Diagnostics
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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| 4 Disadvantages of using multiple side-hole guiding catheters: | Decreased contrast opacification/ backup support/ coronary pressure mon/possible kinking
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| Catheter plastic that has the LEAST memory and torque control, and is soft as to be used for most balloon floatation catheters? | Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC)
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| What type of plastic is the stiffest, autoclavable, slipperiest, and GREATEST torque control? | Teflon (PTFE)
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| One danger with Teflon is that dilators: | Have dangerously hard and sharp tips
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| Polyurethane (PU) catheters should be used with a _________ guide wire. | Teflon coated; that way the wire doesn't stick inside the catheter (metal wires) and reduces the chance of damaging the guidewire
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| The ability to twist the catheter, and having the distal tip turn as well? | Torque control
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| What catheters do not have a braided steel mesh within the plastic? | Foley & Swan-Ganz
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| Most catheters cannot be reused. What "single use devices" may be sterilized by a 3rd party then reused? | Diagnostic EP electrodes
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| How much will a 2 mm ID catheter transmit at 500 psi (roughly) | 16 ml/sec (2 to the 4th power = 16
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| How long are pigtail catheters usually? | 110 cm
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| How is the curve of the JR (Judkins Right) coronary catheters measured? | From Primary bend (closest to the tip) TO Secondary bend (closest to the hub)
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| Normal left Left judkins formal diagnostic catheter size for adults? | JL4 (meaning the distance from primary bend to secondary is 4 cm long)
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| One french size equals? | .33 mm
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| What would be the french size of a catheter with a diameter of 2.66mm | 8Fr
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| The Outside diameter of a 5.5 Fr catheter is? | 1.83 mm
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| The tip diameter on standard diagnostic coronary catheters is? | .038 inch
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| Disadvantages of using guiding catheters, as compared to long sheaths in vascular intervention? | Larger arteriotomy required for guiders / No hemostatic side valve in guiders
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| Name the Five ports of a Swan-Ganz, and what they do? | 1) Balloon port: inflates balloon
2)Proximal RA port(white): for additional lines
3)Distal Port(usually yellow): Pressure monitoring
4)Proximal Port(blue): Blue for the cold color of ICE
5)Thermister: goes to computer
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| How far up on the Swan-Ganz is the proximal injection port located? Other port locations? | Blue port 30 cm / Thermister 4 cm / Yellow port (distal tip)
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| When properly placed, what parts of the heart is the Swan-Ganz ports located? | Proximal (blue) port is in the RA, and the thermistor is in the Rt, Lt PA
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| What part of catheter is necessary for optimal WEDGE pressures? | End hole only
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| Your Bilater heart cath pt. has a (LBBB) on the ECG. What catheter should be inserted first and why? | Swan-Ganz PACING and WEDGE: because the pacing will help if the LBBB turns into RBB from irritation, plus the swan allows for wedge pressure as well
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| Right Heart catheter for an infant? | 4 Fr Swan Ganz
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| What is a flow directed, balloon, tipped, pediatric flood angio catheter. That can also measure wedge pressure? | Berman
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| Two angio flood catheters that will recoil the least during a high flow injection? | Berman and Pigtail
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| Catheter that has the least chance of staining the endocardium during lV gram injection? | Pigtail
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| When doing a flood injection with a 4 or 5 Fr catheter. The injector pressure should not exceed: | 1200 PSI
(side note: the highest pressure is near the hub)
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| the IMA catheter (Internal Mammary) looks similar to what other catheter? | Judkins RIght
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| Catheter designed to do a complete LV and coronary angio from the femoral artery is? | Multipurpose
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| Complex selective catheter shapes are used mainly for cannulating? | Aortic side branches
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| The Brockenbrough transeptal catheter is designed to puncture? | Fossa Ovalis
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| Diagnostic catheter OD _____ size: | French
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| Inflated Balloon cath. OD: | mm.
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| Needle OD: | Gauge
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| Guide Wire OD measured in? | Inches
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| All vascular needles and catheters are fitted with ______ connectors: | Female luer lock
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| Seldinger needle that admits a .038 guide wire is? | 18T gauge
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| Curved sheath for going over the aortic bifurcation (right leg to left) is the? | Balkin Introducer sheath
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| Guide wire diameters are usually measured in: | Thousands of inches
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| The core of a wrapped guide wire is termed: | its mandrel
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| What guide wire becomes slippery when wet, and has a nitinol spring tip | Termo "guide wire"
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| What guide wire is most kink- resistant? | Nitinol Core to tip wires
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| What guide wire is used to straighten tortuous coronary vessels? Hint: they are stiff in the region 2-15 cm from the tip, but flexible 1-2 cm tip. | Support wires
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| In nitinol tip guide wires the tip is? | Fixed and cannot be changed
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| Standard micropunture sizes? | 21Gauge needle, and .018 inch wire
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| Type of guide wire designed for cerebral use? | Bentson wires (designed for selective cerebral cath) and commonly used in many peripheral procedures
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| Which type of guide wire is 260-300 cm long? | Exchange guides
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| Recommended clearance allowed between catheter ID and system OD? | .10-.13 cm
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| Standard guide wires for adult left heart cath? Length? Diameter? | 145-150cm and .035-.038 diameter
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| 7Fr unable to float past TV of a dialated right heart heart, try a? | .025 guide wire
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| What device allows one to easily pass a wire into a catheter? | Plastic sleeve tip-straightner
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| One reason to enlarge femoral site with scalpel is? | Reduce hematoma blood accumulation
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| When double flushing what do you do with the first syringe? | Drawn back blood forcefully into the syringe, then discard.
usually 2-4 cc of blood
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| How does a venous puncture differ than an arterial puncture? | Ventous is unique with saline filled syringe that is fitted to the needle. This is because venous just ooze's while arterial shoots out
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| Pericardial disease patients need both Rt. and Lt heart cath? | True
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| With valvular heart disease such as Mitral what type of case is requried? Lt? Rt? | Both
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| pt.s that commonly recieve myocardial biopsy? | Heart transplant follow up / Cardiomyopathy
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| 3 Common contraindications to left heart cath and coronary angiogram? | Hypertension (pulmonary edema, coronary ishemia) / Hypokalemia (cause ventricular arrythmias) /
Fever (causes infections at access site)
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| How to relieve Ventricular irritability: | Lidocaine drip
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| How to relieve Hypertension: | VasoDilator therapy
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| How to relieve Fever: | Antibiotic therapy
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| How to relieve LV Failure: | Digitalis & Diuretics
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| How to relieve Hypokalemia: | KCI drip
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| How to relieve Allergy to contrast: | Steroids and Benadryl
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| If a patient is allergic to seafood then they are allergic to? | Protamine or Contrast
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| 4 advantages of non-ionic contrast agent (Omnipaque) | Less; vasodilation, myocardial depression, elevation of LV-EDP, and nausa/ hot flashes
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| If a pt. comes to the lab with a contrast allergy, what should be given to them? | premedicated with 60mg Steroids(prednisone) / and Anti-histamine 50mg (Deiphenhydramine known as benadryl
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| Best way to prevent CVA and TIA during angiography is? | Using full systemic hemparization
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| Blood chemistry norms Sodium: | 135-145 mEq/L
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| Blood chemistry norms Potassium: | 3.5-4.5 mEq/L
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| Blood chemistry norms Chloride: | 95-105 mEq/L
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| Blood chemistry norms Total Calcium: | .08-1.0 mEq/L
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| Blood chemistry norms Magnesium: | 1.5-2.1 mEq/L
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| Blood chemistry norms Creatinine: | .8-1.4 mg
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| A patient with diabetes or renal insufficiency are at risk for CIN or renal failure. What should be done to reduce this from happening? | Administer .5 (1/2) normal saline drip the night before the procedure
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| Before the case starts, pt.'s should come to the lab with a PT (prothrombin Time): | <18
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| Percent of death rate? Percent of complications: stroke, heart attack? | Death rate .1% some say the range is .1 - .3%
Stroke rate .25%
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| abbreviation/ acronym that refers to the worst complications of a cardiac procedure? | MACE (major adverse cardiac event)
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| Death Rate .1% or 1 in every ______. | 1000
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| 6 types of patients with the highest risk of mortality during catheterization: | Infants (<1),
Valvular disease,
Severe coronary obstruction,
Functional class IV patients,
LV dysfunction,
severe cardiac disease.
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| Most common complication of PTCA is? | Coronary artery dissection at dilation site
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| pseudoaneurysm (false): | false aneurysmal chamber through a narrow neck.
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| True aneurysm: | chamber protruding through the artery
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| How does one fix a (false) aneurysm? | Ultrasound localization and application of COMPRESSOR CLAMP
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| Most common complication of cardiac ventriculography? | Ventricular tachycardia runs
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| Ventricular tachycardia and fib can also happen suddenly during? | Right coronary arteriography
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| Which type of patients is a vasovagal reaction most dangerous? | Critical aortic stenosis
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| Pyro - | Fever
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| Heart Complications, CVA: aka STROKE | Heparin
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| Heart Complications, Heart perforation: | Pericardial centesis
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| Heart Complications, Pulseless artery POST sones procedure: | Fogarty embolectomy
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| Heart Complications, Pyrogen reaction: | Morphine
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| Heart Complications, Phlebitis & fever POST pacemaker impl..: | Antibiotic
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| Heart Complications, Vasovagal Reaction: | Atropine
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| What 2 kinds of imaging is usually done for Pericardiocentesis? | Fluoro & 2 dimensional echo
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| Allergic reations, Rash, Nausea, Urticaria: | Benadryl, Prednisone, Decadron
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| Allergic reactions, Dyspnea, Wheezing, Syncope: or pt. going into anaphylatic shock | Epinephrine, Volume infusion
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| Allergic reactions, Seizure, hypotension, bradycardia, dyspnea: | CPR as needed
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| Allergic reactions, Seizure, vital signs ok: | Valium
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| In the immune response the foreign protein that stimulates antibody production is? | Antigen
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| T-cells are? | Lymphocytes
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| The adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids which may be given in large doses to treat: | Inflammation and metabolic disorders
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| Plasma protein that plays an important role in antibody & immunity is? | Gamma-globulin
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| Hemodynamic effects of morphine include _______ venous capacitance and _______ Peripheral Vascular Resistance. | Increased capacitance, decreased PVR
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| Hemoptysis - | Coughing up Blood
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| First Heart cath (on horse): | Claude Bernard 1844
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| First Cath on Human (himself): | Werner Forssman 1929
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| Developed Percutaneous Technique: | S.I. Seldinger 1953
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| First Coronary arteriogram: | Mason Sones 1959
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| First Coronary Angioplasty: | Andreas Gruntzig 1977
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| Minimum case load necessary for a cath lab team to maintain? | >200 cases/year
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| Minimum case load necessary for physicians? | >75
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| Define an "ambulatory cath lab": | A lab which patients do not stay overnight in the hospital.
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| Normal PT time: | 12-15 sec
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| Normal ACT time: | 75-100
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| Class of Premedication: Antihistamine | Benadryl
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| Class of Premedication: Narcotic | Morphine
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| Class of Premedication: short acting, (narcotic like) Pain Duller | Demerol
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| Class of Premedication: Benzodiazapine (anti-anxiety agent) | Valium or Versed
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| Class of Premedication: Anti-Cholinergic | Atropine
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| PreMed common name: Demerol | Meperidine
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| PreMed common name: Valium | Diazepam
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| PreMed common name: Versed | Midazolam
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| PreMed common name: Benadryl | Diphenhydramine
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| PreMed common name: Belladonna | Atropine
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| Which sedative wears off within 30 mins following IV infusion? | Versed(midazolam) rapid onset 1-2 min with duration lasting roughly 30 min. The CNS depresent wears off 10 times faster than Valium
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| What platelet site does abcixamab(ReoPro) block? | Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
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| Premedication commonly given prior to angioplasty to avoid coronary spasm? | Ca Channel Blocker called Nifedipine or Verapamil
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| Standard Dosage: Valium | 5-10 mg IV,IM,or PO
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| Standard Dosage: Cimetadine (Tagamet) | 50-300 mg
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| Standard Dosage: Benadryl (diphenhydramine) | 10-50 mg IV / 25-50 mg PO
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| Standard Dosage: Belladonna | 0.5-1.0 mg Subq, IV
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| Amount of cc's of heparin for complete systemic anticoagulation of average adult? | 5 cc's
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| Amount of cc's of heparin injected directly into the brachial for a sones procedure? | 3.0-5.0 cc's
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| Patient was given 2500 units of IV heparin. What amount of Protamine is needed to reverse 2500 units of heparin? | 2.5 cc's
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| For a sones cutdown of the Brachial arter? First________. | Cut lateral, then lateral(perpendicular to the artery)
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| For a IJ punture, how should the patient be positioned? | Trendelenburg
(Legs lifted up about 2ft)
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| The Syvek NT and Chito-Seal are? | Topical Hemostasis Accelerators
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| Where is the antecubital fossa? | In the Arm Pit
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| Suture used to repair the brachial arteriotomy is ______, and the skin suture is________. | 6-0 Prolene or tevdec NON absorbable
skin is 4-0 Dexon Plus absorbable
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| With prosthetic aortic, and Mitral valves. It may be impossible to enter the LV. another method is? | Direct LV apical puncture at PMI
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| For IJ puntures, how many degrees is the head suppose to be turned? | about 30 degrees right or left, but usually left
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| For a brachial cutdown, most physicians us #___ size scalpel blade? | #15
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| The Perclose hemostatic closure device uses? | Non-absorbable suture
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| What IV site is most difficult for hemostasis? | Subclavian
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| IMA bypass grafts can be studied easily from the ____ approach. | Ipsilateral brachial
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| Feeds what: LAD septals | Ant. IV septal
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| Feeds what: Distal LAD | Apex
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| Feeds what: LAD - diagonals | Anterior
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| Feeds what: Circumflex - Obtuse marg | Post-lateral
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| Feeds what: Distal RCA (post. desc.) | inferior
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| Feeds what: Prox RCA (acute marg) | RA & RV
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| In a Left dominant Coronary artery, what LV wall will be affected by a RCA MI? | NONE, because left dominace means it feed the posterior desending so no inferior lv wall impairment
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| Segments seen in an RAO LV angio? | Anterior, inferior, and Apical
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| False LV aneurysm is usually composed of buldging? | pericardium and clotted hematoma
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| What gauge is the long needle used for transeptal catheterization? | 18G to 21G
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| Name of the atrial septal ridge? Where the transeptal cath is pulled down over. | Limbus or Limbic ledge
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| A pediatric heart cath usually starts with? | Puncture of the Femoral vein
because a pediatric cath usually does both right and left
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| How many units of heparin should be administered for a pediatric left heart cath? | 100 units/kg
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| Ages of pediatric: Premature? | Born before "term"
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| Ages of pediatric: Neonate? | <6 months of age
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| Ages of pediatric: Infant? | Between 6 months and 1 year of age
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| Ages of pediatric: Child? | Between 1 year and puberty
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| Distinguish between reversible and irreversible high pulmonary vascular resistance PVR is what test? | Right Cardiac cath with O2 or NO challenge
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| Normal adult SVR to PVR ration? | 12:1
svr is 12 times greater
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| Abbreviations: BUN | Kidney function test (Blood urea nitrogen)
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| Abbreviations: CFA | Artery punctured for AO-gram (common femoral artery)
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| Abbreviations: NG | Feeding tube to stomach (Nasogastric)
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| Abbreviations: PFA | Artery supplying femor (Profunda Femoral artery)
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| Abbreviations: DSA | Computerized Digital X-ray imaging (digital subtraction angio)
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| Abbreviations: DVT | Thrombosis of leg veins (Deep vein thrombosis)
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| Abbreviations: IVP | Procedure where contrast injected IV to outline renal system ( Intravenous pyelogram)
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| Abbreviations: DP | Artery to front of foot (dorsalis pedis)
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| Abbreviations: SMA | Artery to the intestine (Superior mesenteric artery)
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| Abbreviations: V/Q | Radio-isotope scan of lung (Ventilation/Perfusion scan)
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| Abbreviations: PTA | Vascular angio..(Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty)
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| Abbreviations: KUB | X-ray of abdomen (Kidney, ureters, bladder)
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| Major disadvantage to multidetector CT? | Large volumes of iodinated contrast
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| Claudication is usually due to? | Atherosclerosis in the leg arteries
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| Moderate hyperkalemia shows what on EKG: | Peaked/ tented T wave
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| Moderate Hyopkalemia shows what on EKG: | prominent "U" wave
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| Hypercalcemia does what on EKG: | Short Q-T interval
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| Hypocalcemia shows what in EKG: | Prolonged Q-T interval
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| Most common sensor in Medtronic (VVIR) pacemaker is? | Motion
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| DDI/R | Excludes physiological VAT pacing
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| Where are the R2 defibrilator pads placed? | LV apex to Right scapula
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| Who discovered X-rays in 1895? | Roentgen
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| Who developed the fluoroscope in 1898? | Edison
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| Materials that emit light when stimulated by X-radiation are? | Phosphors
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| Area of the anode struck by the electron beam? | Target
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| Negative side of tube containing focusing cup? | Cathode
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| Heater that "boils" off electrons? | Filament
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| Positively charged metal wheel that dissipates heat? | Anode (rotating)
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| Metal shroud around filament cup that condenses electron beam? | Focusing cup
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| When you increase the X-ray tube mA, you are increasing the? | Filament temperature
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| Which part of the X-ray tube produces the X-ray photons? | Target of the rotating anode
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| The source of the electrons within an X-ray tube is the? | Filament
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| Why is tungsten utilized for both the filament and target? | Has a high melting point
anode may reach 2000C, it must rotate fast to prevent melting
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| What part of the X-ray is negatively charged? | Cathode
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| One X-ray photon is generated in the X-ray tube when a high velocity: | Electron is suddenly slowed
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| Light stimulates it to emit electrons? | Photocathode
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| X-rays stimulate it to emit light? | Input Phospher (also known as the Cesium Iodide screen)
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| Converts electrons to light? | Output phosphor
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| Accelerates electrons? | Anode
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| Focus electron beam? | Electrostatic beam
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| The fluorescent screen of an image intensifier uses? | Cesium Iodide
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| Modern device that replaces the image intensifier tube and converts X-rays into visible light? | Flat panel detector
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| Ionizing radiation: | Roentgen
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| Occupational exposure measured: | REM (film badge)
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| Radiation absorbed in tissue: | RAD
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| Quantity of radioactive material: | Curie
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| Units for: RAD | Gray
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| Units for: REM | Sievert(Sv)
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| Units for: Roentgen | R or C/kg
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| Units for: Curie | Ci or Bq
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| What does RAD measure? | The amount of radiation absorbed by patient
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| What radiation unit is 100 times larger than the others? | Gray (Gy)
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| What radiographic view will produce the highest X-ray exposure to staff? | LAO
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| X-ray photon strength is most affected by? | Kiovoltage
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| Inadequate mA on x-ray results in? | inadequate x-ray photons being generated
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| What affects both quality, and quantity of the primary x-ray beam? | kVp
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| Decreasing mA: | no change quanlity, decreases quantity
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| Increasing mA: | no change quality, increases quantity
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| Increaseing kV: | Hardens quality, increases quantity
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| Decreasing kV: | softens quality, decreases quantity
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| Primary purpose of using a Grid in radiography is? | Filter scatter radiation
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| Grids are between the patient and the? | Image intensifier, to reduce scatter radiation fog
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| What does Collimate do? aka coning down | Moves the lead shutters
/ chief function is to reduce patient absorbed dose
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| Aluminum Filtration of primary X-ray beams is required by law to selectivly filter out harmful? | Soft-low energy X-rays
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| What period of pregnancy is the fetus most radiosensitive? | First trimester
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Review the information in the table. When you are ready to quiz yourself you can hide individual columns or the entire table. Then you can click on the empty cells to reveal the answer. Try to recall what will be displayed before clicking the empty cell.
To hide a column, click on the column name.
To hide the entire table, click on the "Hide All" button.
You may also shuffle the rows of the table by clicking on the "Shuffle" button.
Or sort by any of the columns using the down arrow next to any column heading.
If you know all the data on any row, you can temporarily remove it by tapping the trash can to the right of the row.
To hide a column, click on the column name.
To hide the entire table, click on the "Hide All" button.
You may also shuffle the rows of the table by clicking on the "Shuffle" button.
Or sort by any of the columns using the down arrow next to any column heading.
If you know all the data on any row, you can temporarily remove it by tapping the trash can to the right of the row.
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IdAhOmEyEr
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