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| What are the functins of the integumentary system? | Protection, Body temp regulation, sensation, Metabolic functions, excretion, absorption
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| How is body temp regulation accomplished by the skin? | Dialation (cooling), and constriction (warming) of dermal vessels
Sweating, hair standing up
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| What sense touch and pain in the skin? | Exoreceptors
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| What is a metabolic function of the skin? | Synthesis of Vitamin D
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| What are the three major regions of the skin? | Epidermis, Dermis, and Hypodermis
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| What is the most superficial major region of the skin? | Epidermis
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| What is the middle major region of the skin? | Dermis
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| What is the deepest major region of the skin? | Hypodermis
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| What layer of the skin is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? | Epidermis
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| What type of cells will you find in the epidermis? | Keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells, langerhans cells
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| Epidermis-outer portion of the skin functions in ____________? | Protection
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| What do Keratinocytes produce? | Keratin
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| What do Melanocytes produce? | Melanin
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| Macrophages that activate the immune system are called what? | Langerhans' cells
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| What are Merkel cells? | touch receptors
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| What are the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial? | stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum
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| The ______________ is the deepest epidermal layer | stratum basale
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| The stratum basale consists of a _____________ row of the youngest keratinocytes | single
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| In stratum basale cells undergo ___________________ division | rapid
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| What layer of the epidermis has cells that contain a weblike system of intermidiate filaments attached to desmosomes? | stratum spinosum
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| The stratum Spinosum is the layer where ________________ are filled with keratin | keratinocytes
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| Thin band superficial to the stratum granulosum | stratum lucidum
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| Would you find stratum lucidum in thick or thin skin? | thick
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| Stratum lucidum consists of a few rows of flat, dead ______________ | keratinocytes
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| What layer of the epidermis is the outermost layer of keratinized cells? | stratum corneum
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| The stratum corneum accouts for how much of the epidermis | 3/4
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| What are functions of the stratum corneum? | Waterproofing, protects from abrasion and penetration
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| What layer of the skin contains strong, flexible connective tissue, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells? | Dermis
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| What are the layers of the dermis? | papillary and reticular
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| What layer of the dermis is aerolar tisssue with collagen and elastic fibera | Papillary layer
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| In the papillary layer of the dermis the superior surface contains projections called papillae which contain _______________ and sensory receptors | capillary loops
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| What do the dermal pappilae cause? | epidermal ridges (friction ridges)
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| Sweat pores around the epidermal ridges make what | fingerprints
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| The reticular layer of the dermis is __% the thickness of the skin? | 80%
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| collagen fibers add ____________ | strength
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| elastin fibers provide __________ | flexibility
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| Why are cleavage lines important for surgons? | The skin gapes less and heals more readily when cut along these lines
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| What is the subcutaneous layer deep to the skin? | Hypodermis
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| What types of tissue is the hypodermis composed of? | adipose and areolar connective tissue
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| What 3 pigments contribute to skin color? | melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin
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| what pigment is yellow to reddish-brown to black pigment | melanin
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| what pigment is yellow to orange | carotene
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| what pigment is red | hemoglobin
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| Blue skin could indicate heart failure or severe respiratory disorders what is this called | cyanosis
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| pale skin could indicate low blood pressure or anemia what is this called | pallor
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| yellow skin could indicate liver problems what is this called | jaundice
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| bronze skin is a sign of Addisons diease, a hormonal imbalace what is this called? | bronzing
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| A _____________ on the skin shows internal bleeding | bruise
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| Different types of __________ glands prevent overheating of the body, secrete wax, and milk | sweat
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| Where can you find eccrine sweat glands, and what do they secrete | you can find eccrine glands all over, and they secrete water
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| ______________sweat glands are found in the axillary and genital areas, and secrete proteins that cause body odor | apocrine
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| ____________glands are modified glands in the ear canal and secrete wax | Ceruminous
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| Mammary glands are speciailized glands that secrete ____________ | milk
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| What are simple alveolar glands found all over the body, soften skin when simulated by hormones? | sebacous glands
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| Sebaceous glands secerete an oily secretion called ___________ | sebum
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| What is hair? | strands of dead keratinized clles produced by hair follicles
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| Hair contains _____________ keratin | hard
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| Hair is made up of the ______________ projecting from the skin, and the root embedded in the skin | shaft
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| What are functions of the hair? | help maintain warmth, sensory, guard the scalp against physical trauma, heat loss, and sunlight
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| Hair thinning in both sexes is called? | alopecia
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| male pattern baldness is caused by folliular response to ___________ | DHT
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| true, or frank, baldness is ____________ determined and sex influenced condition | genetically
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| ______________ can absorb UV rays and protect skin | melanin
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| Sun damage causes clumping of _____________ fibers and can cause leathery skin | elastic
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| What are the 3 major types of skin cancer | basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma
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| What is the most common type of skin cancer, but the least malignant | basal cell carcinoma
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| is basal cell carcinoma slow or fast growing | slow
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| Basal cell carcinoma can be surgically removed in ___% of the cases | 99
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| What is the 2nd most common skin cancer? | squamous cell carcinoma
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| Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum _____________ | spinosum
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| Does squamous cell carcinoma grow slowly or rapidly if not removed? | rapidly
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| Is prognosis good or bad if squamous cell carcinoma is treated by a radiation therapy or removed surgically | good
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| What is the most dangerous type of skin cancer? | melanoma
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| what type of skin cancer is highly metastic and resistant to chemotherapy | melanoma
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| how is melanoma treated? | by wide surgical excision accompanied by immunotherapy
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| The cance of survivial is poor if the melanoma lesion is over ____mm thick | 4
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| What is the ABCD rule for characteristicis of melanomass? | A: Asymmetry the two sides pigmented area do not match
B: Border is irregular and exhibits indentations
C: Color (pigmented area) is black, brown, tan, and sometimes red or blue
D:Diameter is larger than 6mm(size of a pencil eraser)
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| In a first degree burn the ___________ is damaged | epidermis
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| What are the symptoms of a 1st degree burn | localized redness, swelling, and pain
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| In second degree burns what parts of the skin are damaged | epidermis and upper regions of the dermis
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| Symptoms of second degree burns mimic first degree burns, but _________ also appear | blisters
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| In ____________ degree burns the entire thickness of the skin is damaged | third
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| What are the symptoms of 3rd degree burns | burned area appears gray-white, cherry red, or black; there is no inital edema or pain (since nerve endings are destroyed)
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| Bones of the skull, vertebral column and rib cage are part of the ____________ skeleton | axial
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| What is the function of the axial skeleton | protection
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| Bones of the upper and lower limbs, shoulder, and hip are part of the ____________ skeleton | appendicular
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| What is the function of the appendicular skeleton? | movement
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| How would you describe a long bone? | longer than wide
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| How would you describe a short bone? | roughly cube shaped
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| How would you describe a flat bone? | thin flattened and usually curved
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| How would you descirbe an irregular bone? | A complicated shape that isn't flat, short, or long
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| What are the functions of bone? | support, movement, protection, mineral storage, blood cell formation
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| What are the ends of a long bone called? | epiphyses
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| what is the shaft of a long bone called | diaphysis
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| In a long bone ____________ bone surrounds the fat filled medullary cavity | compact
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| In the epiphyses the exterior is ________ bone and the interior is ________ bone, and the joint surface is covered with____________ | exterior is compact bone, interior is spongy bone, and the joint surface is covered with a thin layer of articular (hyaline) cartilage
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| ____________ is a double layered protective membrane | periosteum
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| delicate membrane covering internal surfaces of bone | endosteum
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| In the microscopic structure of bone the ______________ is the structural unit of compact bone | Haversian system or osteon
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| What is the haversian or central canal? | central channel containing blood vessels and nerves
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| The ____________ connect blood supply of the periosteum to the central canal | volkmanns canals
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| ____________ are mature bone cells | osteocytes
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| ___________ are small cavities in bone that contain osteocytes | lacunae
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| ______________ are hairlike canals that connect lacune to each other and the central canal | canaliculi
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| ____________ are bone building cells | osteoblasts
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| ____________ are mature bone cells | osteocytes
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| ___________ cut and dissolve (break down) bone | osteoclasts
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| ___________ are unmineralized bone matrix composed of proteoglycans, glycoprteins, and collagen | osteoid
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| Collagen gives ________ to bones | flexibility
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| Mineral salts, maainly calcuim phosphate makes up 65% of bone by mass, what is it responsibile for in bones? | hardness
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| osteogenesis and ossification is the process of ______________ | bone formation
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| ___________ leads to the formation of the bony skeleton in embryos, bone growth until early adulthood, bone thickness, remodeling, and repair | osteogenesis and ossification
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| formation of the bony skeleton begins at _______ weeks of embroy development | 8
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| ___________ bone develops from a fibrous membrane | intramembranous
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| ____________ bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage | endochondral
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| What are the stages of intramembranous ossification | an ossification center appears, bone matrix is secreted, woven bone and peristeum form, bone collar forms, and red marrow appears
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| Intramembranous ossification bones form from the ___________ out, and make __________ bones | bones form from the inside out, and make flat bones
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| begins in the second month of development, uses hyaline cartilage "bones" as models for bone construction, requires breakdown of hyaline cartilage prior to ossification | endochondral ossification
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| _____________ ossification makes long bones, and is formed from the ________ in | endochondral and makes bones from the outside in
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| What are the stages of endochondral ossification? | formation of bone collar, cavitation (dying) of the hyaline cartilage, blood supply comes inside the bone, and spongy bone formation, medullary cavity formed secondary ossification centers, ossification of the epiphyses
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| What are the functional zones in long bone growth? | growth zone, hypertropic, calcification zone, osteogenic zone
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| In the growth zone of long bones cartilage cells ________, pushing the epiphysis up | divide
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| In the hypertrophic zone of long bone the older cells __________ | enlarge
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| In the calcification zone of long bone the matrix becomes ___________ | calcified
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| in the osteogenic zone of long bone there is new bone ___________ | formation
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| for long bones to grow in length ____________ continually grows and is replaced by bone | cartilage
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| __________ is where bone is resorbed and added by appositional growth | remodeling
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| bones ____________ with appposition growth | widen
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| in interstititial growth bones __________ | lengthen
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| during infancy and childhood bone growth is stimulated by _______________ | growth hormone
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| during puberty testosterone and estroges cause ______________, ___________, and ____________ | growth spurts
masculinization and feminization
epiphyseal plate closure
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| the ___________ and _______________- deposit and resorb bone | osteoblasts (build) and osteoclasts (cut)
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| Bone deposition occurs where bone is injured or added ____________ is needed | strength
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| Osteoclasts form ____________ bays | resorption
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| Osteoclasts secrete lysosonal enzymes that digest _________________, and acids that convert _______________ | digest organic matrix, and convert calcium salts
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| Dissolved matrix is ______________ across the cell where it is secreted into the interstitial fluid and then into the blood | transcytosed
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| What are the two control loops that regulate bone remodeling | hormonal mechanism maintains calcium homeostatsis in the blood
mechanical and gravitational forces acting on the skeleton
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| What two hormones are involved in controling calcium levels in bone? | calcitonin and PTH (parathyroid hormone)
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| Rising blood calcium levels trigger the thyroid to release ___________ and then it stimulates ____________ | calcitonin which stimulates osteoblasts
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| falling blood calcium levels signal the parathyroid glands to release ______, which signal ______________to degrade bone | PTH which signals osteoclasts
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| ____________ says a bone grows or remodels in response to the stress or demands placed upon it | Wolff's law
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| Long bones are thickest _______ | midway along the shaft
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| Curved bones are thickest where they are most likely to | buckle
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| trabeculae form along lines of | stress
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| large bony projections occur where ________ muscles attach | big
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| What are the stages of healing a bone fracture | 1. hematoma forms
2. fibrocartilaginous callus forms
3. bony callus formation
4. bone remodeling
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| During _______________ torn blood vessels hemorrhage and the site becomes swollen, painful, and inflamed | hematoma formation
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| when ___________ forms granulation tissue (soft callus) forms, capillaries grow into the tissue and cells begin cleaning debris | fibrocartilaginous calllus
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| durning ____________ formation new bone trabeculae appear in the fibrocartiaginous callus, the fibrocartilaginous callus converts into a bony (hard) callus of spongy bone, beings 3-4 weeks after injury and continues until firm union is formed 2-3 months | bony callus formation
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| in _____________ excess material on the bone shaft exterior and in the medullary canal is removed, compact bone is laid down to reconstruct shaft walls | bone remodeling
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| what homeostatic imbalace causes bone of children to be inadequately mineralized causing softened, weakened bones which causes bowed legs, deformities of the pelvis, skull, and rib cage | rickets
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| What causes rickets | insufficient calcium in the diet or Vitamin D deficiency
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| ______________ is when bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit occurs most often in postmenopausal women | osteoporosis
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| Spongy bone of the ____________ is most vulnerable when you have osteoporosis | spine
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| When you have osteoporosis bones become so fragile that ________________ or stepping off a curb can cause fractures | sneezing
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| What is the treatment for osteoporosis? | calcium and vitamin D supplments, increased weight bearing exercise, natural progesterone cream, statins increase bone mineral desity, hormone replacement therapy slows bone loss
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| How are bone fractures classified? | The position of the bone ends after fracture, and the orientation of the break to the long axis
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| They type of fracture where bone ends retain their normal position | nondisplaced
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| The type of fracture where bone ends are out of alignment | displaced
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| bone is broken all the way through | complete
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| bone is broken but not all the way through | incomplete
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| the fracture is to the long axis of the bone | linear
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| the fracture is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone | transverse
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| bone ends penetrate the skin | Compound (open)
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| bone ends do not penetrate the skin | simple(closed)
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| bone fragments into 3 or more pieces | comminuted
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| ragged break when bone is excessively twisted | spiral
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| broken bone portion pressed inward | depressed
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| ___________ fractures are common in the elderly | comminuted
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| __________ fractures are a common sports injury | spiral
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| ________fracutures are a typical skull fracture | depressed
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| bone is crushed, common in porous bones | compression
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| the type of break where the epiphysis separates from diaphysis along epiphyseal line, occurs where cartilage cells are dying | epiphyseal
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| incomplete fracture where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends common in children | greenstick
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| What is the weakest part of the skeleton | articulations (joints0
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| What is an articulation | a site where two or more bone meet
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| What are the functions of joints | give the skeleton mobility
hold the skeleton together
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| What are the 3 structural classifications of joints | fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial
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| What are fibrous joints made of | fiber
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| what are cartilaginous joints made of | cartilage
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| what are 3 functional classes of joints | synathroses, amphiathroses, and diarthroses
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| immovable joints are called | synarthroses
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| slightly movable joints are called | amphiarthroses
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| freelely movable joints are called | diarthroses
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| in fibrous structural joints bones are joined by _________ tissues | fibrous
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| ____________ are fibrous joints and occur between the bones of the skull | sutures
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| ______________joints bind bones tightly together but allow for expansion during youth | fibrous
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| _____________ is a fibrous tooth joint | gomphoses
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| cartilaginous joints is where bones are united together by ____________ | cartilage
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| cartilaginous joints are designed for strength and ____________ | flexibility
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| synovial joints are where bones are separated by a fluid filled ____________ | cavity
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| What do all synovial joints have | articular cartilage, joint (synovial) cavity, articular capsule, synovial fluid, reinforcing ligaments, nevers and blood vessels
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| ___________ are flattened, fibrous saces lined with synovial membranes and contain synovial fluid | Bursae
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| Where is bursae common? | where ligaments, muscles, skin, tendons, or bones rub together
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| _______________ are elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon | tendon sheath
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| tendon sheats allow muscles to __________ easier | contract
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| __________ joints are cylindrical projectinos of one bone fitting into a trough shaped surface on another | hinge
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| In hinge joints motion is along a _______ plane | single
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| hinge joints allow ________ and extension only | flexion
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| the elbow is a _______ joint that allows flexion and extension only | hinge
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| _______ joins allow only slipping or gliding movements and where articular surfaces are essentally flat | plane
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| __________ joints are where a rounded end of one bone fits into a "sleeve" or ring, composed of bone (and ligaments) of another | pivot
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| In pivot joints only __________ movement is allowed | uniaxial
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| ___________ joints are where oval articular surface of one bone fites into a complementary depression in another | condyloid or elliposoidal
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| in condyloid or ellipsoidal joints both articular surfaces are _______ | oval
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| Condyloid or elliposoidal joints are ___________ which permit all angular motions | biaxial joints
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| ___________joints are similar to condyloid joints but allow for greater movement | saddle
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| in __________ joints each articular surface has both a concave and convex surface | saddle
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| A _____________ joint has a spherical or hemispherical head of one bone articulates with a cuplike of another | ball and socket
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| Ball and socket joints are ___________ joints that permit movement in all directions | multiaxial
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| ball and socket joints are the most ________ moving joints | freely
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| what part of the body has the most freely moving joint in the body that is also the weakest | shoulder
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| what is the largest joint in the body | knee
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| The knee joint is ________ joints in one surrounded by a single joint cavity | three
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| the synovial joint in the knee allows _________, ______, and some ______ | flexion, extension, and some rotation
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| in a sprain the ____________ reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn | ligaments
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| partially torn ligaments __________ themselves | slowly repair
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| completely torn ligaments require ___________ | prompt surgical repair
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| __________ occur when bones are forced out of alignment | dislocations
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| dislocations are usually accompanied by _____, __________, and joint immobilization | sprains, inflammation
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| ___________ are caused by serious falls and are a common sports injury | dislocations
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| __________ is an inflammation of a bursa, usually casued by a blow or friction | bursitis
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| what are the symptoms of bursitis | pain and swelling
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| how is bursitis treated | anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive fluid may be aspirated
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| ___________ is inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse | tendonitis
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| what is the most widspread crippling disease in the US, and has more than 100 different types | arthritis
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| what are symptoms of arthritis | pain, stifness, and swelling of a joint
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| acute forms of arthritis are caused by ____________ and are treated with _____________ | bacterial invasion treated with antibiotics
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| osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthrits are ________ forms of arthritis | chronic
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| __________ is the most common chronic arthritis and is often called "wear and tear" arthritis | osteoarthritis (OA)
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| osteoarthritis is probably related to the __________ process | normal aging
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| Does osteoarthritis affect more men or women | women
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| As one ages __________ is destroyed more quickly than it is replaced | cartilage
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| what are the joints most affected by OA | spine, fingers, knuckles, knees, and hips
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| OA is __________ and irreversible | slow
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| What are treatments of OA | mild pain relievers, moderate activity, magnetic therapy, glucosamine sulfate (decreases pain and inflammation)
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| What is a chronic, inflammatory disease that usually arises between the ages of 40 and 50 | Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
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| what are signs and symptoms of RA | joint tenderness, anemia, osteoporosis, muscle atrophy, and cardiovascular problems
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| What is the treatment of RA | conservative therapy-aspiriin, long term use of antibiotics, and PT
progressive treatment- anti-inflammatory drugs or immunosuppressants
enbril neutralizes the harmful properties of inflammatory disease
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