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Chapters 1-18

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
mediastinum is the central compartment of the ______ cavity   thoracic  
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systemic anatomy is the study of   organs of one system  
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the forearm is in what region of the body   antebrachial  
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The ____ level of organization is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform a common function.   organ  
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The ____ cavity is located inferior to the diaphragm and superior to a horizontal line drawn between the superior edges of the hip bones?   abdominal  
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Which medical imaging technique uses modified x-rays to prepare 3-D cross-sectional "slices" of the body?   computed tomography (CT)  
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The subdiscipline of anatomy that examines structures not readily seen by the unaided eye is _____ anatomy.   microscopic  
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responsible for synthesizing proteins in the cell   ribosomes  
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organelles housing digestive enzymes   lysosomes  
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_____ proteins are not embedded in the phospholipid bilayer.   Peripheral  
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organelle that sorts and packages molecules _____ _____   Golgi apparatus  
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process of bulk export from the cell   exocytosis  
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internal protein framework in cytoplasm   cytoskeleton  
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diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane   osmosis  
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The phase in mitosis when DNA replication occurs is the _____ phase?   S  
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endocytosis of small amounts of fluid   pinocytosis  
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The nucleus is the control center and stores _____ _____.   genetic information  
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When a cell begins to divide, its chromatin forms _____.   chromosomes  
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Integral membrane proteins extend across the ____ layer.   phospholipid  
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Which expends ATP; active transport or facilitated diffusion?   active transport  
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Two plasma membrane structures that serve in cell recognition and act as a "personal ID card" for the cell   glycolipids and glycoproteins  
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______ increases the outer surface area of the plasma membrane to increase absorption.   microvilli  
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Major functions of the Golgi apparatus are _____, _______, _______ of new molecules.   packaging, sorting and modification  
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Interphase of the cell cycle consists of the following parts: ______, ______, and G(2).   G(1), S  
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organelle that provides most of the ATP needed by the cell   mitochondrion  
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Which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids begin to move apart from each other at the middle of the cell?   anaphase (apart)  
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_____ muscle has no striations.   smooth  
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salivary glands are which type of secretion   merocrine  
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ground substance is part of the _____ _____   extracellular matrix  
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What tissue type lines the small intestine lumen? _____ _____ epithelium   simple columnar  
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A goblet cell is an example of a/an _______ _______ gland.   unicellular exocrine  
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parallel arrangement of protein fibers is termed   dense regular connective tissue  
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lines blood vessel lumen   endothelium  
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____ muscle contains intercalated discs.   cardiac  
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A scattered arrangement of protein fibers is termed?   dense irregular connective tissue  
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a characteristic of ALL epithelia   avascular  
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____ ____ tissue contains calcified ground substance and is specialized for structured support.   Bone connective  
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predominant cell type in areolar connective tissue   fibroblast  
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preventing desiccation and providing surface lubrication within a body cavity are the functions of ______ membranes   mucous  
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simple epithelium is adapted for _____ and ______   diffusion and filtration  
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Epithelium is selectively _______, is designed for______ ________ and the cells can produce ________ products.   permeable, physical protection, secretory  
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connective tissue type composed of cells called chondrocytes, may be surrounded by a covering called perichondrium   cartilage  
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______ tissue is less able to maintain and repair itself and epithelium becomes ______.   aging, thinner  
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Which tissue type lines the trachea? ____ ____ ____ epithelium   pseudostratified ciliated columnar  
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____ muscle consists of long, cylindrical, striated cells with multi-nulcei located at the periphery of the cell.   Skeletal  
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gland that releases its secretion by exocytosis into secretory vesicles   merocrine  
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composed of epidermis and dermis   integument  
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What are formed from stratum corneum?   fingernails  
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fibrous protein in epidermis   keratin  
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pigment-forming cells   melanocytes  
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most numerous epidermal cell   keratinocytes  
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a phagocytic cell (active in immune response)   epidermal dendritic cell  
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a layer of dense irregular connective tissue in dermis   reticular layer  
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What smooth muscle is attached to hair follicles?   arrector pili  
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"strawberry colored birthmarks" AKA   capillary hemangiomas  
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layer of the epidermis in which cells begin the process of keratinization   stratum granulosum  
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____ glands communicate with skin surfaces only in the axillary, areolar, pubic and anal regions.   apocrine  
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Name 7 functions of the integumentary system.   protection, prevention of water loss, temp regulation, metabolic regulation, immune defense, sensory reception, excretion  
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layer of the dermis that contains areolar connective tissue and dermal papillae   papillary layer  
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Melanin is a pigment that accumulates inside ____?   keratinocytes  
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the layer of squamous epithelium that forms by the seventh week of development to give rise to the integument is the _____.   periderm  
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cells in the hair follicle that are responsible for forming hair   matrix  
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water loss due to evaporation of interstitial fluid through the surface of the skin is termed   insensible perspiration  
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specialized feature of an epithelium that consists of a reticular lamina and a basal lamina   basement membrane  
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type of cell that forms walls of kidney tubules, formed by epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients, ions and water   simple cuboidal  
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non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found lining all of the following except: oral cavity pharynx vagina esophagus small intestine   small intestine  
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formed by intramembranous ossification   flat bone of skull  
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contains concrete lamellae   osteon  
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formed from trabeculae   spongy bone  
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end of a long bone   epiphysis  
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organic components of bone matrix   osteoid  
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____ hormone stimulates osteoclasts to become active.   parathyroid  
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lines medullary cavity   endosteum  
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responsible for bone resorption   osteoclasts  
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increases calcium absorption in intestine   vitamin d  
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Primary, inorganic, calcium phosphate mineral component of bone.   hydroxyapatite  
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pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium would be found lining portions of the ____ system   respiratory  
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type of epithelium most suited for high levels of diffusion and filtration a) simple squamous b) stratified squamous c) pseudostratified   a) simple squamous  
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endocrine glands lack ____ and secrete their products into the bloodstream or ____ fluid   ducts, interstitial  
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exocrine gland has 2 parts: a duct and a ____ portion   secretory  
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in connective tissue, the extracellular matrix consists of protein fiber and ____ ____   ground substance  
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connective tissue proper is divided into 2 broad categories: loose and dense connective tissue - based upon the relative proportion of cells, ____ and ____ ____   fibers, ground substance  
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most common and weakest type of cartilage: a) hyaline b) elastic c) areolar d) reticular   a) hyaline  
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There are 4 types of body membranes - select the exception. serous, synovial, mucous, cartilaginous, cutaneous   cartilaginous  
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The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the ____ layer.   visceral  
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muscle that has elongated, multinucleate cells that are under voluntary control   skeletal  
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the immature cells that produce osteoid are called   osteoblasts  
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Hyaline cartilage is found in all the following structures EXCEPT A) trachea B) larynx C) pubic symphysis D) fetal skelaton   C) pubic symphysis  
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A small space within compact bone housing an osteocyte is termed a _____.   lacuna  
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Endochondral ossification begins with a _____ ____ model of bone.   hyaline cartilage  
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Production of a new bone increases rapidly as a result of increased ______ hormone production during ________.   sex, puberty  
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An epiphyseal line appears when the ____ growth ____ has ended.   epiphyseal plate  
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The condition of inadequate ossification that may accompany aging and is a result of of reduced calcification is called   osteopenia  
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A frature of the distal end of the radius that produces a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity is called a _____ fracture.   colles  
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A femur is an example of a _____ bone.   long  
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A large, rough projection of a bone is termed a ____.   tuberosity  
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muscle that is found in blood vessel walls: a) cardiac b) smooth c) skeletal   b) smooth  
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True or false: axons transmit signals away from the cell body   true  
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general name given to phenomenon that occurs when mature epithelium changes to a different form   metaplasia  
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with age, connective tissues: a) become thinner b) lose their blood supply c) lose their pliability and resiliency   c) lose their pliability and resiliency  
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2 types of cells that make up the nervous system: neurons and ____ cells   glial  
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location of the supraorbital foramen   frontal bone  
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location of the foramen magnum   occipital bone  
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Which bone houses the petrous part?   temporal bone  
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location of the sella turcica   sphenoid bone  
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location of the cribriform plate   ethmoid bone  
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location of the mental protuberance   mandible  
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location of the transverse foramina   frontal bone  
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location of the costal demifacets   thoracic vertebrae  
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location of the xiphoid process   sternum  
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upper jaw is called the ____   maxillae  
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Name the bones that form the hard palate. ____ bones and ____   palatine, maxillae  
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The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the perpendicular plate of the ______ bone and the ____.   ethmoid, vomer  
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The mandible articulates with the ____ bone.   temporal  
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Some muscles that control the tongue and larynx are attached to the ____ ____.   hyoid bone  
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The frontal and perietal bones articulate at the _______ suture.   coronal  
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The compression of an infant's skull bones at birth is facilitated by space between unfused cranial bones called:   fontanelles  
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All of the following are openings in the sphenoid EXCEPT the A) foramen rotundum B) hypoglossal canal C) foramen spinosum D) optic canal   B) hypoglossal canal  
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Each temporal bone articulates with the (5)   occipital, zygomatic, sphenoid, parietal bones and mandible  
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The _____ vertebrae have a long spinous process that is angled inferiorly.   thoracic  
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The clavicles articulate with the _____ of the sternum.   manubrium  
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lateral malleolus   fibula  
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supraspinous fossa   scapula  
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talus   tarsal bone  
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The part of the humerous that articulates with the ulna is termed   capitulum  
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radial notch   ulna  
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acetabulum   os coxae  
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lesser trochanter   femur  
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medial malleolus   tibia  
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sternal end   clavicle  
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lunate   carpal bone  
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The female pelvis typically has a ______ subpubic angle greater than _______ degrees.   wide, 100  
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The posterior surface depression at the distal end of the humerous is the ____ ____.   olecranon fossa  
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The spine of the scapula separates which two fossa?   infraspinous, supraspinous  
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The femur articulates with the tibia at the femur's medial and lateral _______.   condyles  
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The bony feature palpated on the dorsolateral side of the wrist is the ____ ____ of the ____.   styloid process, radius  
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Identify the bone that articulates with the os coxae at the acetabulum.   femur  
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Which of the following is a carpal bone? A. cuneiform b. cuboid c. trapezium d. talus   c. trapezium  
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When sitting upright, you are resting on your ____ ____.   ischial tuberosities  
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The two prominent bumps you can palpate on the sides of your ankle are the medical and lateral ____.   malleolus  
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The glenoid cavity articulates with which bone feature?   head of the humerous  
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thin strand of pia mater, helps anchor spinal cord to coccyx   filum terminale  
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5 parts of spinal cord from superior to inferior   cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal  
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space associated with spinal cord meninges that contains cerebrospinal fluid   subarachnoid space  
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communication route between right and left sides of gray matter in spinal cord, contains unmyelinated axons   gray commissure  
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nuclei in lateral horns, innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands   autonomic motor nuclei  
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posterior ramis of a typical spinal nerve innervate the deep muscles and skin of the ____.   back  
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plexuses that lie on either side of the neck are   cervical  
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plexus that supplies the upper limbs   brachial  
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arm injury - cannot extend forearm, wrist and digits - suspected damage of which nerve?   radial  
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arrange the following order of events during a reflex: a) impulse travels through sensory neuron to CNS b) stimulus activates receptor c) interneurons process information d) motor neuron transmits impulse to effector e) effector responds   b, a, c, d, e  
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adult spinal cord ends at ____ vertebrae   L1  
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tapering inferior end of spinal cord, marks the "end" of spinal cord proper: ____ ____   conus medullaris  
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group of axons inferior to conus medullaris is: ____ ____   cauda equina  
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thin strand of pia mater that helps anchor the conus medullaris to the coccyx: ____ ____   filum terminale  
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narrow groove on posterior side of external spinal cord: ___ median ___   posterior, sulcus  
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wider groove on anterior external surface of spinal cord: ___ median ___   anterior, fissure  
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enlargement that contains neurons that innervate the upper limbs   cervical  
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enlargement that contains neurons that innervate the lower limbs   lumbosacral  
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the spinal cord has _____ pairs of nerves   31  
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spinal nerves are considered mixed nerves because they contain both ____ and ____ axons   motor and sensory  
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The spinal cord contains how many cervical nerves?   8 cervical nerves  
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The spinal cord contains how many thoracic nerves?   12 thoracic nerves  
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The spinal cord contains how many lumbar nerves?   5 lumbar nerves  
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The spinal cord contains how many sacral nerves?   5 sacral nerves  
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The spinal cord contains how many coccygeal nerves?   1 coccygeal nerve  
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spinal cord is protected by spinal cord ____   meninges  
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structures that encircle the spinal cord from outermost to innermost: vertebra, ____ space, ____ mater, subdural space, ____ mater, ____ space, ____ mater.   epidural, dura, arachnoid, subarachnoid, pia  
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epidural space lies between dura mater and ____   periosteum  
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epidural space houses areolar connective tissue, ____ ____ ____, and blood vessels.   adipose connective tissue  
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most external of meninges, deep to epidural space   dura mater  
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a potential space that separates dura mater from arachnoid mater   subdural space  
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real space, deep to arachnoid space, contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)   subarachnoid space  
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innermost layer, composed of collagen and elastic fibers: ___ mater   pia  
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paired, lateral triangular extensions of pia mater that attach to dura mater: ____ ligaments   denticulate  
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What is the purpose of denticulate ligaments?   help suspend and anchor spinal cord laterally to dura mater  
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gray matter of spinal cord contains dendrites and cell bodies of neurons and glial cells and ____ axons, whereas white matter is composed primarily of ____ axons.   unmyelinated, myelinated  
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grey matter may be subdivided in to four components: anterior horns, ____ horns, posterior horns and ____ commissure.   lateral, gray  
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anterior horns house cell bodies of ____ ____ neurons which innervate skeletal muscle   somatic motor  
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____ horns contain the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons, which innervate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and ____.   Lateral, glands  
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The left and right posterior masses of grey matter, the posterior horns, house ____ of sensory neurons and cell bodies of ____.   axons, interneurons  
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The central canal is surrounded by grey ____.   commissure  
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The purpose of grey commissure is to communicate between right and left sides of ____ matter. a) grey b) white   a) grey  
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functional groups of neuron cell bodies within grey matter   nuclei  
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What type of nuclei in posterior horns contain interneuron cell bodies? a) motor nuclei b) sensory nuclei   b) sensory nuclei  
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What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as pain or pressure?   somatic sensory  
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_____ sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as stretch in smooth muscle walls.   visceral  
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____ nuclei in the anterior and lateral horns send nerve impulses to muscles and glands.   Motor  
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The ____ motor nuclei in the anterior horns innervate skeletal muscle.   Somatic  
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The ____ motor nuclei in the lateral horns innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. a) somatic b) autonomic   b) autonomic  
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White matter on each side of the spinal cord is partitioned into 3 funiculi: posterior, ___, and ___.   lateral, anterior  
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Axons within funiculus are organized into tracts or ____   fasciculi  
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Each funiculus region contains both motor and ___ axons.   sensory  
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Spinal nerves contain 3 types of successive connective tissue wrappings: ___, perineurium and ___.   endonerurium, epineurium  
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Anterior rootlets merge to form a single anterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory   a) motor  
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Posterior rootlets are derived from a single posterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory   b) sensory  
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Each anterior and posterior root unite to form a ____ nerve.   spinal  
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After leaving the intervertebral foramen, a typical spinal nerve splits into branches called ____.   rami  
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The smaller of the two main branches is called the ____ ramus and innervates the deep muscles and skin of the ____   posterior, back  
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The larger of the two rami is the ____ ramus. a) anterior b) posterior   a) anterior  
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The anterior ramus innervates the ____, upper limbs and ____ ____   trunk, lower limbs  
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Rami communicantes contain axons associated with which nervous system? a) motor b) sensory c) autonomic   c) autonomic  
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Specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve   dermatome  
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All spinal nerves except ____ innervate a segment of skin.   C1  
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Pain from one organ is mistakenly referred to a dermatome. This is called ____ ____ pain.   referred visceral  
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A nerve ____ is a network of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves   plexus  
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There are 4 principal plexuses: cervical, ____, ____, and ____.   brachial, lumbar, sacral  
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Name of nerve that innervates the diaphragm   phrenic nerve  
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The ____ plexus is formed from anterior rami of C1-C4 and innervates the ____, portions of ____ and ____.   cervical, neck, head, shoulders  
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Which plexus innervates most of the lower limb?   sacral  
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Which plexus innervates the anterior and medial thigh and skin of the medial leg? a) sacral b) lumbar   b) lumbar  
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Which plexus innervates the upper limb?   brachial  
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Nerve T12 is called a ____ nerve.   subcostal  
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Spinal nerves originate from ____ and ____ rootlets.   anterior, posterior  
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inflammation of spinal cord   myelitis  
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What term means a reflex response is diminished or absent?   hypoactive  
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5 roots unite to form the superior, middle and inferior trunks in the ____ triangle of the neck.   posterior  
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The ____ nerve innervates most of the anterior forearm muscles, thenar muscles and and lateral two lumbricals. a) median b) radial c) ulnar   a) median  
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Which nerve innervates the anterior arm muscles?   musculocutaneous  
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The ____ nerve innervates the posterior arm muscles.   radial  
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Which nerve innervates some of the anterior forearm muscles and most of the intrinsic hand muscles?   ulnar  
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Which nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles? a) medial b) femoral   b) femoral  
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The ____ nerve innervates the medial thigh. a) obturator b) femoral c) tibial   a) obturator  
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The ____ nerve innervates the hamstrings.   tibial  
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Which nerve innervates the short head of the biceps femorus muscle? ____ ____   common fibular  
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The ____ fibular nerve innervates the anterior leg muscles. a) superficial b) deep   b) deep  
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The ____ ____ nerve innervates the lateral compartment muscles of the leg. a) superficial fibular b) deep fibular   a) superficial fibular  
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____ response occurs the same way every time. a) autonomic b) sensory c) motor   a) autonomic  
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Nerve impulse travels through sensory neuron to the ___. a) PNS b) CNS c) ANS   b) CNS  
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Information from nerve impulse is processed in the integration center by ____.   interneurons  
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____ neuron transmits nerve impulse to effector.   Motor  
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Effector responds to nerve impulse from ____ neuron.   motor  
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A reflex arc is termed ____ when both the receptor and effector organs of the reflex are on the same side of the spinal cord.   ipsilateral  
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A reflex arc is ____ when the sensory impulses from a receptor organ cross over throughout the spinal cord to activate effector organs in the opposite limb.   contralateral  
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The simplest of all reflexes. Sensory axons synapse directly on motor neurons, whose axons project to the effector.   monosynaptic  
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Polysynaptic reflex arc initiated by a painful stimulus.   withdrawal  
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Monosynaptic reflex that monitors and regulates skeletal muscle length.   stretch  
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Polysynaptic reflex that prevents skeletal muscle from tensing excessively. ___ ___ reflex   Golgi tendon  
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Rythmic oscillations between flexion and extension when the muscle reflex is tested.   clonus  
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A hollow ____ canal in the neural tube develops into the central canal of the spinal cord.   neural  
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Horizontal groove, formed by sixth week of development in lateral walls of central canal. ____ ____   sulcus limitans  
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____ plates lie anterior to sulcus limitans.   Basal  
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Basal plates develop into anterior and ____ horns. a) posterior b) lateral   b) lateral  
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____ plates develop into posterior horns by ninth week of development. a) Alar b) Basal   a) Alar  
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The posterior, lateral, and anterior funiculi are in the ____ matter of the spinal cord. a) white b) grey   a) white  
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The components of the cranial and spinal nerves form from ____ crest cells.   neural  
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The main nerve of the sacral plexus is the sciatic nerve, which divides into the ____ and common ____ nerves.   tibial, fibular  
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The main nerves of the lumbar plexus are the ____ nerve and the obturator nerve.   femoral  
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The epidermis keratinized stratified ______ epitheliam.   squamous  
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Place in order from superficial to deep. A) spinosum B) granulosum C) Basale D) Lucidum E) Corneum   E,D,B,A,C  
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Thick skin is _____ limited in distribution than thin, ranges from _____ to _____ mm and has ____ glands.   more, 400-600, sweat  
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skin markings that usually disappear during childhood   capillary hemangiomas  
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Name five components of the dermis   sweat glands, hair follicles, collagen fibers, sensory nerve endings, smooth muscle tissue  
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Location of blood capillaries that supply epidermis   dermal papillae  
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vasoconstriction causes ______ skin   pale  
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where do males accumulate subcutaneous fat   neck, upper arms, abs, lower back, butt  
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Actively growling part of nail   nail matrix  
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Type of hair that forms male beards   terminal  
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part of hair extending beyond skin surface   shaft  
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structure responsible for goosebumps   arrector pili muscle  
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4 components of sweat   sodium, water, metabolites, and waste products  
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The secretion of ceruminous glands forms ______ which is waterproof, traps small insects, lubricates ______ and contains sebum and exfoliated ________.   Cerumen, eardrum, keratinocytes  
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Joint btw sternum and clavical   sternoclavicular joint  
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Joint btw tooth and jaw   gomphosis  
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Sack filled with synovial fluid   bursa  
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palm faces posteriorly   pronation  
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palm faced anteriorly   supination  
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standing on tiptoe is called ______ flexion   plantar  
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What has anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus   intervertabral disc  
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articulation among tibia, fibula and talus - name the joint   talocrural joint  
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Menisci is located in which joint   knee joint  
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ligament of head of femur located in which joint   hip joint  
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Joint with greatest range of mobility   glenohumeral joint  
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foot movement that turns sole laterally   eversion  
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Formed when two bones previously connected in a suture fuse   synotosis  
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which ligament helps to maintain alignment of condyles between femur and tibia, limits anterior movement of tibia on femur   anterior cruciate ligament  
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Muscles that primarily stabilize glenohumeral joint   rotator cuff  
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Movement can occur in two planes in ______ articulation   biaxial  
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Metacarpophalangeal (MP joint) that has oval articulating surfaces and permits movement in two planes   condylar  
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3 Functions of synovial fluid   lubrication, provides nutrients, shock absortion  
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3 movements possible at radialcarpal joint   circumduction, flexion, abduction  
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connective tissue covering fascicle of muscle   perimysium  
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sarcomere region with thin filaments only   I band  
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muscle fiber plasma membrane   sarcolemma  
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the more mobile attachment of a muscle   insertion  
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functional contractile unit of skeletal muscle fiber   sarcomere  
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easily fatigued muscle fiber type   fast fiber  
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muscle that surrounds an opening   circular  
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protein in thick filaments   myosin  
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unit of muscle structure composed of bundles of myofibrils, enclosed within sarcolemma and surrounded by a connective tissue covering called endomysium   muscle fiber  
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During contraction of muscle fiber, do myofibrils lengthen or shorten?   shorten  
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In a ____ muscle, the fibers are widespread over a broad area and joined at a common attachment site   convergent  
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in skeletal muscle fiber, a triad is composed of one ____ ____ and two ____ ____   transverse tubule, terminal cisternae  
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during development, the ____ of a somite gives rise to a skeletal muscle   myotome  
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A synaptic knob is an expanded tip of a/an ____ at a ____ junction.   axon, neuromuscular  
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bundles of dense regular connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to bone   tendon  
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number of satellite cells ____ in skeletal muscle due as a result of aging   decreases  
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function of platysma muscle (TV)   tenses skin of neck  
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3 functions of the buccinator   compresses cheeks, keeps food in mouth, suckling  
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function of lateral rectus   moves eye laterally  
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function of temporalis   elevates and retracts mandible  
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function of levator ani   supports pelvic floor and viscera  
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function of digastric muscle   depresses mandible  
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function of external intercostal   elevates ribs  
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function of styloglossus   elevates and retracts tongue  
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function of zygomaticus major   elevates angles of mouth  
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function of spinalis group   extends vertebral column  
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function of geniohyoid muscle   elevates hyoid bone  
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when the left and right ____ contract, they flex the neck   sternocleidomastoid  
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when this large muscle contracts, the vertical dimensions of the thoracic cavity increase   diaphragm  
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Which of the following is NOT a muscle within the urogenital triangle? A. bulbospongiosus B. coccygeus C. superficial transverse perineal D. ischiocavernosus   B. coccygeus  
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The muscle that does Not cause some lateral movement in the eye? A. inferior rectus B. inferior oblique C. lateral rectus D. superior oblique   A. inferior rectus  
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Which muscle allows you to stick out your tongue?   genioglossus  
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Each of these muscles can laterally flex the vertebral column EXCEPT A. external oblique B. transverse abdominis C. spinalis D. internal oblique   C. spinalis  
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Which muscle is NOT involved in extending the head or neck? A. rectus capitis posterior major B. longissimus capitis C. sternocleidomastiod D. splenius cervicis   C. sternocleidomastiod  
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One function of the transverse abdominis muscle is to ____ the abdominal wall.   compress  
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Which muscle protrudes the lower lip (pout)   mentalis  
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muscle : serratus anterior   protracts scapula  
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Which muscle elevates the scapula?   rhomboid major  
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The teres minor ____ ____ the humerus.   laterally rotates  
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The deltoid is the prime _____ of the humerus.   abductor  
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Which muscle pronates the forearm?   pronator teres  
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What is the connective tissue band in muscle? ____ ____   extensor retinaculum  
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The quadriceps femoris ____ the leg.   extends  
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Muscle that adducts and flexes thigh.   pectineus  
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Muscle that plantar flexes foot.   soleus  
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muscle: tibialis anterior   dorsiflexis foot  
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The dorsal interossei muscles in the hand ____ fingers 2-5.   abduct  
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The contraction of the ____ ____causes medial rotation of the thigh.   gluteus minimus  
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muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg _____ the foot and ____ the toes   dorsiflex, extend  
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The _____ is one of the muscles that flex the forearm.   brachioradialis  
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The quadriceps femoris is composed of what muscles   vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, rectus femoris, vastus intermedius  
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Thumb opposition is caused by contraction of the ____ _____muscle.   opponens pollicis  
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The ______ flexes the knee and causes a slight medial rotation to "unlock" the knee joint.   popliteus  
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Eversion of the foot is caused by the contraction of the _____ _____ muscle   fibularis brevis  
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The _____ muscles originate on the ischial tuberosity and extend the thigh plus flex the leg?   hamstring  
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The ____ causes plantar flexion of the foot   gastrocnemius  
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latissimus dorsi forms part of the _____ _____ fold   posterior axillary  
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venipuncture performed here _____ _____   cubital fossa  
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fleshy part of external ear   auricle  
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its spine may be palpated on the back   scapula  
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common place for an intramuscular injection   deltoid  
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lumbar puncture performed here   L(4) spinous process  
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costal cartilage of second ribs attach here _____ _____   sternal angle  
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vertical depression inferior to nose and superior to lips   philtrum  
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_____ _____ can be palpated in the nuchal region of the neck   Cervical vertebrae  
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The _____ _____ muscle forms the anterior axillary fold   pectoralis major  
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The _____ nerve is pinched when you hit your funny bone   ulnar  
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What surface anatomy can not be easily palpated on obese people? _____ _____   iliac crests  
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The ____ ____ is the inferior edge of the rib cage.   costal margin  
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eyebrows are located on the _____ _____   superciliary arches  
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artery that can be palpated between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and the brachioradialis   radial  
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the great and small saphenous veins are located in the   leg  
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the triangle of auscultation is formed by all of the following muscles EXCEPT A. trapezius B. rhomboid minor C. latissimus dorsi D. rhomboid major   B. rhomboid minor  
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transmits motor information   motor nervous system  
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_______ muscle fiber is an effector   skeletal  
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maintains myelin sheaths in CNS ____   oligodendrocyte  
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____ substance stains darkly with basic dyes   chromatophilic  
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side branches of axons   collaterals  
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microglial cells respond to CNS ______   infection  
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describe multipolar neurons   neurons with multiple dendrites  
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function of interneuron   communication between sensory and motor neurons  
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chemical synapse uses a ______   neurotransmitter  
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neuron part that usually receives incoming impulses   dendrite  
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cell body of a mature neuron does not contain a _____   centriole  
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neurons that have only two processes attached to the cell body are called   bipolar  
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neurons are located only within the CNS are   interneurons  
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a structure or cell that collects sensory information is a   receptor  
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glial cells that help produce CSF in the CNS are _____ cells.   ependymal  
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type of cell that transmits, transfers, and processes a nerve impulse   neuron  
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The type of neuronal pool that utilizes nerve impulse feedback to repeatedly stimulate is the _____ circuit.   reverberating  
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At an electrical synapse, presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes interface through _____ _____.   gap junctions  
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thick, dense irregular connective tissue layer enclosing the nerve   epineurium  
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The _____ has nuclei for CN III and CN IV.   mesencephalon  
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Part of brain that houses autonomic centers for heart rate and respiration _____ _____.   medulla oblongata  
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dura mater fold between cerebral hemispheres _____ _____   falx cerebri  
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The ____ nerve innervates most of the thoracic and abdominal organs.   vagus  
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The ____ lobe contains motor speech area.   frontal  
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The ____ lobe contains the primary auditory cortex.   temporal  
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The ____ nerve innervates the lateral rectus.   abducens  
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responsible for involuntary arm swinging _____ _____   cerebral nuclei  
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visual reflex centers _____ _____   superior colliculi  
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sensory information relay center   thalamus  
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Which cranial nerve has three divisions (ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular)   trigeminal (CN V)  
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The subdivision of the brain that does not initiate somatic motor movements, but rather coordinates and fine-tunes those movements   cerebellum  
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The visual reflex center is housed within the _____ _____.   superior colliculus  
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A. controls endocrine system B. regulates sleep-wake cycles C. initiates voluntary skeletal muscle movement   C. initiates voluntary skeletal muscle movement  
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The _____ _____ is located within the ventricles of the brain and is composed of ependymal cells and capillaries.   choroid plexus  
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The _____ _____ are descending motor tracts on the anterolateral surface of the mesencephalon.   cerebral peduncles  
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Which central lobe is located immediately posterior to the central sulcus and superior to the lateral sulcus? _____ _____   parietal lobe  
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The primary motor cortex is located in which cerebral structure? _____ _____   precentral gyrus  
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The _____ _____ are the isolated, innermost gray matter areas near the base of cerebrum, inferior to the lateral ventricles.   cerebral nuclei  
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Which structure in the brain contains some autonomic centers involved in regulating respiration?   pons  
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hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla   norepinephrine  
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network of pre and postganglionic axons _____ _____   autonomic plexus  
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second ANS neuron   ganglionic neuron  
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controls entire ANS function   hypothalamus  
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fight-or-flight division _____ _____   sympathetic division  
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contains sympathetic postganglionic axons only _____ _____   gray ramus  
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preganglionic axons to prevertebral axons   splanchnic nerve  
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Sympathetic trunk _____ are lateral to the spinal cord   ganglia  
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craniosacral division of nerves "rest and digest" _____ _____   parasympathetic division  
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neurotransmitter for all preganglionic axons   acetylcholine  
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The principle bone salt that provides compressional strength to bone.   hydroxyapatite  
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gray matter of spinal cord contains dendrites and cell bodies of neurons and glial cells and ____ axons, whereas white matter is composed primarily of ____ axons.   unmyelinated, myelinated  
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grey matter may be subdivided in to four components: anterior horns, ____ horns, posterior horns and ____ commissure.   lateral, gray  
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anterior horns house cell bodies of ____ ____ neurons which innervate skeletal muscle   somatic motor  
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____ horns contain the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons, which innervate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and ____.   Lateral, glands  
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The left and right posterior masses of grey matter, the posterior horns, house ____ of sensory neurons and cell bodies of ____.   axons, interneurons  
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The central canal is surrounded by grey ____.   commissure  
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The purpose of grey commissure is to communicate between right and left sides of ____ matter. a) grey b) white   a) grey  
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functional groups of neuron cell bodies within grey matter   nuclei  
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What type of nuclei in posterior horns contain interneuron cell bodies? a) motor nuclei b) sensory nuclei   b) sensory nuclei  
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What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as pain or pressure?   somatic sensory  
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What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as stretch in smooth muscle walls?   visceral sensory  
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____ nuclei in the anterior and lateral horns send nerve impulses to muscles and glands.   Motor  
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The ____ motor nuclei in the anterior horns innervate skeletal muscle.   Somatic  
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The ____ motor nuclei in the lateral horns innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. a) somatic b) autonomic   b) autonomic  
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White matter on each side of the spinal cord is partitioned into 3 funiculi: posterior, ___, and ___.   lateral, anterior  
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Axons within funiculus are organized into tracts or ____   fasciculi  
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Each funiculus region contains both motor and ___ axons.   sensory  
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Spinal nerves contain 3 types of successive connective tissue wrappings: ___, perineurium and ___.   endonerurium, epineurium  
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Anterior rootlets merge to form a single anterior rootlet and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory   a) motor  
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Posterior rootlets are derived from a single posterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory   b) sensory  
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Each anterior and posterior root unite to form a ____ nerve.   spinal  
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After leaving the intervertebral foramen, a typical spinal nerve splits into branches called ____.   rami  
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The smaller of the two main branches is called the ____ ramus and innervates the deep muscles and skin of the ____   posterior, back  
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The larger of the two rami is the ____ ramus. a) anterior b) posterior   a) anterior  
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The anterior ramus innervates the ____, upper limbs and ____ ____   trunk, lower limbs  
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Rami communicantes contain axons associated with which nervous system? a) motor b) sensory c) autonomic   c) autonomic  
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Specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve   dermatome  
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All spinal nerves except ____ innervate a segment of skin.   C1  
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Pain from one organ is mistakenly referred to a dermatome. This is called ____ ____ pain.   referred visceral  
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A nerve ____ is a network of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves   plexus  
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There are 4 principal plexuses: cervical, ____, ____, and ____.   brachial, lumbar, sacral  
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Name of nerve that innervates the diaphragm   phrenic nerve  
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The ____ plexus is formed from anterior rami of C1-C4 and innervates the ____, portions of ____ and ____.   cervical, neck, head, shoulders  
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Which plexus innervates most of the lower limb?   sacral  
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Which plexus innervates the anterior and medial thigh and skin of the medial leg? a) sacral b) lumbar   b) lumbar  
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Which plexus innervates the upper limb?   brachial  
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Nerve T12 is called a ____ nerve.   subcostal  
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Spinal nerves originate from ____ and ____ rootlets.   anterior, posterior  
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inflammation of spinal cord   myelitis  
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What term means a reflex response is diminished or absent?   hypoactive  
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5 roots unite to form the superior, middle and inferior trunks in the ____ triangle of the neck.   posterior  
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The ____ nerve innervates most of the anterior forearm muscles, thenar muscles and and lateral two lumbricals. a) median b) radial c) ulnar   a) median  
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Which nerve innervates the anterior arm muscles?   musculocutaneous  
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The ____ nerve innervates the posterior arm muscles.   radial  
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Which nerve innervates some of the anterior forearm muscles and most of the intrinsic hand muscles?   ulnar  
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Which nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles? a) medial b) femoral   b) femoral  
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The ____ nerve innervates the medial thigh. a) obturator b) femoral c) tibial   a) obturator  
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The longest and largest nerve in the body.   sciatic nerve  
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The ____ nerve innervates the hamstrings.   tibial  
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Which nerve innervates the short head of the biceps femorus muscle? ____ ____   common fibular  
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The ____ fibular nerve innervates the anterior leg muscles. a) superficial b) deep   b) deep  
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The ____ ____ nerve innervates the lateral compartment muscles of the leg. a) superficial fibular b) deep fibular   a) superficial fibular  
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____ response occurs the same way every time. a) autonomic b) sensory c) motor a) autonomic    
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Stimulus activates ____.   receptor  
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