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A&P Chap 5,6,8

Randon stuff from notes

What are the functins of the integumentary system? Protection, Body temp regulation, sensation, Metabolic functions, excretion, absorption
How is body temp regulation accomplished by the skin? Dialation (cooling), and constriction (warming) of dermal vessels Sweating, hair standing up
What sense touch and pain in the skin? Exoreceptors
What is a metabolic function of the skin? Synthesis of Vitamin D
What are the three major regions of the skin? Epidermis, Dermis, and Hypodermis
What is the most superficial major region of the skin? Epidermis
What is the middle major region of the skin? Dermis
What is the deepest major region of the skin? Hypodermis
What layer of the skin is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? Epidermis
What type of cells will you find in the epidermis? Keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells, langerhans cells
Epidermis-outer portion of the skin functions in ____________? Protection
What do Keratinocytes produce? Keratin
What do Melanocytes produce? Melanin
Macrophages that activate the immune system are called what? Langerhans' cells
What are Merkel cells? touch receptors
What are the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial? stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum
The ______________ is the deepest epidermal layer stratum basale
The stratum basale consists of a _____________ row of the youngest keratinocytes single
In stratum basale cells undergo ___________________ division rapid
What layer of the epidermis has cells that contain a weblike system of intermidiate filaments attached to desmosomes? stratum spinosum
The stratum Spinosum is the layer where ________________ are filled with keratin keratinocytes
Thin band superficial to the stratum granulosum stratum lucidum
Would you find stratum lucidum in thick or thin skin? thick
Stratum lucidum consists of a few rows of flat, dead ______________ keratinocytes
What layer of the epidermis is the outermost layer of keratinized cells? stratum corneum
The stratum corneum accouts for how much of the epidermis 3/4
What are functions of the stratum corneum? Waterproofing, protects from abrasion and penetration
What layer of the skin contains strong, flexible connective tissue, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells? Dermis
What are the layers of the dermis? papillary and reticular
What layer of the dermis is aerolar tisssue with collagen and elastic fibera Papillary layer
In the papillary layer of the dermis the superior surface contains projections called papillae which contain _______________ and sensory receptors capillary loops
What do the dermal pappilae cause? epidermal ridges (friction ridges)
Sweat pores around the epidermal ridges make what fingerprints
The reticular layer of the dermis is __% the thickness of the skin? 80%
collagen fibers add ____________ strength
elastin fibers provide __________ flexibility
Why are cleavage lines important for surgons? The skin gapes less and heals more readily when cut along these lines
What is the subcutaneous layer deep to the skin? Hypodermis
What types of tissue is the hypodermis composed of? adipose and areolar connective tissue
What 3 pigments contribute to skin color? melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin
what pigment is yellow to reddish-brown to black pigment melanin
what pigment is yellow to orange carotene
what pigment is red hemoglobin
Blue skin could indicate heart failure or severe respiratory disorders what is this called cyanosis
pale skin could indicate low blood pressure or anemia what is this called pallor
yellow skin could indicate liver problems what is this called jaundice
bronze skin is a sign of Addisons diease, a hormonal imbalace what is this called? bronzing
A _____________ on the skin shows internal bleeding bruise
Different types of __________ glands prevent overheating of the body, secrete wax, and milk sweat
Where can you find eccrine sweat glands, and what do they secrete you can find eccrine glands all over, and they secrete water
______________sweat glands are found in the axillary and genital areas, and secrete proteins that cause body odor apocrine
____________glands are modified glands in the ear canal and secrete wax Ceruminous
Mammary glands are speciailized glands that secrete ____________ milk
What are simple alveolar glands found all over the body, soften skin when simulated by hormones? sebacous glands
Sebaceous glands secerete an oily secretion called ___________ sebum
What is hair? strands of dead keratinized clles produced by hair follicles
Hair contains _____________ keratin hard
Hair is made up of the ______________ projecting from the skin, and the root embedded in the skin shaft
What are functions of the hair? help maintain warmth, sensory, guard the scalp against physical trauma, heat loss, and sunlight
Hair thinning in both sexes is called? alopecia
male pattern baldness is caused by folliular response to ___________ DHT
true, or frank, baldness is ____________ determined and sex influenced condition genetically
______________ can absorb UV rays and protect skin melanin
Sun damage causes clumping of _____________ fibers and can cause leathery skin elastic
What are the 3 major types of skin cancer basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma
What is the most common type of skin cancer, but the least malignant basal cell carcinoma
is basal cell carcinoma slow or fast growing slow
Basal cell carcinoma can be surgically removed in ___% of the cases 99
What is the 2nd most common skin cancer? squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum _____________ spinosum
Does squamous cell carcinoma grow slowly or rapidly if not removed? rapidly
Is prognosis good or bad if squamous cell carcinoma is treated by a radiation therapy or removed surgically good
What is the most dangerous type of skin cancer? melanoma
what type of skin cancer is highly metastic and resistant to chemotherapy melanoma
how is melanoma treated? by wide surgical excision accompanied by immunotherapy
The cance of survivial is poor if the melanoma lesion is over ____mm thick 4
What is the ABCD rule for characteristicis of melanomass? A: Asymmetry the two sides pigmented area do not match B: Border is irregular and exhibits indentations C: Color (pigmented area) is black, brown, tan, and sometimes red or blue D:Diameter is larger than 6mm(size of a pencil eraser)
In a first degree burn the ___________ is damaged epidermis
What are the symptoms of a 1st degree burn localized redness, swelling, and pain
In second degree burns what parts of the skin are damaged epidermis and upper regions of the dermis
Symptoms of second degree burns mimic first degree burns, but _________ also appear blisters
In ____________ degree burns the entire thickness of the skin is damaged third
What are the symptoms of 3rd degree burns burned area appears gray-white, cherry red, or black; there is no inital edema or pain (since nerve endings are destroyed)
Bones of the skull, vertebral column and rib cage are part of the ____________ skeleton axial
What is the function of the axial skeleton protection
Bones of the upper and lower limbs, shoulder, and hip are part of the ____________ skeleton appendicular
What is the function of the appendicular skeleton? movement
How would you describe a long bone? longer than wide
How would you describe a short bone? roughly cube shaped
How would you describe a flat bone? thin flattened and usually curved
How would you descirbe an irregular bone? A complicated shape that isn't flat, short, or long
What are the functions of bone? support, movement, protection, mineral storage, blood cell formation
What are the ends of a long bone called? epiphyses
what is the shaft of a long bone called diaphysis
In a long bone ____________ bone surrounds the fat filled medullary cavity compact
In the epiphyses the exterior is ________ bone and the interior is ________ bone, and the joint surface is covered with____________ exterior is compact bone, interior is spongy bone, and the joint surface is covered with a thin layer of articular (hyaline) cartilage
____________ is a double layered protective membrane periosteum
delicate membrane covering internal surfaces of bone endosteum
In the microscopic structure of bone the ______________ is the structural unit of compact bone Haversian system or osteon
What is the haversian or central canal? central channel containing blood vessels and nerves
The ____________ connect blood supply of the periosteum to the central canal volkmanns canals
____________ are mature bone cells osteocytes
___________ are small cavities in bone that contain osteocytes lacunae
______________ are hairlike canals that connect lacune to each other and the central canal canaliculi
____________ are bone building cells osteoblasts
____________ are mature bone cells osteocytes
___________ cut and dissolve (break down) bone osteoclasts
___________ are unmineralized bone matrix composed of proteoglycans, glycoprteins, and collagen osteoid
Collagen gives ________ to bones flexibility
Mineral salts, maainly calcuim phosphate makes up 65% of bone by mass, what is it responsibile for in bones? hardness
osteogenesis and ossification is the process of ______________ bone formation
___________ leads to the formation of the bony skeleton in embryos, bone growth until early adulthood, bone thickness, remodeling, and repair osteogenesis and ossification
formation of the bony skeleton begins at _______ weeks of embroy development 8
___________ bone develops from a fibrous membrane intramembranous
____________ bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage endochondral
What are the stages of intramembranous ossification an ossification center appears, bone matrix is secreted, woven bone and peristeum form, bone collar forms, and red marrow appears
Intramembranous ossification bones form from the ___________ out, and make __________ bones bones form from the inside out, and make flat bones
begins in the second month of development, uses hyaline cartilage "bones" as models for bone construction, requires breakdown of hyaline cartilage prior to ossification endochondral ossification
_____________ ossification makes long bones, and is formed from the ________ in endochondral and makes bones from the outside in
What are the stages of endochondral ossification? formation of bone collar, cavitation (dying) of the hyaline cartilage, blood supply comes inside the bone, and spongy bone formation, medullary cavity formed secondary ossification centers, ossification of the epiphyses
What are the functional zones in long bone growth? growth zone, hypertropic, calcification zone, osteogenic zone
In the growth zone of long bones cartilage cells ________, pushing the epiphysis up divide
In the hypertrophic zone of long bone the older cells __________ enlarge
In the calcification zone of long bone the matrix becomes ___________ calcified
in the osteogenic zone of long bone there is new bone ___________ formation
for long bones to grow in length ____________ continually grows and is replaced by bone cartilage
__________ is where bone is resorbed and added by appositional growth remodeling
bones ____________ with appposition growth widen
in interstititial growth bones __________ lengthen
during infancy and childhood bone growth is stimulated by _______________ growth hormone
during puberty testosterone and estroges cause ______________, ___________, and ____________ growth spurts masculinization and feminization epiphyseal plate closure
the ___________ and _______________- deposit and resorb bone osteoblasts (build) and osteoclasts (cut)
Bone deposition occurs where bone is injured or added ____________ is needed strength
Osteoclasts form ____________ bays resorption
Osteoclasts secrete lysosonal enzymes that digest _________________, and acids that convert _______________ digest organic matrix, and convert calcium salts
Dissolved matrix is ______________ across the cell where it is secreted into the interstitial fluid and then into the blood transcytosed
What are the two control loops that regulate bone remodeling hormonal mechanism maintains calcium homeostatsis in the blood mechanical and gravitational forces acting on the skeleton
What two hormones are involved in controling calcium levels in bone? calcitonin and PTH (parathyroid hormone)
Rising blood calcium levels trigger the thyroid to release ___________ and then it stimulates ____________ calcitonin which stimulates osteoblasts
falling blood calcium levels signal the parathyroid glands to release ______, which signal ______________to degrade bone PTH which signals osteoclasts
____________ says a bone grows or remodels in response to the stress or demands placed upon it Wolff's law
Long bones are thickest _______ midway along the shaft
Curved bones are thickest where they are most likely to buckle
trabeculae form along lines of stress
large bony projections occur where ________ muscles attach big
What are the stages of healing a bone fracture 1. hematoma forms 2. fibrocartilaginous callus forms 3. bony callus formation 4. bone remodeling
During _______________ torn blood vessels hemorrhage and the site becomes swollen, painful, and inflamed hematoma formation
when ___________ forms granulation tissue (soft callus) forms, capillaries grow into the tissue and cells begin cleaning debris fibrocartilaginous calllus
durning ____________ formation new bone trabeculae appear in the fibrocartiaginous callus, the fibrocartilaginous callus converts into a bony (hard) callus of spongy bone, beings 3-4 weeks after injury and continues until firm union is formed 2-3 months bony callus formation
in _____________ excess material on the bone shaft exterior and in the medullary canal is removed, compact bone is laid down to reconstruct shaft walls bone remodeling
what homeostatic imbalace causes bone of children to be inadequately mineralized causing softened, weakened bones which causes bowed legs, deformities of the pelvis, skull, and rib cage rickets
What causes rickets insufficient calcium in the diet or Vitamin D deficiency
______________ is when bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit occurs most often in postmenopausal women osteoporosis
Spongy bone of the ____________ is most vulnerable when you have osteoporosis spine
When you have osteoporosis bones become so fragile that ________________ or stepping off a curb can cause fractures sneezing
What is the treatment for osteoporosis? calcium and vitamin D supplments, increased weight bearing exercise, natural progesterone cream, statins increase bone mineral desity, hormone replacement therapy slows bone loss
How are bone fractures classified? The position of the bone ends after fracture, and the orientation of the break to the long axis
They type of fracture where bone ends retain their normal position nondisplaced
The type of fracture where bone ends are out of alignment displaced
bone is broken all the way through complete
bone is broken but not all the way through incomplete
the fracture is to the long axis of the bone linear
the fracture is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone transverse
bone ends penetrate the skin Compound (open)
bone ends do not penetrate the skin simple(closed)
bone fragments into 3 or more pieces comminuted
ragged break when bone is excessively twisted spiral
broken bone portion pressed inward depressed
___________ fractures are common in the elderly comminuted
__________ fractures are a common sports injury spiral
________fracutures are a typical skull fracture depressed
bone is crushed, common in porous bones compression
the type of break where the epiphysis separates from diaphysis along epiphyseal line, occurs where cartilage cells are dying epiphyseal
incomplete fracture where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends common in children greenstick
What is the weakest part of the skeleton articulations (joints0
What is an articulation a site where two or more bone meet
What are the functions of joints give the skeleton mobility hold the skeleton together
What are the 3 structural classifications of joints fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial
What are fibrous joints made of fiber
what are cartilaginous joints made of cartilage
what are 3 functional classes of joints synathroses, amphiathroses, and diarthroses
immovable joints are called synarthroses
slightly movable joints are called amphiarthroses
freelely movable joints are called diarthroses
in fibrous structural joints bones are joined by _________ tissues fibrous
____________ are fibrous joints and occur between the bones of the skull sutures
______________joints bind bones tightly together but allow for expansion during youth fibrous
_____________ is a fibrous tooth joint gomphoses
cartilaginous joints is where bones are united together by ____________ cartilage
cartilaginous joints are designed for strength and ____________ flexibility
synovial joints are where bones are separated by a fluid filled ____________ cavity
What do all synovial joints have articular cartilage, joint (synovial) cavity, articular capsule, synovial fluid, reinforcing ligaments, nevers and blood vessels
___________ are flattened, fibrous saces lined with synovial membranes and contain synovial fluid Bursae
Where is bursae common? where ligaments, muscles, skin, tendons, or bones rub together
_______________ are elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon tendon sheath
tendon sheats allow muscles to __________ easier contract
__________ joints are cylindrical projectinos of one bone fitting into a trough shaped surface on another hinge
In hinge joints motion is along a _______ plane single
hinge joints allow ________ and extension only flexion
the elbow is a _______ joint that allows flexion and extension only hinge
_______ joins allow only slipping or gliding movements and where articular surfaces are essentally flat plane
__________ joints are where a rounded end of one bone fits into a "sleeve" or ring, composed of bone (and ligaments) of another pivot
In pivot joints only __________ movement is allowed uniaxial
___________ joints are where oval articular surface of one bone fites into a complementary depression in another condyloid or elliposoidal
in condyloid or ellipsoidal joints both articular surfaces are _______ oval
Condyloid or elliposoidal joints are ___________ which permit all angular motions biaxial joints
___________joints are similar to condyloid joints but allow for greater movement saddle
in __________ joints each articular surface has both a concave and convex surface saddle
A _____________ joint has a spherical or hemispherical head of one bone articulates with a cuplike of another ball and socket
Ball and socket joints are ___________ joints that permit movement in all directions multiaxial
ball and socket joints are the most ________ moving joints freely
what part of the body has the most freely moving joint in the body that is also the weakest shoulder
what is the largest joint in the body knee
The knee joint is ________ joints in one surrounded by a single joint cavity three
the synovial joint in the knee allows _________, ______, and some ______ flexion, extension, and some rotation
in a sprain the ____________ reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn ligaments
partially torn ligaments __________ themselves slowly repair
completely torn ligaments require ___________ prompt surgical repair
__________ occur when bones are forced out of alignment dislocations
dislocations are usually accompanied by _____, __________, and joint immobilization sprains, inflammation
___________ are caused by serious falls and are a common sports injury dislocations
__________ is an inflammation of a bursa, usually casued by a blow or friction bursitis
what are the symptoms of bursitis pain and swelling
how is bursitis treated anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive fluid may be aspirated
___________ is inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse tendonitis
what is the most widspread crippling disease in the US, and has more than 100 different types arthritis
what are symptoms of arthritis pain, stifness, and swelling of a joint
acute forms of arthritis are caused by ____________ and are treated with _____________ bacterial invasion treated with antibiotics
osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthrits are ________ forms of arthritis chronic
__________ is the most common chronic arthritis and is often called "wear and tear" arthritis osteoarthritis (OA)
osteoarthritis is probably related to the __________ process normal aging
Does osteoarthritis affect more men or women women
As one ages __________ is destroyed more quickly than it is replaced cartilage
what are the joints most affected by OA spine, fingers, knuckles, knees, and hips
OA is __________ and irreversible slow
What are treatments of OA mild pain relievers, moderate activity, magnetic therapy, glucosamine sulfate (decreases pain and inflammation)
What is a chronic, inflammatory disease that usually arises between the ages of 40 and 50 Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
what are signs and symptoms of RA joint tenderness, anemia, osteoporosis, muscle atrophy, and cardiovascular problems
What is the treatment of RA conservative therapy-aspiriin, long term use of antibiotics, and PT progressive treatment- anti-inflammatory drugs or immunosuppressants enbril neutralizes the harmful properties of inflammatory disease
Created by: vuaandp



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