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Pharmacy Tech certification

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
        Help!  

Question
Answers
show C) etomidate.  
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show D) Bactrim DS®.  
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show A) Vermox®.  
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show D) Mycostatin®.  
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show B) hematoporetic.  
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6. Which of the following sound-alike/look-alike drugs share the same therapeutic mechanism? A) albuterol/atenolol B) amitiptyline/aminophylline C) prednisone/prednisolone D) hydrocortisone/hydrocodone   show
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7. Patients should drink plenty of water while taking A) Bactrim®. B) Plendil®. C) amlodipine. D) verapamil.   show
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show C) hydroxyzine.  
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show B) analgesic.  
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10. All of the following are considered cardiovascular agents except A) anticoagulants. B) antihyperlipidemics. C) vasopressors. D) antimetabolites.   show
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11. The term which best describes a drug which inhibits bacterial growth is A) bacteriostatic. B) bactericidal. C) antimycobacterial. D) bacterial modifier.   show
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show B) Stage II  
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show C) alkylating agents.  
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show C) alkylating agents  
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14. Ambien® may be best described as a A) benzodiazepine. B) narcotic. C) hypnotic. D) antidepressant.   show
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show A) recently had a stroke.  
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show D) reduce fever.  
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show B) Aricept®.  
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show A) glaucoma.  
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19. Drugs which act to relax the smooth muscle of the bronchi are A) mucolytics. B) antihistamines. C) xanthine derivatives. D) piperzines.   show
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show A) Prozac®.  
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21. Each of the following organizations are directly involved with the name selection of a drug except the A) FDA. B) USAN. C) USDA. D) APA.   show
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show A) Nitrostat®  
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show C) bronchodilator  
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show D) right ventricle  
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26. A patient with gouty arthritis may likely be taking any of the following drugs except a/an A) xanthine oxidase inhibitor. B) calcium channel blocker. C) uricosuric agent. D) allopurinol.   show
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show C) uricosuric agent.  
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28. A typical example of a natural neurotransmitter is A) dopamine. B) levodopa. C) carbidopa. D) Depakote®.   show
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show C) corticosteroids.  
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30. Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of hypertension? A) Lotrel® B) Diovan® C) Benicar® D) Meclizine   show
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37. Which of the following statements is true regarding the antidepressant Zoloft®? A) It is an SARI. B) It is indicated for the treatment of bipolar depression. C) It is a tricyclic. D) It is an MAOI.   show
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show C) Sulfasalazine  
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show D) chloride channel blockers.  
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show C) antihyperlipidemics.  
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41. One way vaccines offer a patient protection from disease is by providing A) impassive immunity. B) active immunity. C) inactive immunity. D) non-acquired immunity.   show
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42. Some of the most often prescribed laxatives include all of the following except A) osmotics. B) saline. C) histamine. D) bulk forming.   show
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43. Which of the following drugs does not belong in the list? A) Paxil® B) diazepam C) Effexor® D) Wellbutrin®   show
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44. The neurological agent, Adderall®, is also classified as an A) anticholenergic. B) antimigraine. C) amphetamine. D) analgesic.   show
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45. The following are considered osteoporotic in effect except A) Aviane®. B) Actonel®. C) Fosamax®. D) Evista®.   show
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46. Zetia® and Pravachol® are examples of recently available A) dermatologicals. B) gastrointestinal agents. C) antihyperlipidemics. D) antidiabetics.   show
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show D) Evista®.  
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show C) antipyretics.  
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show B) thrombolytic  
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50. Human passive immunity is most often used for the treatment of A) Tetanus. B) Botulism. C) Diptheria. D) Rabies.   show
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show C) Detrol LA®  
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show B) it is potassium sparing. C) it prevents hypotension.  
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show D) metfoimin.  
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show D) Trinessa®  
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55. An example of a barbiturate is A) Seconal®. B) Valium®. C) chloral hydrate. D) meprobamate.   show
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show C) inhibition of prostaglandins.  
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show B) increase of fluid volume.  
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show A) fungal  
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59. When cancer cells spread from their primary site, they are said to have A) migrated. B) traveled. C) metastasized. D) relocated.   show
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60. ______________ is an antihistamine. A) Hydrocodone B) Promethazine C) Pseudoephedrine D) Phenylephrine   show
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61._______________ is a beclomethasone inhaler. A) QVAR® B) Proventil HFA® C) Atrovent® D) Mucomyst®   show
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show D) aspirin  
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show C) Differin®.  
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show B) Coreg®.  
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65. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance are major concerns of prolonged vomiting. Therefore, all of the following may be considered viable supplements except A) calcium. B) magnesium. C) potassium. D) iron.   show
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23. Which kind of contraceptive product least mimics natural ovarian hormones? A) triphasic B) monophasic C) triphasic D) triphasic /biphasic mix   show
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1. Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (1938) followed the fatal poisoning by A) sulfanilamide. B) thalidomide. C) penicillin. D) acetaminophen.   show
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2. The _____________________________ defines which drugs require a prescription. A) Food and Drug Act (1906) B) Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (1938) C) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951) D) Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)   show
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show D) proof of both safety and efficacy before marketing.  
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show D) Poison Prevention Packaging Act (1970)  
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5. The DEA as a division of the A) FDA. B) HCFA. C) Justice Department. D) CMS.   show
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6. The_____________________________ provides incentives to promote research, approval, and marketing of drugs needed for the treatment of rare diseases. A) Orphan Drug Act (1983) B) Hatch-Waxman Act (1984) C) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (195   show
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7. The _____________________________________________ requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients receiving prescriptions. A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996) B) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (199   show
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show A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996)  
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show C) Hatch-Waxman Act (1984)  
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10. It is the responsibility of A) the FDA B) the manufacturer C) the DEA D) the CDER E) F) G) to provide proof that a drug is safe and effective.   show
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11. Clinical trials involve A) testing drugs on people. B) testing drugs on animals in the United States. C) testing drugs on animals in countries outside of the United States. D) testing drugs in laboratories.   show
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show C) placebo.  
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13. The main purpose of phase I clinical drug testing is A) safety. B) efficacy. C) dosage range. D) interactions.   show
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14. The main purpose of phase II clinical drug testing is A) safety. B) efficacy. C) dosage range. D) interactions.   show
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15. The largest number of patients are in_____________ of clinical drug testing. A) phase I B) phase II C) phase III D) lND   show
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16. The Waxman-Hatch Act provided for up to ______ year extensions of patent protection beyond the 17 years for a drug patent. A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 17   show
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17. Drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form are A) therapeutic equivalents. B) pharmaceutical equivalents. C) look-alikes. D) sound-alikes.   show
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show C) 146.  
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19. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, the pharmacy or store that sells pseudoephedrine-containing products must maintain written or electronic records of the transactions for a period of A) 6 months. B) one year. C) two years.   show
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show C) 18  
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21. The sale of exempt narcotics is limited by how many dosage units can be sold in any given ___________ period. A) 24 hour B) 48 hour C) 72 hour D) weekly   show
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22. It is necessary to have a prescription to dispense emergency contraceptives to individuals A) under 21 years. B) under 18 years. C) under 17 years. D) under 12 years.   show
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show C) the manufacturer.  
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24. The second set of numbers in the NDC indicates A) the drug name, strength and dosage form. B) the package size. C) the manufacturer. D) the patent year.   show
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25. The third set of numbers in the NDC indicates A) the drug name, strength and dosage form. B) the package size. C) the manufacturer. D) the patent year.   show
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26. Drugs in DEA ___ A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) have no accepted medical use.   show
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27. Exempt narcotics are in DEA A) Schedule II. B) Schedule III. C) Schedule IV. D) Schedule V.   show
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show B) Schedule III  
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show C) the U.S. Congress.  
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show A) DEA Form 222  
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show D) DEA.  
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show A) BD8822561  
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33. The FDA voluntary reporting program for health care professionals to report adverse effects caused by approved drugs is A) VAERS. B) MedWatch. C) Class I Recall. D) Class II Recall.   show
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34. Drug recalls are the responsibility of A) the FDA. B) the DEA. C) the manufacturer. D) the CDC.   show
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show A) Class I  
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36. A major piece of federal legislation affecting patients' privacy rights is the A) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act. B) Kefauver-Harris Act. C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. D) Durham-Humphrey Act.   show
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show D) JCAHO.  
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38. The organization that accredits pharmacy residency and pharmacy technician training programs is the A) ASHP. B) USP. C) ASCP. D) JCAHO.   show
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show B) USP.  
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show C) "Rx Only"  
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show A)  
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show D) undissolved active drug particles  
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3. When a solution is free from soluble products produced by microorganisms, it is said to be A) sterile. B) pyrogen free. C) isotonic. D) particle free.   show
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show D) all of the above  
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show C) 100 ml  
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6. If a drug is added to a LVP solution, it should be added through the A) administration set port. B) additive port. C) medication port. D) any of the above   show
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7. The administration port on an LVP container is covered by a plastic cover. rubber tip. aluminum seal. cotton plug.   show
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show a drug interacts with plastic containers.  
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9. USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations were instituted by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). details good compounding practices for parenterals. applies only to pharmacies where parenterals are prepared, stored, and dispensed. all of the above   show
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10. Which is considered a CSP according to the USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations? ophthalmic preparations otic preparations inhalation preparations all of the above   show
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show none of the above  
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show glycine 1.5% irrigation solution  
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show admixture solution.  
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14. Which is an example of packaging for SVP solutions? minibags glass vials ampules all of the above   show
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show Reconstitute the lyophilized drug in the vial and add to the LVP.  
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show aids in withdrawing solution from the vial  
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show Solution volumes are greater than 1,000 ml.  
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18. Adding intravenous fat (lipid) emulsion to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution provides a concentrated source of calories. protein. fatty acids. macronutrients.   show
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show hypertonic TPN solutions.  
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20. Intravenous fat emulsion, either alone or as part of a TNA solution, must be filtered with at least a ____micron filter. A) 0.22 B) 0.45 C) 1.2 D) 5.0   show
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show A) moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.  
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show D) many times a day.  
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23. Laminar flow hoods provide a ____ work area. A) sterile B) stable C) zone of turbulence D) ultraclean   show
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24. At least one HEPA filter is contained in a laminar flow hood. What does HEPA stand for? A) heavy efficiency particular air B) highly effective particulate air C) high efficiency particulate air D) heavy effective particulate air   show
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show in front of (i.e., on the opening side of the hood) a large container.  
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show air flow in one uniform direction.  
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show does not use HEPA filters  
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show Trained personnel can enter a clean room for any purpose at any time.  
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29. Which is a false statement about USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations regarding air quality in a clean room? Air must be repeatedly filtered. Air must not contain more than 20,000 airborne particles of 0.5 micron or smaller per cubic foot. Clean room m   show
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30. Which is a false statement about working inside the laminar flow hood using aseptic techniques? Do not sneeze into the hood. Close all doors to the clean room. Maintain a direct clear path of 2 inches between the HEPA filter and the work area. Pla   show
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1. Community pharmacies generally sell health and beauty aids. prescription drugs. over-the-counter drugs. all of the above   show
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show chain pharmacies.  
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show food store pharmacies  
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4. Examples of are Giant Eagle and Kroger. chain pharmacies mass merchandiser pharmacies independent pharmacies food store pharmacies   show
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5. Almost two thirds of all prescription drugs in the U.S. are dispensed by community pharmacies. mass merchandiser pharmacies. independent pharmacies. food store pharmacies.   show
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show Monitoring drug therapy  
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show OBRA.  
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show where to store the medication. possible side effects. b and c.  
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show OBRA.  
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show all of the above  
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show senior citizens.  
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12. Legal requirements for the ratio of pharmacists to technicians are regulated at the federal level. state level.   show
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13. Regarding pharmacy technician certification, some states require national pharmacy technician certification. some states have their own certifying programs. states are increasingly establishing certification requirements for pharmacy technicians.   show
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show True  
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15. Federal regulations require community pharmacies to have a functioning cash register within the pharmacy department. (True or False) True False   show
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16. The pharmacy refrigerator in a community pharmacy must be maintained between 2 degrees C and 8 degrees C and may be used to store sealed cans of soft drinks for the pharmacy staff. must be designated for drugs only. may be used to store the pharmac   show
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show customer satisfaction..  
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18. When a patient telephones the \pharmacy to ask about the dosage for a new prescription, the call should be handled by the technician. handled by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.   show
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19. When a patient telephones the pharmacy to ask about the price for a new prescription, the call should be handled by the technician. handled only by a certified technician. referred to the pharmacist.   show
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show handled by the technician  
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show referred to the pharmacist.  
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22. OTC medications require a prescription. can have side effects. can be recommended by pharmacy technicians. none of the above   show
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show the employer of the insured.  
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24. When a technician enters a patient's third party information into the pharmacy computer system, the policy identification number identifies the insured individual. the pharmacy. the PBM. the patient.   show
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25. If a cream or ointment is not pre-packaged in the appropriate size tube for filling the prescription, it is necessary to fill the prescription with a larger amount if a larger amount is available. transfer the appropriate amount to an ointment jar u   show
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show True  
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27. Small additional labels placed on prescription containers that identify important usage information including specific warnings or alerts are strip labels. auxiliary labels. prescription labels.   show
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28. Automated filling machines must be maintained by a pharmacy technician on a daily basis. weekly basis. monthly basis. annual basis.   show
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show signature log.  
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30. It is a good practice for cash register operation to place the customer's money within the customer's line of sight until the customer has received his or her change. (True or False) True False   show
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show direct customers to the location of OTC products.  
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show the difference between the selling price and the acquisition cost.  
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show coordinate billing, schedule appointments, and take patient information.  
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34. Technicians should always respond to customers in a positive and courteous way. neutral and disinterested way. way that indicates the pharmacy is very busy. negative and agitated way.   show
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show always bring the alert to the attention of the pharmacist so the pharmacist can evaluate the significance of the alert.  
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show all of the above  
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1. Examples of public health insurance are patient assistance programs. Medicare and Medicaid. health maintenance organizations. preferred provider organizations.   show
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show pharmacy benefit managers.  
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3. An agreement for cost sharing between the insurer and insured is called co-insurance. co-pay. dual co-pay. MAC.   show
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4. A deductible represents a portion of the price of the medication that the employer is required to pay. a portion of the price of the medication that the PBM is required to pay. a discount that is applied to the cost of an insurance policy. a set am   show
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5. The type of managed care program that is most restrictive is HMO. POS. PPO. major medical.   show
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show Part A.  
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show Part B.  
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show Part D.  
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9. The component of Medicare that covers MTMS is Part A. Part B. Part C. Part D.   show
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10. The type of formulary that is least restrictive is a/an closed formulary. open formulary. major medical formulary. dual formulary.   show
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show Workers' Compensation.  
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show Patient Assistance Programs.  
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13. A rejected claim for invalid person code following online adjudication of a prescription claim means the birth date or sex submitted for the claim does not match the birth date or sex for the patient code submitted (01, 02, etc.). the refill is too   show
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show Universal Claim Form.  
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show CMS-1500.  
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show CMS-1500.  
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show National Provider Identifier.  
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18. The number used to identify the drug dispensed when billing a PBM for a filled prescription is the group number. DAW. NPI. NDC.   show
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show CPT Code.  
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show third party.  
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show PBM.  
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22. The number or code on an insurance card that identifies the employer of the insured individual is the patient identification number group number NPI PBM   show
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23. The federal health insurance program for people over age 65 or people with kidney failure is Medicare. Medicaid. PBM. NPI.   show
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24. The process for using a computer to determine the exact coverage for a prescription with the appropriate third party is called resubmission. online adjudication. rejection. PPO.   show
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25. A list of medications that are covered by a third party program is called a tier. MAC. formulary. U&C.   show
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26. The CPT Code for pharmacist-provided services for a first encounter with a patient is 99604. 99605. 99606. 99607.   show
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27. The CPT Code for pharmacist-provided services for a follow-up encounter with a patient that may be billed in 1-15 minute increments is A) 99605. B) 99606. C) 99607. D) 99608.   show
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show 99607.  
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show CMS 10114.  
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30. Categories of drugs in third party prescription drug programs associated with different co-pays are called CPTs. POSs. PPOs. tiers.   show
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show inventory.  
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show formulary.  
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3. The type of formulary that allows purchase of any medication that is prescribed is a/an open formulary. closed formulary.   show
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show wholesalers.  
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show chain of custody from manufacture to final dispensing pharmacy.  
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show Reorder points  
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show Carousel.  
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8. An example of a robotic dispensing machine that produces prescription labels is Baker Cells. Parata RDS. Pyxis Supply Station. Homerus.   show
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9. is an example of an automated point-of-use storage system for making floor stock items available to nurses in the hospital setting. Baker Cells Parata RDS Pyxis Supply Station Homerus   show
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show automated dispensing system  
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show MSDS.  
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12. The purchase order number is usually created by the computer system of the purchaser. seller. FDA. DEA.   show
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show aspirin.  
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14. Most drugs are kept at 36 degrees F to 46 degrees 72 degrees F to 82 degrees F. 5 degrees F to 32 degrees F. 59 degrees F to 86 degrees F.   show
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15. A package containing a single dose of a medication is called point of use. unit dose packaging. point of sale. MSDS.   show
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16. The temperature for refrigeration should generally be 36 degrees F to 72 degrees 40 degrees F to 42 degrees F. 5 degrees F to 32 degrees F. 59 degrees F to 86 degrees F.   show
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17. Expired medications should be stored with the regular drug stock. thrown into trash. kept isolated from regular stock. sent to a poor country.   show
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show the oldest inventory first.  
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show point of sale inventory.  
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show perpetual inventory.  
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21. The number system assigned by the purchaser to each order for identification is the purchase order. invoice number.   show
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22. The number assigned by the wholesaler to each order for identification is the purchase order. invoice number.   show
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show immediately.  
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show mobile robots.  
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25. The EPA allows all pharmaceuticals to be disposed through the sewer supply. True False   show
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show DEA.  
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27. Checking computer reports for accuracy is done electronically. automatically. manually.   show
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28. To improve a computer's performance, is performed to reorganize the files of a computer that have been automatically stored in pieces or fragments. defragmentation system backup   show
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show none of the above  
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30. Storing drugs alpha-generically organizes drugs alphabetically by the brand name with the generic next to the brand name. alphabetically by the generic name.   show
🗑


   

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