backbone of glycerol |
| plaque | fatty material that builds up in the lining of blood vessels and may lead to hypertension, stroke, myocardial infarction, or angina |
| steroid | type of lipid that consists of four rings and comprises certain hormones and drugs |
| steroid nucleus | ring structure common to all steroids |
| therapeutic lifestyle changes | nondrug changes which, when implemented, can reduce blood cholesterol levels |
| triglyceride | type of lipid that contains three fatty acids and a chemical backbone of glycerol |
| very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) | lipid-carrying particle that is converted to LDL in the liver |
| aldosterone | hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that increases sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney |
| angiotensin II | chemical released in response to falling blood pressure that causes vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone |
| angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) | enzyme responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II |
| antidiuretic hormone (ADH) | hormone produced by the hypothalamus that stimulates the kidneys to conserve water |
| baroreceptors | nerves located in the walls of the atria, aortic arch, vena cava, and carotid sinus that sense changes in blood pressure |
| bradycardia | a condition of slow heartbeat |
| calcium channel blocker (CCB) | a drug that blocks the flow of calcium ions into myocardial cells |
| cardiac output | amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 minute |
| diastolic pressure | blood pressure during the relaxation phase of heart activity |
| diuretic | drug that increases urine flow |
| electrolytes | charged substances in the blood, such as sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and phosphate |
| false neurotransmitter | chemical that simulates a natural neurotransmitter but does not produce the same physiologic effect |
| hyperkalemia | high potassium levels in the blood |
| hypertension (HTN) | high blood pressure |
| hypokalemia | low potassium levels in the blood |
| lumen | the cavity or channel of a hollow tube such as a blood vessel |
| orthostatic hypotension | fall in blood pressure that occurs when someone changes position from recumbent to upright |
| peripheral resistance | the amount of friction encountered by blood as it travels through the vessels |
| reflex tachycardia | temporary speeding up of heart rate that occurs when blood pressure falls |
| renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system | series of enzymatic steps by which the body raises blood pressure |
| secondary hypertension | high blood pressure caused as a result of another disorder |
| stepped care | a systematic approach to treatment of hypertension |
| systolic pressure | blood pressure during the contraction phase of heart activity |
| vasomotor center | area of the medulla that controls baseline blood pressure |
| afterload | pressure that must be overcome for the ventricles to eject blood from the heart |
| contractility | the strength by which the myocardial fibers contract |
| heart failure (HF) | disease in which the heart muscle cannot contract with sufficient force to meet the body's metabolic needs |
| inotropic effect | change in the strength or contractility of the heart |
| natriuretic peptide (hBNP) | hormone that increases the urinary excretion of sodium and dilates blood vessels |
| peripheral edema | swelling in the limbs, particularly the feet and ankles, due to an accumulation of interstitial fluid |
| phosphodiesterase | enzyme in muscle cells that cleaves phosphodiester bonds; its inhibition increases myocardial contractility |
| preload | degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers just before they contract |
| atrioventricular (AV) node | mass of cardiac tissue that receives electrical impulses from the SA node and conveys them to the ventricles |
| atrioventricular bundle | specialized cardiac tissue that receives electrical impulses from the AV node and sends them to the bundle branches also known as the bundle of His |
| automaticity | ability of certain myocardial cells to spontaneously generate an action potential |
| bundle branches | electrical conduction pathway in the heart leading from the AV bundle and through the wall between the ventricles |
| calcium ion channel | pathway in a plasma membrane through which calcium ions enter and leave |
| cardioversion/defibrillation | conversion of fibrillation to a normal heart rhythm |
| depolarization | condition in which the plasma membrane charge is changed such that the inside is made less negative |
| dysrhythmia | abnormality in cardiac rhythm |
| ectopic foci/pacemakers | cardiac tissue outside the normal cardiac conduction pathway that generates action potentials |
| electrocardiogram (ECG) | device that records the electrical activity of the heart |
| fibrillation | type of dysrhythmia in which the chambers beat in a highly disorganized manner |
| polarized | condition in which the inside of a cell is more negatively charged than the outside of the cell |
| potassium ion channel | pathway in a plasma membrane through which potassium ions enter and leave |
| Purkinje fibers | electrical conduction pathway leading from the bundle branches to all portions of the ventricles |
| refractory period | time during which the myocardial cells rest and are not able to contract |
| sinoatrial (SA) node | pacemaker of the heart located in the wall of the right atrium |
| sinus rhythm | number of beats per minute normally generated by the SA node |
| sodium ion channel | pathway in a plasma membrane through which sodium ions enter and leave |
| supraventricular | lying above the ventricles or in the atria |
| activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) | blood test used to determine how long it takes clots to form to regulate heparin dosage |
| angina pectoris | acute pain in the chest on physical or emotional exertion due to inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium |
| anticoagulant | an agent that inhibits the formation of blood clots |
| clotting factors | substances contributing to the process of blood clotting |
| coagulation | the process of blood clotting |
| coagulation cascade | a complex series of steps by which blood flow stops |
| embolus | a blood clot carried in the bloodstream |
| fibrin | an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen by the action of thrombin in the blood-clotting process |
| fibrinogen | blood protein converted to fibrin by the action of thrombin in the blood-clotting process |
| fibrinolysis | removal of a blood clot |
| glycoprotein IIb/IIIa | enzyme responsible for platelet aggregation |
| hemostasis | the slowing or stopping of blood flow |
| hemostatics | drugs used to prevent and treat excessive bleeding from surgical sites |
| international normalized ratio (INR) | laboratory value used to monitor the degree of blood anticoagulation during warfarin therapy |
| low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) | heparin-like drugs that inhibit blood clotting |
| plasmin | enzyme formed from plasminogen that dissolves blood clots |
| plasminogen | protein that prevents fibrin clot formation |
| prothrombin | blood protein converted to thrombin in the blood-clotting process |
| prothrombin time (PT) | blood test used to determine the time needed for plasma to clot, used to regulate warfarin dosage |
| thrombin | enzyme formed in coagulating blood from prothrombin; it converts fibrinogen to fibrin, which forms the basis of a blood clot |
| thromboembolic disorders | diseases associated with the formation of blood clots |
| thrombolytics | drugs used to dissolve existing blood clots |
| thrombus | blood clot |
| tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) | natural enzyme and a drug that dissolves blood clots |
| angina pectoris | acute pain in the chest on physical or emotional exertion due to inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium |
| atherosclerosis | a buildup of fatty substances and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls |
| cerebrovascular accident/stroke | an acute condition of a blood clot or bleeding in a vessel in the brain |
| coronary arterial bypass graft (CABG) surgery | surgical procedure performed to restore blood flow to the myocardium by using a section of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery to go around the obstructed coronary artery |
| coronary arteries | vessels that bring oxygen and nutrients to the myocardium |
| hemorrhagic stroke | type of stroke caused by bleeding from a blood vessel in the brain |
| myocardial infarction (MI) | medical emergency in which a blood clot blocks a portion of a coronary artery |
| myocardial ischemia | condition in which there is a lack of blood supply to the myocardium due to a constriction or obstruction of a blood vessel |
| percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) | procedure by which a balloon-shaped catheter is used to compress fatty plaque against an arterial wall for the purpose of restoring normal blood flow |
| plaque | fatty material that builds up in the lining of blood vessels and may lead to hypertension, stroke, myocardial infarction, or angina |
| stable angina | type of angina that occurs in a predictable pattern, usually relieved by rest |
| thrombotic stroke | type of stroke caused by a blood clot blocking an artery in the brain |
| unstable angina | type of angina that occurs frequently with severe symptoms and which is not relieved by rest |
| vasospastic (Prinzmetal's) angina | type of angina in which decreased myocardial blood flow is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries |
| anaphylaxis | an acute allergic response to an antigen that results in severe hypotension and may cause death if untreated |
| antigen | a foreign organism or substance that induces the formation of antibodies |
| cardiogenic shock | type of shock caused when the heart is diseased such that it cannot maintain circulation to the tissues |
| colloids | type of IV fluid replacement solution consisting of large protein molecules that are unable to cross membranes |
| crystalloids | type of IV fluid replacement solution that resembles blood plasma and is capable of crossing membranes |
| hypovolemic shock | type of shock caused by loss of fluids such as occurs during hemorrhaging, extensive burns, or severe vomiting or diarrhea |
| inotropic drug | medication that changes the force of contraction of the heart |
| neurogenic shock | type of shock resulting from brain or spinal cord injury |
| septic shock | type of shock caused by severe infection in the bloodstream |
| shock | condition in which there is inadequate blood flow to meet the body's needs |
| acidosis | condition of having too much acid; plasma pH below 7.35 |
| aldosterone | hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that increases sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney |
| alkalosis | condition of having too much base; plasma pH above 7.45 |
| carbonic anhydrase | enzyme that forms carbonic acid by combining carbon dioxide and water |
| diuretic | drug that increases urine flow |
| electrolytes | charged substances in the blood, such as sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and phosphate |
| erythropoietin | hormone secreted by the kidney that stimulates red blood cell production |
| filtrate | fluid in the nephron that is filtered at Bowman's capsule |
| hyperkalemia | high potassium levels in the blood |
| hypernatremia | high sodium level in the blood |
| hypokalemia | low potassium levels in the blood |
| hyponatremia | low levels of sodium in the blood |
| nephron | functional unit of the kidney |
| pH | a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution |
| reabsorption | movement of substances from the kidney tubule back into the blood |
| renal failure | decrease in the kidneys' ability to maintain electrolyte and fluid balance and excrete waste products |
| secretion | movement of substances from the blood into the kidney tublule after filtration has occurred |
| active immunity | stimulating the body to produce antibodies through the administration of a vaccine |
| alternate-day therapy | taking a drug every other day in order to minimize adverse effects |
| anaphylaxis | an acute allergic response to an antigen that results in severe hypotension and may cause death if untreated |
| antibody | protein produced by the body in response to an antigen; used interchangeably with the term immunoglobulin |
| Antigen | a foreign organism or substance that induces the formation of antibodies |
| B cell | type of lymphocyte that is essential for the humoral immune response |
| biologic response modifiers | natural substances that are able to enhance or stimulate the immune system |
| boosters | an additional dose of a vaccine given months for years after the initial dose to increase the effectiveness of the vaccine |
| Cushing's syndrome | condition caused by excessive corticosteroid secretion by the adrenal glands or by overdosage with corticosteroid medication |
| cyclooxygenase (COX) | key enzyme in the prostaglandin metabolic pathway that is blocked by aspirin and other NSAIDs |
| cytokines | chemicals produced by white blood cells, such as interleukins, leukotrienes, interferon, and tumor necrosis factor, that guide the immune response |
| cytotoxic T cells | type of lymphocyte that directly attacks and destroys antigens |
| helper T cells | type of lymphocyte that coordinates both the humoral and cell-mediated immune responses and that is the target of the human immunodeficiency virus |
| histamine | chemical released by mast cells in response to an antigen; causes dilation of blood vessels, smooth muscle constriction, tissue swelling, and itching |
| humoral immunity | a specific body defense mechanism involving the production and release of antibodies |
| immunoglobulin (Ig) | protein produced by the body in response to an antigen; used interchangeably with the term antibody |
| immunosuppressant | any drug, chemical, or physical agent that lowers the natural immune defense mechanisms of the body |
| inflammation | nonspecific body defense that occurs in response to an injury or antigen |
| lymphocyte | type of white blood cell formed in lymphoid tissue |
| mast cells | connective tissue cell located in tissue spaces that releases histamine following injury |
| passive immunity | administration of antibodies; provides short-term immunity |
| plasma cells | type of cell derived from B cells that produces antibodies |
| salicylism | poisoning due to aspirin and aspirin-like drugs |
| T cells | type of lymphocyte that is essential for the cell-mediated immune response |
| Titer | measurement of the amount of a substance in the blood |
| Toxoid | toxin that has been chemically modified to remove its harmful nature but is still able to cause an immune response in the body |
| transplant rejection | when the immune system recognizes a transplanted tissue as being foreign and attacks it |
| vaccination/immunization | receiving a vaccine or toxoid to prevent disease |
| vaccine | preparation of microorganism particles that is injected into a patient to stimulate the immune system with the intention of preventing disease |
| acquired resistance | when a microbe is no longer affected by a drug following treatment with anti-infectives |
| antagonism | type of drug interaction in which one drug inhibits the effectiveness of another |
| anti-infective | general term for any medication effective against pathogens |
| antibiotic | substance produced by a microorganism that inhibits or kills other microorganisms |
| bacteriocidal | substance that has ability to kill bacteria |
| bacteriostatic | substance that can inhibit the growth of bacteria |
| beta-lactam ring | chemical structure found in most penicillins and some cephalosporins |
| beta-lactamase/penicillinase | enzyme present in certain bacteria that is able to inactivate many penicillins and some cephalosporins |
| broad-spectrum antibiotic | anti-infective that is effective against many different gram-positive and gram-negative organisms |
| chemoprophylaxis | use of a drug to prevent an infection |
| culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing | laboratory test used to identify bacteria and to determine which antibiotic is most effective |
| host flora | normal microorganisms found in or on a patient |
| mutations | permanent, inheritable changes to DNA |
| narrow-spectrum antibiotic | anti-infective that is effective agains only one or a small number of organisms |
| nephrotoxicity | an adverse effect on the kidneys |
| nosocomial infections | infections acquired in a health care setting such as a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home |
| ototoxicity | an adverse effect on hearing |
| pathogen | organism that is capable of causing disease |
| pathogenicity | ability of an organism to cause disease in humans |
| photosensitivity | condition that occurs when the skin is very sensitive to sunlight |
| plasmid | small piece of circular DNA found in some bacteria that is able to transfer resistance from one bacterium to another |
| red-man syndrome | rash on the upper body caused by certain anti-infectives |
| superinfections | condition caused when a microorganism grows rapidly as a result of having less competition in its environment |
| toxin | chemical produced by a microorganism that is able to cause injury to its host |
| tubercles | cavity-like lesions in the lung characteristic of infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| virulence | the severity of disease that an organism in able to cause |
| antiretroviral | type of drug effective against retroviruses |
| capsid | protein coat that surrounds a virus |
| dermatophytic | superficial fungal infection |
| dysentery | severe diarrhea that may include bleeding |
| fungi | kingdom of organisms that includes mushrooms, yeasts, and molds |
| helminth | type of flat, round, or segmented worm |
| highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) | type of drug therapy for HIV infection that includes high doses of multiple medications that are given together |
| host | an organism that is being infected by a microbe |
| influenza | common viral infection of the respiratory system; often called flu |
| intracellular parasite | an infectious microbe that lives inside host cells |
| malaria | tropical disease characterized by severe fever and chills; caused by the protozoan Plasmodium |
| mycoses | diseases caused by fungi |
| protozoan | single-celled microorganism |
| reverse transcriptase | viral enzyme that converts RNA to DNA |
| superficial mycoses | fungal diseases of the hair, skin, nails, and mucous membranes |
| systemic mycoses | fungal diseases affecting internal organs |
| virus | nonliving particle containing RNA or DNA that is able to cause disease |
| yeast | type of fungus that is unicellular and divides by budding |
| adenoma | benign tumor of glandular tissue |
| adjuvant chemotherapy | technique in which antineoplastics are administered after surgery or radiation to effect a cure |
| alkylation | process by which certain chemicals attach to DNA and change its structure and function |
| alopecia | hair loss |
| anemia | shortage of functional red blood cells |
| benign | neither life-threatening nor fatal |
| biologic response modifiers | natural substances that are able to enhance or stimulate the immune system |
| cancer | malignant disease characterized by rapidly growing, invasive cells that spread to other regions of the body and eventually kill the host |
| carcinogen | any physical, chemical, or biological factor that causes or promotes cancer |
| chemotherapy | drug treatment of cancer |
| folic acid | B vitamin that is a coenzyme in protein and nucleic acid metabolism; also known as folate |
| glioma | malignant tumor of the brain |
| leukemia | cancer of the blood characterized by overproduction of white blood cells |
| lipoma | benign tumor of fat tissue |
| Liposomes | small sacs of lipids designed to carry drugs inside them |
| Lymphoma | cancer of lymphatic tissue |
| Malignant | life threatening or fatal |
| Metastasis | travel of cancer cells from their original site to a distant tissue |
| Neoplasm | same as tumor; an abnormal swelling or mass |
| nitrogen mustards | class of chemicals that are alkylating agents |
| palliation | form of chemotherapy intended to alleviate symptoms rather than cure the disease |
| purine | building block of DNA and RNA, either adenine or guanine |
| pyrimidine | building block of DNA and RNA, either thymine or cytosine in DNA, and cytosine and uracil in RNA |
| taxanes | type of drug that blocks cell growth by stopping mitosis |
| topoisomerase | enzyme that assists in the repair of DNA damage |
| tumor | abnormal swelling or mass |
| tumor suppressor genes | genes that inhibit the transformation of normal cells into cancer cells |
| vinca alkaloids | chemicals obtained from the periwinkle plant |
| aerosol | suspension of small liquid droplets of drug, usually to cause bronchodilation |
| allergic rhinitis | syndrome of sneezing, itchy throat, watery eyes, and nasal congestion resulting from exposure to antigens; also known as hay fever |
| alveoli | dilated sacs at the end of the bronchial tree where gas exchange occurs |
| antitussive | drug used to suppress cough |
| asthma | chronic inflammatory disease of the airways |
| bronchi | primary passageway of the bronchial tree that contains smooth muscle |
| bronchioles | very small bronchi |
| bronchoconstriction | decrease in diameter of the airway due to contraction of bronchial smooth muscle |
| bronchodilation | increase in diameter of the airway due to relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle |
| bronchospasm | rapid constriction of the airways |
| chronic bronchitis | chronic disease of the lungs characterized by excess mucus production and inflammation |
| dry powder inhaler (DPI) | device used to convert a solid drug to a fine powder for the purpose of inhalation |
| dry powder inhaler(DPI) | device used to convert a solid drug to a fine powder for the purpose of inhalation |
| dyspnea | shortness of breath |
| emphysema | terminal lung disease characterized by dilation of the alveoli |
| expectorant | drug used to increase bronchial secretions |
| H1-receptor blocker | drug that blocks the effects of histamine in smooth muscle in the bronchial tree |
| metered-dose inhaler (MDIs) | device used to deliver a precise amount of drug to the respiratory system |
| mucolytic | drug used to loosen thick mucus |
| nebulizer | device used to convert liquid drugs into a fine mist for the purpose of inhalation |
| perfusion | blood flow through a tissue or organ |
| rebound congestion | a condition of hypersecretion of mucus following use of intranasal sympathomimetics |
| respiration | exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide |
| status asthmaticus | acute form of asthma requiring immediate medical attention |
| ventilation | process by which air is moved into and out of the lungs |
| alimentary canal | the hollow tube in the digestive system that starts in the mouth and includes the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine |
| anorexia | loss of appetite |
| anorexiant | drug used to suppress appetite |
| antacid | drug that neutralizes stomach acid |
| antiemetic | drug that prevents vomiting |
| antiflatulent | drug that reduces gas formation in the GI tract |
| cathartic | drug that causes complete evacuation of the bowel |
| constipation | infrequent passage of abnormally hard and dry stools |
| Crohn's disease | chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the ileum and sometimes the colon |
| Defecation | evacuation of the colon; bowel movement |
| Diarrhea | abnormal frequency and liquidity of bowel movements |
| dietary fiber | substance neither digested nor absorbed that contributes to the fecal mass |
| digestion | process by which the body breaks down ingested food into small molecules that can be absorbed |
| emesis | vomiting |
| emetic | drug used to induce vomiting |
| gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) | the regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus |
| H+, K+-ATPase | enzyme responsible for pumping acid onto the mucosal surface of the stomach |
| H2-receptor blocker | drug that inhibits the effects of histamine at its receptors in the GI tract |
| Helicobacter pylori | bacterium associated with a large percentage of peptic ulcer disease |
| pancreatic insufficiency | condition in which the pancreas is not secreting sufficient amounts of digestive enzymes, resulting in malabsorption syndromes |
| peptic ulcer | erosion of the mucosa in the alimentary canal, most commonly in the stomach duodenum |
| peristalsis | involuntary wave-like contraction that occurs in the alimentary canal |
| proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) | drug that inhibits the enzyme H+, K+-ATPase |
| ulcerative colitis | inflammatory bowel disease of the colon |
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | disorder of having excess acid secretion in the stomach |
| enteral nutrition | treatment of undernutrition by the oral route or through a feeding tube |
| hemoglobin | substance in a red blood cell that contains iron and transports oxygen and CO2 |
| hypervitaminosis | excess intake of vitamins |
| intrinsic factor | chemical secreted by the stomach that is required for absorption of vitamin B12 |
| major mineral | inorganic compound needed by the body in amounts of 100 mg or more daily |
| major mineral (macromineral) | inorganic compound needed by the body in amounts of 100 mg or more daily |
| pernicious (megaloblastic) anemia | type of anemia usually caused by lack of secretion of intrinsic factor |
| provitamin | an inactive chemical that is converted to a vitamin in the body |
| recommended dietary allowance (RDA) | amount of vitamin or mineral needed daily to avoid a deficiency in a healthy adult |
| total parenteral nutrition (TPN) | treatment of undernutrition through the parenteral infusion of dextrose, amino acids, emulsified fats, vitamins, and minerals |
| trace mineral | inorganic compound needed by the body in amounts of 20 mg or less daily |
| undernutrition | taking in or absorbing fewer nutrients than required for normal body growth and maintenance |
| vitamins | organic compounds required by the body in small amounts |
| Addison's disease | hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex |
| adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) | hormone secreted by the pituitary that stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex |
| atrophy | shrinkage or wasting away of a tissue |
| cretinism | dwarfism and mental retardation caused by lack of thyroid hormone during infancy |
| Cushing's syndrome | condition caused by excessive corticosteroid secretion by the adrenal glands or by overdosage with corticosteroid medication |
| diabetes insipidus | excessive urination due to lack of secretion of antidiuretic hormone |
| diabetes mellitus, type 1 | disease characterized by lack of secretion of insulin by the pancreas that usually begins in the early teens |
| diabetes mellitus, type 2 | disease characterized by insufficient secretion of insulin by the pancreas or by lack of sensitivity of insulin receptors that usually begins in middle age |
| dwarfism | below normal height caused by a deficiency in thyroid hormone or growth hormone |
| follicular cells | cells in the thyroid gland that secrete thyroid hormone |
| glucocorticoid | type of hormone secreted by the outer portion of the adrenal gland that includes cortisol |
| Graves' disease | syndrome caused by hypersection of thyroid hormone |
| Hormones | chemicals secreted by endocrine glands that act as chemical messengers to affect homeostasis |
| Hyperglycemia | abnormally high level of glucose in the blood |
| Hypoglycemia | abnormally low level of glucose in the blood |
| Hypothalamus | region of the brain that affects emotions and drives and that secretes releasing factors that affect the pituitary gland |
| Incretin | a group of drugs that boost the action of gastrointestinal hormones, which stimulate the pancreas to release insulin after a meal before blood glucose levels can become too elevated |
| incretin enhancers | a group of drugs that boost the action of gastrointestinal hormones, which stimulate the pancreas to release insulin after a meal before blood glucose levels can become too elevated |
| islets of Langerhans | clusters of cells in the pancreas responsible for the secretion of insulin and glucagon; also called the pancreatic islets |
| ketoacids | waste products of fat metabolism that lower the pH of the blood |
| mineralocorticoid | hormone involved in the regulation of fluid and electrolytes by its effects in the kidney |
| myxedema | condition caused by insufficient secretion of thyroid hormone |
| parafollicular cells | cells in the thyroid gland that secrete calcitonin |
| pituitary gland | endocrine gland in the brain responsible for controlling many other endocrine glands |
| releasing factors | hormones secreted by the hypothalamus that affect secretions in the pituitary gland |
| somatotropin | another name for growth hormone |
| vasopressin | another name for antidiuretic hormone |
| amenorrhea | lack of normal menstrual periods |
| androgens | steroid sex hormones that promote the appearance of masculine characteristics |
| antepartum | prior to the onset of labor |
| benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) | nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland |
| breakthrough bleeding | bleeding at abnormal times during the menstrual cycle |
| corpus cavernosum | tissue in the penis that fills with blood during an erection |
| dysfunctional uterine bleeding | hemorrhage that occurs at abnormal times or in abnormal quantity during the menstrual cycle |
| endometrium | inner lining of the uterus |
| estrogen | class of steroid sex hormones produced by the ovary |
| follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) | hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that regulates sperm or egg production |
| hypogonadism | below normal secretion of the steroid sex hormones |
| hysterectomy | surgical removal of the uterus |
| impotence | inability to obtain or sustain an erection; also called erectile dysfunction |
| libido | interest in sexual activity |
| lutinizing hormone (LH) | hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that triggers ovulation in the female and stimulates sperm production in the male |
| menopause | time when females stop secreting estrogen and menstrual cycles cease |
| menorrhea | prolonged or excessive menstruation |
| oligomenorrhea | infrequent menstruation |
| ovulation | release of an egg by the ovary |
| oxytocin | hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection |
| postpartum | occurring after childbirth |
| progesterone | hormone responsible for building up the uterine lining in the second half of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy |
| prolactin | hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that stimulates milk production in the mammary glands |
| tocolytic | drug used to inhibit uterine contractions |
| virulization | appearance of masculine secondary sex characteristics |
| acute gouty arthritis | condition where uric acid crystals quickly accumulate in the joints of the big toes, heels, ankles, wrists, fingers, knees, or elbows, resulting in red, swollen, or inflamed tissue |
| autoantibodies | proteins called rheumatoid factors released by B lymphocytes; these tear down the body's own tissue |
| bisphosphonates | family of drugs that block bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity |
| bone deposition | the opposite of bone resorption; the process of depositing mineral components into bone |
| bone resorption | process of bone demineralization or the breaking down of bone into mineral components |
| calcifediol | intermediate form of vitamin D |
| calcitonin | treatment typically administered to women who cannot take estrogen or bisphosphonate therapy or for clients with Paget's disease |
| calcitriol | substance that is transformed in the kidneys during the second step of the conversion of vitamin D to its active form |
| cholecalciferol | inactive form of vitamin D |
| disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) | agents that reduce destruction of the joints and progression of rheumatoid arthritis |
| gout | metabolic disorder characterized by the accumulation of uric acid in the bloodstream or joint cavities |
| osteoarthritis (OA) | disorder characterized by degeneration of joints such as the fingers, spine, hips, and knees |
| osteomalacia | rickets in children; disease characterized by softening of the bones without alteration of basic bone structure |
| osteoporosis | condition in which bones become brittle and susceptible to fracture |
| Paget's disease | disorder characterized by weak, enlarged, and abnormal bones |
| rheumatoid arthritis (RA) | systemic autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation of multiple joints |
| selective estrogen-receptor modulators (SERMS) | drugs that directly produce an action similar to estrogen in body tissues; used for the treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women |
| closed comedones | commonly called whiteheads, this type of acne develops just beneath the surface of the skin |
| dermatitis | inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by itching and scaling |
| eczema | also called atopic dermatitis, a skin disorder with unexplained symptoms of inflammation, itching, and scaling |
| emollients | agents used to soothe and soften the skin |
| erythema | redness associated with skin irritation |
| keratinization | development of the stratum corneum or horny layer of epithelial tissue |
| keratolytic agents | drugs used to promote shedding of old skin |
| open comedones | type of acne in which sebum has plugged the oil gland; commonly called blackheads |
| papules | inflammatory bumps without pus that swell, thicken, and become painful |
| pediculicides | medications that kill lice |
| pruritus | itching associated with dry, scaly skin |
| psoralen | drug used along with phototherapy for the treatment of psoriasis and other severe skin disorders |
| pustules | inflammatory bumps with pus |
| retinoids | vitamin A-like compounds used in the treatment of severe acne and psoriasis |
| retinol | chemical name for vitamin A |
| rosacea | skin disorder characterized by clusters of papules |
| scabicides | drugs that kill scabies and mites |
| scabies | skin disorder caused by the female mite burrowing into the skin and laying eggs |
| seborrhea | condition characterized by overactivity of oil glands |
| closed-angle glaucoma | called acute glaucoma, this type of glaucoma is caused by the iris blocking trabecular meshwork, hindering outflow of aqueous fluid |
| cycloplegia | blurred vision |
| cycloplegic drug | drugs that relax or temporarily paralyze ciliary muscles |
| external otitis | commonly called swimmer's ear, this is inflammation of the outer ear |
| mastoiditis | inflammation of the mastoid sinus |
| miosis | constriction of the pupil |
| miotics | drugs that cause pupil constriction |
| mydriasis | dilation of the pupil |
| mydriatic drugs | drugs that cause pupil dilation |
| open-angle glaucoma | also called chronic simple glaucoma, this type of glaucoma is caused by congestion in trabecular meshwork, hindering outflow of aqueous fluid |
| otitis media | inflammation of the middle ear |
| tonometry | technique for measuring eye tension and pressure |
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