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OB-GYN Terms and more

adnexa appendages or accessory structures of an organ
the four bones of the pelvis that make up the lower part of the trunk of the body; serves to support the upper body and protect the pelvic organs bony pelvis
intrauterine position of a fetus in which the buttocks or feet present first breech
cesarean section a surgical procedure in which the abdomen and uterus are incised to deliver a baby
a small mass of yellow-colored tissue that develops on the ovary and that grows within the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation; responsible for secreting progesterone to maintain the high level of vascular supply to the uterine endometrium for the p corpus luteum
cephalopelvic disproportion an obstetric complication in which the pelvis/birth canal is too small for a vaginal delivery or the baby's head is too large to pass through the birth canal CPD
curettage removal of tissue with a blunt or sharp curette by scraping the surface; performed to remove abnormal tissue, to obtain tissue for examination and diagnostic purposes, or to remove tissue from infected areas
DUB dysfunctional uterine bleeding abnormal uterine bleeding that is not due to a tumor, pregnancy, or infection, and occurs when menstruation is not taking place
dystocia difficult labor due to various reasons, such as cephalopelvic disproportion, fetus size, or condition or position of fetus
the surgical incision of perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent tearing of the perineum and muscles during delivery episiotomy
exenteration refers to the total removal of; usually used in reference to the surgical procedure of total pelvic exenteration, which involves the removal of the vagina, uterus and cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder, and rectum for surgical treatment of cancer
finger-like structures that form on an edge, such as the fimbria of the fallopian tubes fimbria
abnormal communication between two normally separate internal structures, or an abnormal communication between an internal structure and the body surface fistula
gravida refers to the pregnant female; the first pregnancy is referred to as gravida I; additional pregnancies are numbered sequentially
loop electrosurgical excision surgical procedure that uses the electrosurgical unit coupled to a loop electrode on the cautery pencil; used to excise a cone of tissue to remove an area of neoplasia LEEP
ligament a band of fibrous tissue composed of collagen that connects bone to bone
incision of a closed cavity with the suturing of the open edges to the wall of the wound to form an open wound that will heal by second intention marsupialization
a benign fibroid tumor of the uterus myoma
occiput anterior the most common relationship between the presenting fetal part and the maternal body pelvis
parity (para) the classification used to indicate the number of live and stillborn births that a female has delivered at more than 20 weeks of gestation
perineum the area between the posterior portion of the vagina or scrotum and the opening to the anus
surgical transverse incision made in the lower abdomen; usually employed when performing a c-section Pfannenstiel
an opening that serves as the entrance to a passageway, such as the vestibule of the vagina vestibule
what is the fornix the annular recess created by the cervical-vaginal junction
describe the locations of the internal and external cervical os the internal os is the aperture of the junction between the corpus uteri and the cervix the external os is where the cervix opens into the vagina
list the 3 layers of the uterine wall endometrium myometrium visceral peritoneum
where are the Bartholin's glands located and what is their function located bilaterally at the posterior end of the vestibule they secrete a lubricating mucoid substance
list the structures contained within the broad ligament fallopian tube, round ligament, ovarian ligament, blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics
what are the other two names for fallopian tubes uterine tubes oviducts
describe the location of the ovaries either side of the uterus in the ovarian fossa of the lateral pelvis wall
name the two hormones from the anterior pituitary that stimulate the ovarian cycle luteinizing hormone (LH) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
name the two hormones that are produced by the ovary estrogen progesterone
what is the main muscle of the pelvic floor levator ani muscle
what are the 3 components of the levator ani muscle iliococcygeal pubococcygeal puborectalis
branches of which nerve and artery provide sensation and blood flow to the perineum and external genitalia clitoral, perineal, and inferior hemorrhoidal branches of the pudendal artery and nerve
what structure is rounded prominent longitudinal flaps labia majora
what structure is the area between the vaginal opening and anus perineum
what structure is the external female genitalia vulva
what structure is the cavity between the labia minora containing the urethral meatus vestibule
what structure secretes lubrication Bartholin's glands
what structure is a rounded prominence over symphysis pubis mons pubis
what structure is the erectile structure of the female anatomy clitoris
what structure is two flat cutaneous flaps containing sebaceous glands labia minora
what structure is the rectal orifice anus
what structure is a thin fold of membrane just inside the vaginal orifice hymen
T/F: the uterus is pear-shaped with a fundus, body, and cervix True
T/F: the ligaments connecting to the pelvic wall include the cardinal, ovarian, and broad False
T/F: the posterior vaginal wall is longer than the anterior vaginal wall True
T/F: the normal cervix lies anterior to the fundus of the uterus False
T/F: the junction between the cervix and vagina is called the cul de sac of Douglas False
T/F: the Graafian follicle releases the oocyte True
T/F: the corpus luteum is responsible for releasing estrogen to maintain endometrial lining False
T/F: the pituitary gland releases LH and FSH to stimulate the development of an oocyte or ovum True
T/F: blood flow is supplied to the uterus via branches of the internal iliac artery True
T/F: the isthmus of the fallopian tube is important in the prevention of endometriosis True
are Braxton-Hicks contractions an indication that delivery of the fetus is imminent No---False Labor
what is used for the prevention of perineal lacerations episiotomy
what is the term for when the fetus' head is too large for maternal birth canal CPD
what is the term for the mother and infant relationship bonding
what is the term for the largest diameter of head encircled by vulvular ring crowning
what is the term for the number of times giving birth para
what is the term for the descent of presenting part of fetus in relation to ischial spines station
what is the term for the opening of the cervix dilation
what is the term for fetal part overlying pelvic inlet presentation
what is the term for when the cervis softens and thins effacement
what is the term for the number of pregnancies gravida
what is stage one of a vaginal delivery begins with the onset of true labor and is considered complete when the cervix is fully dilated
what is stage two of vaginal delivery begins with complete dilation of the cervix and terminates with the birth of the infant
what is stage three of a vaginal delivery begins with the birth of the infant and ends when the placenta is delivered
what is stage four of a vaginal delivery begins after placenta is delivered and is completed when the mothers condition has stabilized
what surgical intervention is commonly done during a normal vaginal delivery and what type of suture is used episiotomy absorbable--chromic or vicryl
cord blood is collected routinely with every delivery--why to check cord gases (placenta also sent) collect stem cells determine infant blood type
what does fetal distress mean sustained low heart rate
what is the most common reason for performing a cesarean section cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
what is a cystocele prolapse of the bladder into the vaginal vault
what are two reasons a cystocele may occur congenital defect multipara (multiple deliveries)
what procedure is commonly performed with a colposcopy--what condition can be diagnosed biopsy, cervical cancer
list the possible sites for ectopic pregnancy fallopian tube, peritoneal cavity, ovary, cervix
what is meant by the term incompetent cervix the cervix is weakened and begins to dilate before the full-term of the pregnancy
what procedure is performed to treat an incompetent cervix during pregnancy cervical cerclage
define leiomyoma benign lesions of the uterus
what are the symptoms of endometriosis dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) dyspareunia (difficult or painful sex) dyschezia (constipation)
is ultrasound useful in diagnosing a malignancy yes
what is the most common symptom of uterine cancer abnormal vaginal bleeding
what are two placental conditions that may necessitate a cesarean section placenta previa placental abruption
what is placenta previa when the placenta partially or totally covers the cervix
what is placental abruption when the placenta peels away, partially or totally, from the inner wall of the uterus
amenorrhea is the condition of absence of menstruation
what is a pedunculated lesion a small wound connected to the underlying tissue by a small stalk
in what position will the patient be placed to accomplish a D&C---in addition to the basic position, which position may be used to enhance the surgeon's view of the anatomy lithotomy, trendelenburg
explain the usefulness of the trendelenburg postion during pelvic surgery moves abdominal organs out of the way to enhance visualization
describe the complications that the patient may experience from an undiagnosed or improperly closed perineal laceration postpartum hemorrhage, sepsis, fistulas, coital pain
name two types of suction devices that may be used to clear a neonate's airway baby bulb syringe, DeLee suction
what are the advantages of a "classic" approach for a cesarean section more room for delivery (fetal size or position problems) to deliver extremely premature baby
name the three approaches that are available for tubal sterilization vaginal colpotomy abdominal minilaparotomy laparoscopy
what solution stains abnormal tissue white acetic acid
what medication is used for the prevention of adhesions 10% Dextran 70
what solution is used for the Schiller test where abnormal tissue isn't stained Lugol's solution
what medication causes uterine contractions methergine/Pitocin
what solution is a hemostasis agent Monsel's solution
what is used for cryotherapy to remove a lesion Nitrous oxide or CO2
what is used to manipulate the vaginal mucosa during the anterior colporrhaphy Allis-Adair
what are the advantages of the LAVH approach better visualization of internal structures
why is a Foley catheter placed prior to a cesarean section to prevent bladder distension and possible injury
list the structures that will be removed during a total pelvic exenteration vagina, uterus and cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder, rectum
what safety measures must be implemented when a laser is in use wearing laser safety goggles
list the drape components that are necessary to drape a patient in the lithotomy position (in order) buttocks drape,leggings, towels, lithotomy drape
what structure/s are removed during a TAH uterus and cervix
list three transverse incisions used for gynecological surgery Pfannenstiel, Maylard, Cherney
what procedure is done for microsurgical reanastomosis with dextran tuboplasty
what procedure is done for the excision of fibroids to preserve uterus for conception myomectomy
what procedure is done to repair a rectocele posterior colporrhaphy
what procedure is done to treat a Bartholin's cyst marsupialization
what procedure is done to treat incomplete spontaneous abortion or menorrhagia D&C(dilation and curettage)
what procedure is performed for someone who desires sterilization colpotomy tubal ligation
what procedure is done for endometrial visualization hysteroscopy
what procedure is done for external genitalia with in situ neoplasia vulvectomy
what procedure is done for incompetent cervical os Shirodkar cerclage
what procedure is done for endocervical suspicious lesions or dysplasia cold conization
what procedure is done to repair a cystocele anterior colporrhaphy
what procedure is done for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy emergency salpingotomy
what is the false pelvis region between the flared portions of the ilium bones
what is the true pelvis region below the pelvic brim
what makes up the bony pelvis or pelvic girdle iliac crest pubic bone ischium sacrum
another name for external female genitalia is vulva
what is the mons pubis adipose tissue on pubic bone
what is another name for Bartholin's glands vestibular glands
where and what is the fourchette inferior portion or boundary of vagina transverse fold of mucous membrane
what pH is the normal flora of the vagina acidic
blood supply for the vagina comes from branches of the internal iliac arteries
blood supply for uterus uterine arteries derived from internal iliac arteries
nerves for uterus ovarian and hypogastric plexuses
what are the four ligaments of the uterus cardinal, uterosacral, broad, round
where do the cardinal (transverse cervical) ligaments connect cervix and lateral parts of fornix to lateral walls of pelvis
where do the uterosacral ligaments connect superiorly and slightly posteriorly from the sides of the cervix to the middle of the sacrum separated by straight tag
where to the round ligaments connect lateral aspect of the uterus, passing anteriorly through the broad ligament, inserting into the labia majora separated with curved tag
where do the broad ligaments connect sides of the uterus to the lateral walls and floor of the pelvis
where do the fallopian tubes open uterine os (cornu) and abdominal os (fimbria)
what is the function of the ovaries production and expulsion of oocytes/ova/eggs release of the hormones estrogen and progesterone
what ligament connects the ovary and uterus suspensory (ovarian) ligament
what are oxytocics used for and what are examples hemostasis, uterine contractions pitocin and cinatocin
what is Lugol's solution used for identifying abnormal tissue
when Lugol's solution is used what is it called and what do the results mean Schiller's test tissue stained brown is normal tissue with no stain is abnormal
acetic acid is used for and the results mean remove mucous on the cervix during colposcopy stains lesions white
what are Hyskon, Dextrose, and Dextran used for hysteroscopic exams visualizations, prevents adhesions in abdomen
what are 3 other drugs used for hemostasis in OB/GYN hemabate, ergotrate, methergine
what does hemabate do makes uterus contract and cervix dilate used for non-viable pregnancies
what does ergotrate and methergine do control hemorrhage by uterine muscle contraction
what is Monsel's solution ferrous sulfate put on cervix to help with hemostasis
what are methylene blue and indigo carmine used for to check patency of fallopian tubes if tubes are patent, blue comes out of fimbria
how do you prevent adhesion formation (which can affect getting pregnant) remove powder from gloves copious intraop irrigation gentle tissue handling
meconium is first intestinal discharges of a newborn DeLee suction apparatus used
what is a cervical/Shirodkar's/McDonald's cerclage close an incompetent cervix to prevent sponatneous abortion 5 Mersilene pursestring stitch
what is the Papanicolaou (Pap) test swab to rule out cervical dysplasia (abnormal changes in tissue covering cervix)
what is a colposcopy visualization of cervix and vagina
what is hysteroscopy visualization of internal uterus to check for adhesions, polyps, tumors, fibroids need irrigation to prevent adhesions
what is a cervical biopsy evaluating abnormal cervical tissue after positive pap smear use Lugol's solution cold steel = #11 hot steel = connected to ESU
what does EUA stand for exam under anesthesia
what is endometrial ablation destruction of endometrial tissue because of abnormal/excessive bleeding
what is TAH total abdominal hysterectomy--removal of uterus and cervix
what is myomectomy excision of uterine fibroids complication--adhesion formation
what is uterine radiation seeding radiation therapy for endometrial cancer
what is oophorectomy removal of ovaries
what is salpingectomy removal of fallopian tubes
what is tuboplasty reconstruction of fallopian tube to restore patency anastomosis of tubes open procedure
what is a labioplasty reduce size of labia sexual enhancement, trauma
what is vulvectomy removal of external female genitalia (clitoris, mons pubis, labia majora/minora) to treat cancer
what is ablation of condyloma obliteration of vaginal warts not a sterile procedure
what is marsupialization of Bartholin's glands (cystectomy) conversion of a closed cavity to create an open obstructed duct I&D, culture
what is wertheim procedure radical hysterectomy pelvic lymph nodes, wide removal of uterus, tubes, ovaries, ligaments, upper vagina removed
Braxton-Hicks "false" labor; normal contractions not associated with progressive cervical dilation
"bloody show" a term used to describe a small amount of blood-tinged mucus flowing from the vagina; may herald the onset of labor
extension rotation rotation of the fetal head back to its original position as the head passes over the perineum
flexion a change in the relative position of the cervical spine bring the fetal head toward the chest
number one reason for cesarean section failure to progress
what does menorrhagia mean excessive bleeding during menses
what does metrorrhagia mean active uterine bleeding at times other than menses
Created by: BellaRu28
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