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API Final

Chapters 1-18

QuestionAnswer
mediastinum is the central compartment of the ______ cavity thoracic
systemic anatomy is the study of organs of one system
the forearm is in what region of the body antebrachial
The ____ level of organization is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform a common function. organ
The ____ cavity is located inferior to the diaphragm and superior to a horizontal line drawn between the superior edges of the hip bones? abdominal
Which medical imaging technique uses modified x-rays to prepare 3-D cross-sectional "slices" of the body? computed tomography (CT)
The subdiscipline of anatomy that examines structures not readily seen by the unaided eye is _____ anatomy. microscopic
responsible for synthesizing proteins in the cell ribosomes
organelles housing digestive enzymes lysosomes
_____ proteins are not embedded in the phospholipid bilayer. Peripheral
organelle that sorts and packages molecules _____ _____ Golgi apparatus
process of bulk export from the cell exocytosis
internal protein framework in cytoplasm cytoskeleton
diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane osmosis
The phase in mitosis when DNA replication occurs is the _____ phase? S
endocytosis of small amounts of fluid pinocytosis
The nucleus is the control center and stores _____ _____. genetic information
When a cell begins to divide, its chromatin forms _____. chromosomes
Integral membrane proteins extend across the ____ layer. phospholipid
Which expends ATP; active transport or facilitated diffusion? active transport
Two plasma membrane structures that serve in cell recognition and act as a "personal ID card" for the cell glycolipids and glycoproteins
______ increases the outer surface area of the plasma membrane to increase absorption. microvilli
Major functions of the Golgi apparatus are _____, _______, _______ of new molecules. packaging, sorting and modification
Interphase of the cell cycle consists of the following parts: ______, ______, and G(2). G(1), S
organelle that provides most of the ATP needed by the cell mitochondrion
Which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids begin to move apart from each other at the middle of the cell? anaphase (apart)
_____ muscle has no striations. smooth
salivary glands are which type of secretion merocrine
ground substance is part of the _____ _____ extracellular matrix
What tissue type lines the small intestine lumen? _____ _____ epithelium simple columnar
A goblet cell is an example of a/an _______ _______ gland. unicellular exocrine
parallel arrangement of protein fibers is termed dense regular connective tissue
lines blood vessel lumen endothelium
____ muscle contains intercalated discs. cardiac
A scattered arrangement of protein fibers is termed? dense irregular connective tissue
a characteristic of ALL epithelia avascular
____ ____ tissue contains calcified ground substance and is specialized for structured support. Bone connective
predominant cell type in areolar connective tissue fibroblast
preventing desiccation and providing surface lubrication within a body cavity are the functions of ______ membranes mucous
simple epithelium is adapted for _____ and ______ diffusion and filtration
Epithelium is selectively _______, is designed for______ ________ and the cells can produce ________ products. permeable, physical protection, secretory
connective tissue type composed of cells called chondrocytes, may be surrounded by a covering called perichondrium cartilage
______ tissue is less able to maintain and repair itself and epithelium becomes ______. aging, thinner
Which tissue type lines the trachea? ____ ____ ____ epithelium pseudostratified ciliated columnar
____ muscle consists of long, cylindrical, striated cells with multi-nulcei located at the periphery of the cell. Skeletal
gland that releases its secretion by exocytosis into secretory vesicles merocrine
composed of epidermis and dermis integument
What are formed from stratum corneum? fingernails
fibrous protein in epidermis keratin
pigment-forming cells melanocytes
most numerous epidermal cell keratinocytes
a phagocytic cell (active in immune response) epidermal dendritic cell
a layer of dense irregular connective tissue in dermis reticular layer
What smooth muscle is attached to hair follicles? arrector pili
"strawberry colored birthmarks" AKA capillary hemangiomas
layer of the epidermis in which cells begin the process of keratinization stratum granulosum
____ glands communicate with skin surfaces only in the axillary, areolar, pubic and anal regions. apocrine
Name 7 functions of the integumentary system. protection, prevention of water loss, temp regulation, metabolic regulation, immune defense, sensory reception, excretion
layer of the dermis that contains areolar connective tissue and dermal papillae papillary layer
Melanin is a pigment that accumulates inside ____? keratinocytes
the layer of squamous epithelium that forms by the seventh week of development to give rise to the integument is the _____. periderm
cells in the hair follicle that are responsible for forming hair matrix
water loss due to evaporation of interstitial fluid through the surface of the skin is termed insensible perspiration
specialized feature of an epithelium that consists of a reticular lamina and a basal lamina basement membrane
type of cell that forms walls of kidney tubules, formed by epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients, ions and water simple cuboidal
non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found lining all of the following except: oral cavity pharynx vagina esophagus small intestine small intestine
formed by intramembranous ossification flat bone of skull
contains concrete lamellae osteon
formed from trabeculae spongy bone
end of a long bone epiphysis
organic components of bone matrix osteoid
____ hormone stimulates osteoclasts to become active. parathyroid
lines medullary cavity endosteum
responsible for bone resorption osteoclasts
increases calcium absorption in intestine vitamin d
Primary, inorganic, calcium phosphate mineral component of bone. hydroxyapatite
pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium would be found lining portions of the ____ system respiratory
type of epithelium most suited for high levels of diffusion and filtration a) simple squamous b) stratified squamous c) pseudostratified a) simple squamous
endocrine glands lack ____ and secrete their products into the bloodstream or ____ fluid ducts, interstitial
exocrine gland has 2 parts: a duct and a ____ portion secretory
in connective tissue, the extracellular matrix consists of protein fiber and ____ ____ ground substance
connective tissue proper is divided into 2 broad categories: loose and dense connective tissue - based upon the relative proportion of cells, ____ and ____ ____ fibers, ground substance
most common and weakest type of cartilage: a) hyaline b) elastic c) areolar d) reticular a) hyaline
There are 4 types of body membranes - select the exception. serous, synovial, mucous, cartilaginous, cutaneous cartilaginous
The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the ____ layer. visceral
muscle that has elongated, multinucleate cells that are under voluntary control skeletal
the immature cells that produce osteoid are called osteoblasts
Hyaline cartilage is found in all the following structures EXCEPT A) trachea B) larynx C) pubic symphysis D) fetal skelaton C) pubic symphysis
A small space within compact bone housing an osteocyte is termed a _____. lacuna
Endochondral ossification begins with a _____ ____ model of bone. hyaline cartilage
Production of a new bone increases rapidly as a result of increased ______ hormone production during ________. sex, puberty
An epiphyseal line appears when the ____ growth ____ has ended. epiphyseal plate
The condition of inadequate ossification that may accompany aging and is a result of of reduced calcification is called osteopenia
A frature of the distal end of the radius that produces a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity is called a _____ fracture. colles
A femur is an example of a _____ bone. long
A large, rough projection of a bone is termed a ____. tuberosity
muscle that is found in blood vessel walls: a) cardiac b) smooth c) skeletal b) smooth
True or false: axons transmit signals away from the cell body true
general name given to phenomenon that occurs when mature epithelium changes to a different form metaplasia
with age, connective tissues: a) become thinner b) lose their blood supply c) lose their pliability and resiliency c) lose their pliability and resiliency
2 types of cells that make up the nervous system: neurons and ____ cells glial
location of the supraorbital foramen frontal bone
location of the foramen magnum occipital bone
Which bone houses the petrous part? temporal bone
location of the sella turcica sphenoid bone
location of the cribriform plate ethmoid bone
location of the mental protuberance mandible
location of the transverse foramina frontal bone
location of the costal demifacets thoracic vertebrae
location of the xiphoid process sternum
upper jaw is called the ____ maxillae
Name the bones that form the hard palate. ____ bones and ____ palatine, maxillae
The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the perpendicular plate of the ______ bone and the ____. ethmoid, vomer
The mandible articulates with the ____ bone. temporal
Some muscles that control the tongue and larynx are attached to the ____ ____. hyoid bone
The frontal and perietal bones articulate at the _______ suture. coronal
The compression of an infant's skull bones at birth is facilitated by space between unfused cranial bones called: fontanelles
All of the following are openings in the sphenoid EXCEPT the A) foramen rotundum B) hypoglossal canal C) foramen spinosum D) optic canal B) hypoglossal canal
Each temporal bone articulates with the (5) occipital, zygomatic, sphenoid, parietal bones and mandible
The _____ vertebrae have a long spinous process that is angled inferiorly. thoracic
The clavicles articulate with the _____ of the sternum. manubrium
lateral malleolus fibula
supraspinous fossa scapula
talus tarsal bone
The part of the humerous that articulates with the ulna is termed capitulum
radial notch ulna
acetabulum os coxae
lesser trochanter femur
medial malleolus tibia
sternal end clavicle
lunate carpal bone
The female pelvis typically has a ______ subpubic angle greater than _______ degrees. wide, 100
The posterior surface depression at the distal end of the humerous is the ____ ____. olecranon fossa
The spine of the scapula separates which two fossa? infraspinous, supraspinous
The femur articulates with the tibia at the femur's medial and lateral _______. condyles
The bony feature palpated on the dorsolateral side of the wrist is the ____ ____ of the ____. styloid process, radius
Identify the bone that articulates with the os coxae at the acetabulum. femur
Which of the following is a carpal bone? A. cuneiform b. cuboid c. trapezium d. talus c. trapezium
When sitting upright, you are resting on your ____ ____. ischial tuberosities
The two prominent bumps you can palpate on the sides of your ankle are the medical and lateral ____. malleolus
The glenoid cavity articulates with which bone feature? head of the humerous
thin strand of pia mater, helps anchor spinal cord to coccyx filum terminale
5 parts of spinal cord from superior to inferior cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
space associated with spinal cord meninges that contains cerebrospinal fluid subarachnoid space
communication route between right and left sides of gray matter in spinal cord, contains unmyelinated axons gray commissure
nuclei in lateral horns, innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands autonomic motor nuclei
posterior ramis of a typical spinal nerve innervate the deep muscles and skin of the ____. back
plexuses that lie on either side of the neck are cervical
plexus that supplies the upper limbs brachial
arm injury - cannot extend forearm, wrist and digits - suspected damage of which nerve? radial
arrange the following order of events during a reflex: a) impulse travels through sensory neuron to CNS b) stimulus activates receptor c) interneurons process information d) motor neuron transmits impulse to effector e) effector responds b, a, c, d, e
adult spinal cord ends at ____ vertebrae L1
tapering inferior end of spinal cord, marks the "end" of spinal cord proper: ____ ____ conus medullaris
group of axons inferior to conus medullaris is: ____ ____ cauda equina
thin strand of pia mater that helps anchor the conus medullaris to the coccyx: ____ ____ filum terminale
narrow groove on posterior side of external spinal cord: ___ median ___ posterior, sulcus
wider groove on anterior external surface of spinal cord: ___ median ___ anterior, fissure
enlargement that contains neurons that innervate the upper limbs cervical
enlargement that contains neurons that innervate the lower limbs lumbosacral
the spinal cord has _____ pairs of nerves 31
spinal nerves are considered mixed nerves because they contain both ____ and ____ axons motor and sensory
The spinal cord contains how many cervical nerves? 8 cervical nerves
The spinal cord contains how many thoracic nerves? 12 thoracic nerves
The spinal cord contains how many lumbar nerves? 5 lumbar nerves
The spinal cord contains how many sacral nerves? 5 sacral nerves
The spinal cord contains how many coccygeal nerves? 1 coccygeal nerve
spinal cord is protected by spinal cord ____ meninges
structures that encircle the spinal cord from outermost to innermost: vertebra, ____ space, ____ mater, subdural space, ____ mater, ____ space, ____ mater. epidural, dura, arachnoid, subarachnoid, pia
epidural space lies between dura mater and ____ periosteum
epidural space houses areolar connective tissue, ____ ____ ____, and blood vessels. adipose connective tissue
most external of meninges, deep to epidural space dura mater
a potential space that separates dura mater from arachnoid mater subdural space
real space, deep to arachnoid space, contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) subarachnoid space
innermost layer, composed of collagen and elastic fibers: ___ mater pia
paired, lateral triangular extensions of pia mater that attach to dura mater: ____ ligaments denticulate
What is the purpose of denticulate ligaments? help suspend and anchor spinal cord laterally to dura mater
gray matter of spinal cord contains dendrites and cell bodies of neurons and glial cells and ____ axons, whereas white matter is composed primarily of ____ axons. unmyelinated, myelinated
grey matter may be subdivided in to four components: anterior horns, ____ horns, posterior horns and ____ commissure. lateral, gray
anterior horns house cell bodies of ____ ____ neurons which innervate skeletal muscle somatic motor
____ horns contain the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons, which innervate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and ____. Lateral, glands
The left and right posterior masses of grey matter, the posterior horns, house ____ of sensory neurons and cell bodies of ____. axons, interneurons
The central canal is surrounded by grey ____. commissure
The purpose of grey commissure is to communicate between right and left sides of ____ matter. a) grey b) white a) grey
functional groups of neuron cell bodies within grey matter nuclei
What type of nuclei in posterior horns contain interneuron cell bodies? a) motor nuclei b) sensory nuclei b) sensory nuclei
What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as pain or pressure? somatic sensory
_____ sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as stretch in smooth muscle walls. visceral
____ nuclei in the anterior and lateral horns send nerve impulses to muscles and glands. Motor
The ____ motor nuclei in the anterior horns innervate skeletal muscle. Somatic
The ____ motor nuclei in the lateral horns innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. a) somatic b) autonomic b) autonomic
White matter on each side of the spinal cord is partitioned into 3 funiculi: posterior, ___, and ___. lateral, anterior
Axons within funiculus are organized into tracts or ____ fasciculi
Each funiculus region contains both motor and ___ axons. sensory
Spinal nerves contain 3 types of successive connective tissue wrappings: ___, perineurium and ___. endonerurium, epineurium
Anterior rootlets merge to form a single anterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory a) motor
Posterior rootlets are derived from a single posterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory b) sensory
Each anterior and posterior root unite to form a ____ nerve. spinal
After leaving the intervertebral foramen, a typical spinal nerve splits into branches called ____. rami
The smaller of the two main branches is called the ____ ramus and innervates the deep muscles and skin of the ____ posterior, back
The larger of the two rami is the ____ ramus. a) anterior b) posterior a) anterior
The anterior ramus innervates the ____, upper limbs and ____ ____ trunk, lower limbs
Rami communicantes contain axons associated with which nervous system? a) motor b) sensory c) autonomic c) autonomic
Specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve dermatome
All spinal nerves except ____ innervate a segment of skin. C1
Pain from one organ is mistakenly referred to a dermatome. This is called ____ ____ pain. referred visceral
A nerve ____ is a network of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves plexus
There are 4 principal plexuses: cervical, ____, ____, and ____. brachial, lumbar, sacral
Name of nerve that innervates the diaphragm phrenic nerve
The ____ plexus is formed from anterior rami of C1-C4 and innervates the ____, portions of ____ and ____. cervical, neck, head, shoulders
Which plexus innervates most of the lower limb? sacral
Which plexus innervates the anterior and medial thigh and skin of the medial leg? a) sacral b) lumbar b) lumbar
Which plexus innervates the upper limb? brachial
Nerve T12 is called a ____ nerve. subcostal
Spinal nerves originate from ____ and ____ rootlets. anterior, posterior
inflammation of spinal cord myelitis
What term means a reflex response is diminished or absent? hypoactive
5 roots unite to form the superior, middle and inferior trunks in the ____ triangle of the neck. posterior
The ____ nerve innervates most of the anterior forearm muscles, thenar muscles and and lateral two lumbricals. a) median b) radial c) ulnar a) median
Which nerve innervates the anterior arm muscles? musculocutaneous
The ____ nerve innervates the posterior arm muscles. radial
Which nerve innervates some of the anterior forearm muscles and most of the intrinsic hand muscles? ulnar
Which nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles? a) medial b) femoral b) femoral
The ____ nerve innervates the medial thigh. a) obturator b) femoral c) tibial a) obturator
The ____ nerve innervates the hamstrings. tibial
Which nerve innervates the short head of the biceps femorus muscle? ____ ____ common fibular
The ____ fibular nerve innervates the anterior leg muscles. a) superficial b) deep b) deep
The ____ ____ nerve innervates the lateral compartment muscles of the leg. a) superficial fibular b) deep fibular a) superficial fibular
____ response occurs the same way every time. a) autonomic b) sensory c) motor a) autonomic
Nerve impulse travels through sensory neuron to the ___. a) PNS b) CNS c) ANS b) CNS
Information from nerve impulse is processed in the integration center by ____. interneurons
____ neuron transmits nerve impulse to effector. Motor
Effector responds to nerve impulse from ____ neuron. motor
A reflex arc is termed ____ when both the receptor and effector organs of the reflex are on the same side of the spinal cord. ipsilateral
A reflex arc is ____ when the sensory impulses from a receptor organ cross over throughout the spinal cord to activate effector organs in the opposite limb. contralateral
The simplest of all reflexes. Sensory axons synapse directly on motor neurons, whose axons project to the effector. monosynaptic
Polysynaptic reflex arc initiated by a painful stimulus. withdrawal
Monosynaptic reflex that monitors and regulates skeletal muscle length. stretch
Polysynaptic reflex that prevents skeletal muscle from tensing excessively. ___ ___ reflex Golgi tendon
Rythmic oscillations between flexion and extension when the muscle reflex is tested. clonus
A hollow ____ canal in the neural tube develops into the central canal of the spinal cord. neural
Horizontal groove, formed by sixth week of development in lateral walls of central canal. ____ ____ sulcus limitans
____ plates lie anterior to sulcus limitans. Basal
Basal plates develop into anterior and ____ horns. a) posterior b) lateral b) lateral
____ plates develop into posterior horns by ninth week of development. a) Alar b) Basal a) Alar
The posterior, lateral, and anterior funiculi are in the ____ matter of the spinal cord. a) white b) grey a) white
The components of the cranial and spinal nerves form from ____ crest cells. neural
The main nerve of the sacral plexus is the sciatic nerve, which divides into the ____ and common ____ nerves. tibial, fibular
The main nerves of the lumbar plexus are the ____ nerve and the obturator nerve. femoral
The epidermis keratinized stratified ______ epitheliam. squamous
Place in order from superficial to deep. A) spinosum B) granulosum C) Basale D) Lucidum E) Corneum E,D,B,A,C
Thick skin is _____ limited in distribution than thin, ranges from _____ to _____ mm and has ____ glands. more, 400-600, sweat
skin markings that usually disappear during childhood capillary hemangiomas
Name five components of the dermis sweat glands, hair follicles, collagen fibers, sensory nerve endings, smooth muscle tissue
Location of blood capillaries that supply epidermis dermal papillae
vasoconstriction causes ______ skin pale
where do males accumulate subcutaneous fat neck, upper arms, abs, lower back, butt
Actively growling part of nail nail matrix
Type of hair that forms male beards terminal
part of hair extending beyond skin surface shaft
structure responsible for goosebumps arrector pili muscle
4 components of sweat sodium, water, metabolites, and waste products
The secretion of ceruminous glands forms ______ which is waterproof, traps small insects, lubricates ______ and contains sebum and exfoliated ________. Cerumen, eardrum, keratinocytes
Joint btw sternum and clavical sternoclavicular joint
Joint btw tooth and jaw gomphosis
Sack filled with synovial fluid bursa
palm faces posteriorly pronation
palm faced anteriorly supination
standing on tiptoe is called ______ flexion plantar
What has anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus intervertabral disc
articulation among tibia, fibula and talus - name the joint talocrural joint
Menisci is located in which joint knee joint
ligament of head of femur located in which joint hip joint
Joint with greatest range of mobility glenohumeral joint
foot movement that turns sole laterally eversion
Formed when two bones previously connected in a suture fuse synotosis
which ligament helps to maintain alignment of condyles between femur and tibia, limits anterior movement of tibia on femur anterior cruciate ligament
Muscles that primarily stabilize glenohumeral joint rotator cuff
Movement can occur in two planes in ______ articulation biaxial
Metacarpophalangeal (MP joint) that has oval articulating surfaces and permits movement in two planes condylar
3 Functions of synovial fluid lubrication, provides nutrients, shock absortion
3 movements possible at radialcarpal joint circumduction, flexion, abduction
connective tissue covering fascicle of muscle perimysium
sarcomere region with thin filaments only I band
muscle fiber plasma membrane sarcolemma
the more mobile attachment of a muscle insertion
functional contractile unit of skeletal muscle fiber sarcomere
easily fatigued muscle fiber type fast fiber
muscle that surrounds an opening circular
protein in thick filaments myosin
unit of muscle structure composed of bundles of myofibrils, enclosed within sarcolemma and surrounded by a connective tissue covering called endomysium muscle fiber
During contraction of muscle fiber, do myofibrils lengthen or shorten? shorten
In a ____ muscle, the fibers are widespread over a broad area and joined at a common attachment site convergent
in skeletal muscle fiber, a triad is composed of one ____ ____ and two ____ ____ transverse tubule, terminal cisternae
during development, the ____ of a somite gives rise to a skeletal muscle myotome
A synaptic knob is an expanded tip of a/an ____ at a ____ junction. axon, neuromuscular
bundles of dense regular connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to bone tendon
number of satellite cells ____ in skeletal muscle due as a result of aging decreases
function of platysma muscle (TV) tenses skin of neck
3 functions of the buccinator compresses cheeks, keeps food in mouth, suckling
function of lateral rectus moves eye laterally
function of temporalis elevates and retracts mandible
function of levator ani supports pelvic floor and viscera
function of digastric muscle depresses mandible
function of external intercostal elevates ribs
function of styloglossus elevates and retracts tongue
function of zygomaticus major elevates angles of mouth
function of spinalis group extends vertebral column
function of geniohyoid muscle elevates hyoid bone
when the left and right ____ contract, they flex the neck sternocleidomastoid
when this large muscle contracts, the vertical dimensions of the thoracic cavity increase diaphragm
Which of the following is NOT a muscle within the urogenital triangle? A. bulbospongiosus B. coccygeus C. superficial transverse perineal D. ischiocavernosus B. coccygeus
The muscle that does Not cause some lateral movement in the eye? A. inferior rectus B. inferior oblique C. lateral rectus D. superior oblique A. inferior rectus
Which muscle allows you to stick out your tongue? genioglossus
Each of these muscles can laterally flex the vertebral column EXCEPT A. external oblique B. transverse abdominis C. spinalis D. internal oblique C. spinalis
Which muscle is NOT involved in extending the head or neck? A. rectus capitis posterior major B. longissimus capitis C. sternocleidomastiod D. splenius cervicis C. sternocleidomastiod
One function of the transverse abdominis muscle is to ____ the abdominal wall. compress
Which muscle protrudes the lower lip (pout) mentalis
muscle : serratus anterior protracts scapula
Which muscle elevates the scapula? rhomboid major
The teres minor ____ ____ the humerus. laterally rotates
The deltoid is the prime _____ of the humerus. abductor
Which muscle pronates the forearm? pronator teres
What is the connective tissue band in muscle? ____ ____ extensor retinaculum
The quadriceps femoris ____ the leg. extends
Muscle that adducts and flexes thigh. pectineus
Muscle that plantar flexes foot. soleus
muscle: tibialis anterior dorsiflexis foot
The dorsal interossei muscles in the hand ____ fingers 2-5. abduct
The contraction of the ____ ____causes medial rotation of the thigh. gluteus minimus
muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg _____ the foot and ____ the toes dorsiflex, extend
The _____ is one of the muscles that flex the forearm. brachioradialis
The quadriceps femoris is composed of what muscles vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, rectus femoris, vastus intermedius
Thumb opposition is caused by contraction of the ____ _____muscle. opponens pollicis
The ______ flexes the knee and causes a slight medial rotation to "unlock" the knee joint. popliteus
Eversion of the foot is caused by the contraction of the _____ _____ muscle fibularis brevis
The _____ muscles originate on the ischial tuberosity and extend the thigh plus flex the leg? hamstring
The ____ causes plantar flexion of the foot gastrocnemius
latissimus dorsi forms part of the _____ _____ fold posterior axillary
venipuncture performed here _____ _____ cubital fossa
fleshy part of external ear auricle
its spine may be palpated on the back scapula
common place for an intramuscular injection deltoid
lumbar puncture performed here L(4) spinous process
costal cartilage of second ribs attach here _____ _____ sternal angle
vertical depression inferior to nose and superior to lips philtrum
_____ _____ can be palpated in the nuchal region of the neck Cervical vertebrae
The _____ _____ muscle forms the anterior axillary fold pectoralis major
The _____ nerve is pinched when you hit your funny bone ulnar
What surface anatomy can not be easily palpated on obese people? _____ _____ iliac crests
The ____ ____ is the inferior edge of the rib cage. costal margin
eyebrows are located on the _____ _____ superciliary arches
artery that can be palpated between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and the brachioradialis radial
the great and small saphenous veins are located in the leg
the triangle of auscultation is formed by all of the following muscles EXCEPT A. trapezius B. rhomboid minor C. latissimus dorsi D. rhomboid major B. rhomboid minor
transmits motor information motor nervous system
_______ muscle fiber is an effector skeletal
maintains myelin sheaths in CNS ____ oligodendrocyte
____ substance stains darkly with basic dyes chromatophilic
side branches of axons collaterals
microglial cells respond to CNS ______ infection
describe multipolar neurons neurons with multiple dendrites
function of interneuron communication between sensory and motor neurons
chemical synapse uses a ______ neurotransmitter
neuron part that usually receives incoming impulses dendrite
cell body of a mature neuron does not contain a _____ centriole
neurons that have only two processes attached to the cell body are called bipolar
neurons are located only within the CNS are interneurons
a structure or cell that collects sensory information is a receptor
glial cells that help produce CSF in the CNS are _____ cells. ependymal
type of cell that transmits, transfers, and processes a nerve impulse neuron
The type of neuronal pool that utilizes nerve impulse feedback to repeatedly stimulate is the _____ circuit. reverberating
At an electrical synapse, presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes interface through _____ _____. gap junctions
thick, dense irregular connective tissue layer enclosing the nerve epineurium
The _____ has nuclei for CN III and CN IV. mesencephalon
Part of brain that houses autonomic centers for heart rate and respiration _____ _____. medulla oblongata
dura mater fold between cerebral hemispheres _____ _____ falx cerebri
The ____ nerve innervates most of the thoracic and abdominal organs. vagus
The ____ lobe contains motor speech area. frontal
The ____ lobe contains the primary auditory cortex. temporal
The ____ nerve innervates the lateral rectus. abducens
responsible for involuntary arm swinging _____ _____ cerebral nuclei
visual reflex centers _____ _____ superior colliculi
sensory information relay center thalamus
Which cranial nerve has three divisions (ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular) trigeminal (CN V)
The subdivision of the brain that does not initiate somatic motor movements, but rather coordinates and fine-tunes those movements cerebellum
The visual reflex center is housed within the _____ _____. superior colliculus
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A. controls endocrine system B. regulates sleep-wake cycles C. initiates voluntary skeletal muscle movement C. initiates voluntary skeletal muscle movement
The _____ _____ is located within the ventricles of the brain and is composed of ependymal cells and capillaries. choroid plexus
The _____ _____ are descending motor tracts on the anterolateral surface of the mesencephalon. cerebral peduncles
Which central lobe is located immediately posterior to the central sulcus and superior to the lateral sulcus? _____ _____ parietal lobe
The primary motor cortex is located in which cerebral structure? _____ _____ precentral gyrus
The _____ _____ are the isolated, innermost gray matter areas near the base of cerebrum, inferior to the lateral ventricles. cerebral nuclei
Which structure in the brain contains some autonomic centers involved in regulating respiration? pons
hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla norepinephrine
network of pre and postganglionic axons _____ _____ autonomic plexus
second ANS neuron ganglionic neuron
controls entire ANS function hypothalamus
fight-or-flight division _____ _____ sympathetic division
contains sympathetic postganglionic axons only _____ _____ gray ramus
preganglionic axons to prevertebral axons splanchnic nerve
Sympathetic trunk _____ are lateral to the spinal cord ganglia
craniosacral division of nerves "rest and digest" _____ _____ parasympathetic division
neurotransmitter for all preganglionic axons acetylcholine
The principle bone salt that provides compressional strength to bone. hydroxyapatite
gray matter of spinal cord contains dendrites and cell bodies of neurons and glial cells and ____ axons, whereas white matter is composed primarily of ____ axons. unmyelinated, myelinated
grey matter may be subdivided in to four components: anterior horns, ____ horns, posterior horns and ____ commissure. lateral, gray
anterior horns house cell bodies of ____ ____ neurons which innervate skeletal muscle somatic motor
____ horns contain the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons, which innervate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and ____. Lateral, glands
The left and right posterior masses of grey matter, the posterior horns, house ____ of sensory neurons and cell bodies of ____. axons, interneurons
The central canal is surrounded by grey ____. commissure
The purpose of grey commissure is to communicate between right and left sides of ____ matter. a) grey b) white a) grey
functional groups of neuron cell bodies within grey matter nuclei
What type of nuclei in posterior horns contain interneuron cell bodies? a) motor nuclei b) sensory nuclei b) sensory nuclei
What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as pain or pressure? somatic sensory
What type of sensory nuclei receive information from sensory receptors, such as stretch in smooth muscle walls? visceral sensory
____ nuclei in the anterior and lateral horns send nerve impulses to muscles and glands. Motor
The ____ motor nuclei in the anterior horns innervate skeletal muscle. Somatic
The ____ motor nuclei in the lateral horns innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. a) somatic b) autonomic b) autonomic
White matter on each side of the spinal cord is partitioned into 3 funiculi: posterior, ___, and ___. lateral, anterior
Axons within funiculus are organized into tracts or ____ fasciculi
Each funiculus region contains both motor and ___ axons. sensory
Spinal nerves contain 3 types of successive connective tissue wrappings: ___, perineurium and ___. endonerurium, epineurium
Anterior rootlets merge to form a single anterior rootlet and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory a) motor
Posterior rootlets are derived from a single posterior root and contain ____ axons only. a) motor b) sensory b) sensory
Each anterior and posterior root unite to form a ____ nerve. spinal
After leaving the intervertebral foramen, a typical spinal nerve splits into branches called ____. rami
The smaller of the two main branches is called the ____ ramus and innervates the deep muscles and skin of the ____ posterior, back
The larger of the two rami is the ____ ramus. a) anterior b) posterior a) anterior
The anterior ramus innervates the ____, upper limbs and ____ ____ trunk, lower limbs
Rami communicantes contain axons associated with which nervous system? a) motor b) sensory c) autonomic c) autonomic
Specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve dermatome
All spinal nerves except ____ innervate a segment of skin. C1
Pain from one organ is mistakenly referred to a dermatome. This is called ____ ____ pain. referred visceral
A nerve ____ is a network of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves plexus
There are 4 principal plexuses: cervical, ____, ____, and ____. brachial, lumbar, sacral
Name of nerve that innervates the diaphragm phrenic nerve
The ____ plexus is formed from anterior rami of C1-C4 and innervates the ____, portions of ____ and ____. cervical, neck, head, shoulders
Which plexus innervates most of the lower limb? sacral
Which plexus innervates the anterior and medial thigh and skin of the medial leg? a) sacral b) lumbar b) lumbar
Which plexus innervates the upper limb? brachial
Nerve T12 is called a ____ nerve. subcostal
Spinal nerves originate from ____ and ____ rootlets. anterior, posterior
inflammation of spinal cord myelitis
What term means a reflex response is diminished or absent? hypoactive
5 roots unite to form the superior, middle and inferior trunks in the ____ triangle of the neck. posterior
The ____ nerve innervates most of the anterior forearm muscles, thenar muscles and and lateral two lumbricals. a) median b) radial c) ulnar a) median
Which nerve innervates the anterior arm muscles? musculocutaneous
The ____ nerve innervates the posterior arm muscles. radial
Which nerve innervates some of the anterior forearm muscles and most of the intrinsic hand muscles? ulnar
Which nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles? a) medial b) femoral b) femoral
The ____ nerve innervates the medial thigh. a) obturator b) femoral c) tibial a) obturator
The longest and largest nerve in the body. sciatic nerve
The ____ nerve innervates the hamstrings. tibial
Which nerve innervates the short head of the biceps femorus muscle? ____ ____ common fibular
The ____ fibular nerve innervates the anterior leg muscles. a) superficial b) deep b) deep
The ____ ____ nerve innervates the lateral compartment muscles of the leg. a) superficial fibular b) deep fibular a) superficial fibular
____ response occurs the same way every time. a) autonomic b) sensory c) motor a) autonomic
Stimulus activates ____. receptor
Created by: BrandiLynn