A&P Chap 5,6,8 Word Scramble
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Question | Answer |
What are the functins of the integumentary system? | Protection, Body temp regulation, sensation, Metabolic functions, excretion, absorption |
How is body temp regulation accomplished by the skin? | Dialation (cooling), and constriction (warming) of dermal vessels Sweating, hair standing up |
What sense touch and pain in the skin? | Exoreceptors |
What is a metabolic function of the skin? | Synthesis of Vitamin D |
What are the three major regions of the skin? | Epidermis, Dermis, and Hypodermis |
What is the most superficial major region of the skin? | Epidermis |
What is the middle major region of the skin? | Dermis |
What is the deepest major region of the skin? | Hypodermis |
What layer of the skin is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? | Epidermis |
What type of cells will you find in the epidermis? | Keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells, langerhans cells |
Epidermis-outer portion of the skin functions in ____________? | Protection |
What do Keratinocytes produce? | Keratin |
What do Melanocytes produce? | Melanin |
Macrophages that activate the immune system are called what? | Langerhans' cells |
What are Merkel cells? | touch receptors |
What are the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial? | stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum |
The ______________ is the deepest epidermal layer | stratum basale |
The stratum basale consists of a _____________ row of the youngest keratinocytes | single |
In stratum basale cells undergo ___________________ division | rapid |
What layer of the epidermis has cells that contain a weblike system of intermidiate filaments attached to desmosomes? | stratum spinosum |
The stratum Spinosum is the layer where ________________ are filled with keratin | keratinocytes |
Thin band superficial to the stratum granulosum | stratum lucidum |
Would you find stratum lucidum in thick or thin skin? | thick |
Stratum lucidum consists of a few rows of flat, dead ______________ | keratinocytes |
What layer of the epidermis is the outermost layer of keratinized cells? | stratum corneum |
The stratum corneum accouts for how much of the epidermis | 3/4 |
What are functions of the stratum corneum? | Waterproofing, protects from abrasion and penetration |
What layer of the skin contains strong, flexible connective tissue, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells? | Dermis |
What are the layers of the dermis? | papillary and reticular |
What layer of the dermis is aerolar tisssue with collagen and elastic fibera | Papillary layer |
In the papillary layer of the dermis the superior surface contains projections called papillae which contain _______________ and sensory receptors | capillary loops |
What do the dermal pappilae cause? | epidermal ridges (friction ridges) |
Sweat pores around the epidermal ridges make what | fingerprints |
The reticular layer of the dermis is __% the thickness of the skin? | 80% |
collagen fibers add ____________ | strength |
elastin fibers provide __________ | flexibility |
Why are cleavage lines important for surgons? | The skin gapes less and heals more readily when cut along these lines |
What is the subcutaneous layer deep to the skin? | Hypodermis |
What types of tissue is the hypodermis composed of? | adipose and areolar connective tissue |
What 3 pigments contribute to skin color? | melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin |
what pigment is yellow to reddish-brown to black pigment | melanin |
what pigment is yellow to orange | carotene |
what pigment is red | hemoglobin |
Blue skin could indicate heart failure or severe respiratory disorders what is this called | cyanosis |
pale skin could indicate low blood pressure or anemia what is this called | pallor |
yellow skin could indicate liver problems what is this called | jaundice |
bronze skin is a sign of Addisons diease, a hormonal imbalace what is this called? | bronzing |
A _____________ on the skin shows internal bleeding | bruise |
Different types of __________ glands prevent overheating of the body, secrete wax, and milk | sweat |
Where can you find eccrine sweat glands, and what do they secrete | you can find eccrine glands all over, and they secrete water |
______________sweat glands are found in the axillary and genital areas, and secrete proteins that cause body odor | apocrine |
____________glands are modified glands in the ear canal and secrete wax | Ceruminous |
Mammary glands are speciailized glands that secrete ____________ | milk |
What are simple alveolar glands found all over the body, soften skin when simulated by hormones? | sebacous glands |
Sebaceous glands secerete an oily secretion called ___________ | sebum |
What is hair? | strands of dead keratinized clles produced by hair follicles |
Hair contains _____________ keratin | hard |
Hair is made up of the ______________ projecting from the skin, and the root embedded in the skin | shaft |
What are functions of the hair? | help maintain warmth, sensory, guard the scalp against physical trauma, heat loss, and sunlight |
Hair thinning in both sexes is called? | alopecia |
male pattern baldness is caused by folliular response to ___________ | DHT |
true, or frank, baldness is ____________ determined and sex influenced condition | genetically |
______________ can absorb UV rays and protect skin | melanin |
Sun damage causes clumping of _____________ fibers and can cause leathery skin | elastic |
What are the 3 major types of skin cancer | basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma |
What is the most common type of skin cancer, but the least malignant | basal cell carcinoma |
is basal cell carcinoma slow or fast growing | slow |
Basal cell carcinoma can be surgically removed in ___% of the cases | 99 |
What is the 2nd most common skin cancer? | squamous cell carcinoma |
Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum _____________ | spinosum |
Does squamous cell carcinoma grow slowly or rapidly if not removed? | rapidly |
Is prognosis good or bad if squamous cell carcinoma is treated by a radiation therapy or removed surgically | good |
What is the most dangerous type of skin cancer? | melanoma |
what type of skin cancer is highly metastic and resistant to chemotherapy | melanoma |
how is melanoma treated? | by wide surgical excision accompanied by immunotherapy |
The cance of survivial is poor if the melanoma lesion is over ____mm thick | 4 |
What is the ABCD rule for characteristicis of melanomass? | A: Asymmetry the two sides pigmented area do not match B: Border is irregular and exhibits indentations C: Color (pigmented area) is black, brown, tan, and sometimes red or blue D:Diameter is larger than 6mm(size of a pencil eraser) |
In a first degree burn the ___________ is damaged | epidermis |
What are the symptoms of a 1st degree burn | localized redness, swelling, and pain |
In second degree burns what parts of the skin are damaged | epidermis and upper regions of the dermis |
Symptoms of second degree burns mimic first degree burns, but _________ also appear | blisters |
In ____________ degree burns the entire thickness of the skin is damaged | third |
What are the symptoms of 3rd degree burns | burned area appears gray-white, cherry red, or black; there is no inital edema or pain (since nerve endings are destroyed) |
Bones of the skull, vertebral column and rib cage are part of the ____________ skeleton | axial |
What is the function of the axial skeleton | protection |
Bones of the upper and lower limbs, shoulder, and hip are part of the ____________ skeleton | appendicular |
What is the function of the appendicular skeleton? | movement |
How would you describe a long bone? | longer than wide |
How would you describe a short bone? | roughly cube shaped |
How would you describe a flat bone? | thin flattened and usually curved |
How would you descirbe an irregular bone? | A complicated shape that isn't flat, short, or long |
What are the functions of bone? | support, movement, protection, mineral storage, blood cell formation |
What are the ends of a long bone called? | epiphyses |
what is the shaft of a long bone called | diaphysis |
In a long bone ____________ bone surrounds the fat filled medullary cavity | compact |
In the epiphyses the exterior is ________ bone and the interior is ________ bone, and the joint surface is covered with____________ | exterior is compact bone, interior is spongy bone, and the joint surface is covered with a thin layer of articular (hyaline) cartilage |
____________ is a double layered protective membrane | periosteum |
delicate membrane covering internal surfaces of bone | endosteum |
In the microscopic structure of bone the ______________ is the structural unit of compact bone | Haversian system or osteon |
What is the haversian or central canal? | central channel containing blood vessels and nerves |
The ____________ connect blood supply of the periosteum to the central canal | volkmanns canals |
____________ are mature bone cells | osteocytes |
___________ are small cavities in bone that contain osteocytes | lacunae |
______________ are hairlike canals that connect lacune to each other and the central canal | canaliculi |
____________ are bone building cells | osteoblasts |
____________ are mature bone cells | osteocytes |
___________ cut and dissolve (break down) bone | osteoclasts |
___________ are unmineralized bone matrix composed of proteoglycans, glycoprteins, and collagen | osteoid |
Collagen gives ________ to bones | flexibility |
Mineral salts, maainly calcuim phosphate makes up 65% of bone by mass, what is it responsibile for in bones? | hardness |
osteogenesis and ossification is the process of ______________ | bone formation |
___________ leads to the formation of the bony skeleton in embryos, bone growth until early adulthood, bone thickness, remodeling, and repair | osteogenesis and ossification |
formation of the bony skeleton begins at _______ weeks of embroy development | 8 |
___________ bone develops from a fibrous membrane | intramembranous |
____________ bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage | endochondral |
What are the stages of intramembranous ossification | an ossification center appears, bone matrix is secreted, woven bone and peristeum form, bone collar forms, and red marrow appears |
Intramembranous ossification bones form from the ___________ out, and make __________ bones | bones form from the inside out, and make flat bones |
begins in the second month of development, uses hyaline cartilage "bones" as models for bone construction, requires breakdown of hyaline cartilage prior to ossification | endochondral ossification |
_____________ ossification makes long bones, and is formed from the ________ in | endochondral and makes bones from the outside in |
What are the stages of endochondral ossification? | formation of bone collar, cavitation (dying) of the hyaline cartilage, blood supply comes inside the bone, and spongy bone formation, medullary cavity formed secondary ossification centers, ossification of the epiphyses |
What are the functional zones in long bone growth? | growth zone, hypertropic, calcification zone, osteogenic zone |
In the growth zone of long bones cartilage cells ________, pushing the epiphysis up | divide |
In the hypertrophic zone of long bone the older cells __________ | enlarge |
In the calcification zone of long bone the matrix becomes ___________ | calcified |
in the osteogenic zone of long bone there is new bone ___________ | formation |
for long bones to grow in length ____________ continually grows and is replaced by bone | cartilage |
__________ is where bone is resorbed and added by appositional growth | remodeling |
bones ____________ with appposition growth | widen |
in interstititial growth bones __________ | lengthen |
during infancy and childhood bone growth is stimulated by _______________ | growth hormone |
during puberty testosterone and estroges cause ______________, ___________, and ____________ | growth spurts masculinization and feminization epiphyseal plate closure |
the ___________ and _______________- deposit and resorb bone | osteoblasts (build) and osteoclasts (cut) |
Bone deposition occurs where bone is injured or added ____________ is needed | strength |
Osteoclasts form ____________ bays | resorption |
Osteoclasts secrete lysosonal enzymes that digest _________________, and acids that convert _______________ | digest organic matrix, and convert calcium salts |
Dissolved matrix is ______________ across the cell where it is secreted into the interstitial fluid and then into the blood | transcytosed |
What are the two control loops that regulate bone remodeling | hormonal mechanism maintains calcium homeostatsis in the blood mechanical and gravitational forces acting on the skeleton |
What two hormones are involved in controling calcium levels in bone? | calcitonin and PTH (parathyroid hormone) |
Rising blood calcium levels trigger the thyroid to release ___________ and then it stimulates ____________ | calcitonin which stimulates osteoblasts |
falling blood calcium levels signal the parathyroid glands to release ______, which signal ______________to degrade bone | PTH which signals osteoclasts |
____________ says a bone grows or remodels in response to the stress or demands placed upon it | Wolff's law |
Long bones are thickest _______ | midway along the shaft |
Curved bones are thickest where they are most likely to | buckle |
trabeculae form along lines of | stress |
large bony projections occur where ________ muscles attach | big |
What are the stages of healing a bone fracture | 1. hematoma forms 2. fibrocartilaginous callus forms 3. bony callus formation 4. bone remodeling |
During _______________ torn blood vessels hemorrhage and the site becomes swollen, painful, and inflamed | hematoma formation |
when ___________ forms granulation tissue (soft callus) forms, capillaries grow into the tissue and cells begin cleaning debris | fibrocartilaginous calllus |
durning ____________ formation new bone trabeculae appear in the fibrocartiaginous callus, the fibrocartilaginous callus converts into a bony (hard) callus of spongy bone, beings 3-4 weeks after injury and continues until firm union is formed 2-3 months | bony callus formation |
in _____________ excess material on the bone shaft exterior and in the medullary canal is removed, compact bone is laid down to reconstruct shaft walls | bone remodeling |
what homeostatic imbalace causes bone of children to be inadequately mineralized causing softened, weakened bones which causes bowed legs, deformities of the pelvis, skull, and rib cage | rickets |
What causes rickets | insufficient calcium in the diet or Vitamin D deficiency |
______________ is when bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit occurs most often in postmenopausal women | osteoporosis |
Spongy bone of the ____________ is most vulnerable when you have osteoporosis | spine |
When you have osteoporosis bones become so fragile that ________________ or stepping off a curb can cause fractures | sneezing |
What is the treatment for osteoporosis? | calcium and vitamin D supplments, increased weight bearing exercise, natural progesterone cream, statins increase bone mineral desity, hormone replacement therapy slows bone loss |
How are bone fractures classified? | The position of the bone ends after fracture, and the orientation of the break to the long axis |
They type of fracture where bone ends retain their normal position | nondisplaced |
The type of fracture where bone ends are out of alignment | displaced |
bone is broken all the way through | complete |
bone is broken but not all the way through | incomplete |
the fracture is to the long axis of the bone | linear |
the fracture is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone | transverse |
bone ends penetrate the skin | Compound (open) |
bone ends do not penetrate the skin | simple(closed) |
bone fragments into 3 or more pieces | comminuted |
ragged break when bone is excessively twisted | spiral |
broken bone portion pressed inward | depressed |
___________ fractures are common in the elderly | comminuted |
__________ fractures are a common sports injury | spiral |
________fracutures are a typical skull fracture | depressed |
bone is crushed, common in porous bones | compression |
the type of break where the epiphysis separates from diaphysis along epiphyseal line, occurs where cartilage cells are dying | epiphyseal |
incomplete fracture where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends common in children | greenstick |
What is the weakest part of the skeleton | articulations (joints0 |
What is an articulation | a site where two or more bone meet |
What are the functions of joints | give the skeleton mobility hold the skeleton together |
What are the 3 structural classifications of joints | fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial |
What are fibrous joints made of | fiber |
what are cartilaginous joints made of | cartilage |
what are 3 functional classes of joints | synathroses, amphiathroses, and diarthroses |
immovable joints are called | synarthroses |
slightly movable joints are called | amphiarthroses |
freelely movable joints are called | diarthroses |
in fibrous structural joints bones are joined by _________ tissues | fibrous |
____________ are fibrous joints and occur between the bones of the skull | sutures |
______________joints bind bones tightly together but allow for expansion during youth | fibrous |
_____________ is a fibrous tooth joint | gomphoses |
cartilaginous joints is where bones are united together by ____________ | cartilage |
cartilaginous joints are designed for strength and ____________ | flexibility |
synovial joints are where bones are separated by a fluid filled ____________ | cavity |
What do all synovial joints have | articular cartilage, joint (synovial) cavity, articular capsule, synovial fluid, reinforcing ligaments, nevers and blood vessels |
___________ are flattened, fibrous saces lined with synovial membranes and contain synovial fluid | Bursae |
Where is bursae common? | where ligaments, muscles, skin, tendons, or bones rub together |
_______________ are elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon | tendon sheath |
tendon sheats allow muscles to __________ easier | contract |
__________ joints are cylindrical projectinos of one bone fitting into a trough shaped surface on another | hinge |
In hinge joints motion is along a _______ plane | single |
hinge joints allow ________ and extension only | flexion |
the elbow is a _______ joint that allows flexion and extension only | hinge |
_______ joins allow only slipping or gliding movements and where articular surfaces are essentally flat | plane |
__________ joints are where a rounded end of one bone fits into a "sleeve" or ring, composed of bone (and ligaments) of another | pivot |
In pivot joints only __________ movement is allowed | uniaxial |
___________ joints are where oval articular surface of one bone fites into a complementary depression in another | condyloid or elliposoidal |
in condyloid or ellipsoidal joints both articular surfaces are _______ | oval |
Condyloid or elliposoidal joints are ___________ which permit all angular motions | biaxial joints |
___________joints are similar to condyloid joints but allow for greater movement | saddle |
in __________ joints each articular surface has both a concave and convex surface | saddle |
A _____________ joint has a spherical or hemispherical head of one bone articulates with a cuplike of another | ball and socket |
Ball and socket joints are ___________ joints that permit movement in all directions | multiaxial |
ball and socket joints are the most ________ moving joints | freely |
what part of the body has the most freely moving joint in the body that is also the weakest | shoulder |
what is the largest joint in the body | knee |
The knee joint is ________ joints in one surrounded by a single joint cavity | three |
the synovial joint in the knee allows _________, ______, and some ______ | flexion, extension, and some rotation |
in a sprain the ____________ reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn | ligaments |
partially torn ligaments __________ themselves | slowly repair |
completely torn ligaments require ___________ | prompt surgical repair |
__________ occur when bones are forced out of alignment | dislocations |
dislocations are usually accompanied by _____, __________, and joint immobilization | sprains, inflammation |
___________ are caused by serious falls and are a common sports injury | dislocations |
__________ is an inflammation of a bursa, usually casued by a blow or friction | bursitis |
what are the symptoms of bursitis | pain and swelling |
how is bursitis treated | anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive fluid may be aspirated |
___________ is inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse | tendonitis |
what is the most widspread crippling disease in the US, and has more than 100 different types | arthritis |
what are symptoms of arthritis | pain, stifness, and swelling of a joint |
acute forms of arthritis are caused by ____________ and are treated with _____________ | bacterial invasion treated with antibiotics |
osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthrits are ________ forms of arthritis | chronic |
__________ is the most common chronic arthritis and is often called "wear and tear" arthritis | osteoarthritis (OA) |
osteoarthritis is probably related to the __________ process | normal aging |
Does osteoarthritis affect more men or women | women |
As one ages __________ is destroyed more quickly than it is replaced | cartilage |
what are the joints most affected by OA | spine, fingers, knuckles, knees, and hips |
OA is __________ and irreversible | slow |
What are treatments of OA | mild pain relievers, moderate activity, magnetic therapy, glucosamine sulfate (decreases pain and inflammation) |
What is a chronic, inflammatory disease that usually arises between the ages of 40 and 50 | Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) |
what are signs and symptoms of RA | joint tenderness, anemia, osteoporosis, muscle atrophy, and cardiovascular problems |
What is the treatment of RA | conservative therapy-aspiriin, long term use of antibiotics, and PT progressive treatment- anti-inflammatory drugs or immunosuppressants enbril neutralizes the harmful properties of inflammatory disease |
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