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Medical Coding Review Questions

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
In what part of the medical record would a physician write a note when the chart is already complete or after the procedure is completed?   Addendum  
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What are the 4 organizations that make up the cooperating parties for the ICD-9 CM?   AHA, AHIMA, IMCHS, CMS  
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Reimbursement system for the outpatient   APC - Ambulatory Payment Classification  
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What is ABN?   Advance Beneficiary Notice- Also known as "Waiver of Liability". It is a written notice given to the patient prior to the procedure or before receiving services notifying patient that if the insurance denies or does not pay, the patient has to pay.  
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What software computes the DRG (Diagnosis-Related Group)?   Grouper  
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Treatment for Genital Herpes?   Acyclovir or Zovirax  
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What is Data Structure?   Dictionary of Data Elements.  
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What is coded if they did catheterization of the First, Second & Third order?   Third/3rd ONLY  
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What are the Outliers?   Cases requiring more resources than usual or those who stay in the hospital longer than the average LOS (Length of Stay).  
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How to code incomplete procedure in CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)?   Code as done with modifier-52 (reduced services)  
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What are G codes?   Temporary codes for emerging procedure & codes for professional services with no CPT codes yet.  
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When can you code Late Effect first?   When followed by a manifestation code.  
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Factors affecting DRG   Diagnosis, Procedure, Age, Sex, Disposition & Birth-weight of Newborn/Neonate.  
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What is the definition of Principal Diagnosis?   The condition established after study to be the main reason for admission  
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What are J codes?   Codes for medication or a drug code that cannot be self-administered. It is used to identify injectable drugs  
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What is Serum Hepatitis?   Hepatitis B  
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What is Case Mix Index (CMI)?   Represents the Average Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) relative weight for the hospital  
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What bones are involved in Epicondylar Fracture?   Humerus & Femur  
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Treatment for Hypothyroidism.   Synthroid/ Levothyroxine  
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Modifier for discontinued outpatient procedure prior to anesthesia administration?   modifier-73  
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Uric Acid is elevated in what condition?   Gout  
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What is EMTALA?   Emergency Medical Treatment & Labor Act- All emergency cases must be treated at the ER even if the patient is not financially capable.  
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What takes precedence in the convention in coding or guidelines?   Convention in Coding Books & Instructions.  
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What are V codes?   Codes that are used to document conditions with no actual disease.  
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Terms Synonymous with Open Fracture.   Compound fracture, missile, gunshot, puncture, infected or foreign body.  
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What is Mutually Exclusive Edit?   Submission of two codes (procedures) which are improbable or cannot reasonably be performed at the same session.  
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Types of Endoscopy   1.) Diagnostic endoscopy- is an insertion of scope for viewing or examination only. 2.) Surgical endoscopy- if they do something else.  
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What condition is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?   Infectious Mononucleosis  
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What is Non-Excisional Debridement?   Debridement using water, gauze or a blunt instrument > non-surgical (including sharp debridement  
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What is Excisional Debridement?   Debridement done either by the physician, nurse or therapist using a cutting instrument > surgical removal or cutting away.  
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What is being treated if a patient is receiving Potassium?   Hypokalemia (Low-Potassium/Potassium Deficiency)  
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Treatment for high LDL cholesterol (Low-density Lipoprotein) & low HDL (High-density Lipoprotein) cholesterol?   Pravachol  
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Types of Skin Grafts   1.) Free Skin Graft 2.) Split Thickness 3.) Full Thickness  
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Skin graft from another human being (or cadaver)   Allograft  
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In Adverse Effect of drug, what is the principal diagnosis?   The Manifestation Code  
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What agency checks on one day inpatient hospitalization?   CMS- Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services  
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Adjacent tissue transfer (includes excision of the lesion)   Z-plasty  
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What condition is associated with high PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)?   Cancer of the Prostate (BPH- Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)  
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Types of Hernia   Inguinal, Umbilical, Femoral, Hiatal or Diaphragmatic Hernia, Incisional or Ventral.  
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What is Stress Fracture   Fracture caused by repetition trauma  
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What is the principal diagnosis if a patient is admitted for an HIV related condition?   042 AIDS  
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A screening colonoscopy was performed which showed the presence of diverticulitis. How is this coded?   Screening colonoscopy, diverticulosis  
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When is the 5th digit 0 NOT used   Ml & Pregnancy  
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What is Blood Transfusion Hepatitis   Hepatitis C  
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What is Endoscopy   Insertion (the act of implanting or putting in) of scope into natural body passageways.  
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What condition is associated with SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone)?   Hyponatremia (Low-Sodium/Sodium Deficiency)  
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Who maintains the CPT book   AMA  
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The 'TERM ENCOUNTER' is applicable to what setting?   ALL settings  
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What is a Complicated Wound   is an infected wound with foreign body, delayed healing & delayed treatment.  
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How to code Incomplete Procedure in ICD-9   Code up to the extent of the procedure  
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What do you call the series of terms in parenthesis () following the main term   Non-essential Modifiers  
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What condition is associated with elevated HBNP (Human Brain Natriuretic Peptide)   CHF (Congestive Heart Failure)  
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What enzymes are elevated in acute Ml (Myocardial Infarction)?   CPK-MB (Creatine Phosphokinase-MB) & Troponin  
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What are M codes   Morphology codes for study of types of cells & behavior of neoplasm.  
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Organ involved in Ossicular chain reconstruction   Middle ear  
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Symbol for Revised Text   Facing Triangle/Bow Tie  
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What are the KEY factors/components of E & M (Evaluation & Management)?   History, Examination & Medical Decision Making  
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How would you check productivity of the coders   Coders ID, number of charts coded, Time Frame  
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What is a Significant Procedure   Define as one that is surgical in nature, carries a procedural/surgical risk or anesthetic risk or requires specialized training  
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Treatment for CHF (Congestive Heart Failure)   Lasix, Lanoxin, Digoxin  
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What is anemia due to bone marrow failure   Aplastic anemia  
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What bones are involved in trimalleolar fracture   Tibia & Fibula (ankle)  
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What is the principal diagnosis if a patient with AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is admitted for an unrelated condition   The unrelated condition  
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What is the meaning of DRG creep or Up-code (fraud)   Coding of diagnosis or procedure which is not present or not documented in order to increase the DRG  
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What is the meaning of Puerperium   Postpartum > after birth extending to 6 weeks  
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What part of the Medical Record would you find the size of the lesion in excision   Operative Report  
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Test for Syphilis   Wassermann or VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory)  
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How to code Bilateral Procedure in CPT   With modifier-50  
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What are the 3 Compartments of the Knee   Medial, Lateral & Patelo-Femoral  
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What is Case Mix   Complexity of the population of patients or types of patients treated  
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Physician performs a permanent single chamber pacemaker, how many codes are used   2 codes  
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What is Benchmarking   Process of comparing data to standard, peer group or another organization  
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What is Audit Trail   Chronological list of those who access the EHR (Electronic Health Record) &/or the EMR (Electronic Medical Record)  
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What is SNOMED   Systematic Nomenclature of Medicine-It is a systematic, computer-processable collection of medical terminologies, provides codes, terms, synonyms and definitions  
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What is OSHPD   Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development- Provide the State with an enhanced understanding of the structure and function of its healthcare delivery systems  
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If a Fracture is NOT stated as Open or Closed, how is the fracture coded   Closed  
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How can access to the network be controlled   Identification, Authorization, Authentication  
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Basis for the HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) Level II Modifiers   Anatomical site  
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Treatment for gout   Allopurinol or Colchicine  
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Term for Full Thickness removal of skin lesion   Excision  
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Up to when is the Perinatal period   Up to 28 days following birth  
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What disposition will affect the post discharge transfer rule   Patient transferred to home health within 3-5 days after discharge  
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Skin graft from the patient himself   Autograft  
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What is a Separate Procedure   Part of a comprehensive procedure  
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What diagnosis is an indication for EPS (Eiectrophysiological Study)   Sinus Node Dysfunction  
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What type of Hernia Repair requires additional code for the mesh   Incisional or Ventral  
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Patient was admitted for TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) because of BPH (Benign Prostate Hyperplasia). Patient was found to have pneumonia so surgery was cancelled. Pneumonia was treated. Patient was discharged & rescheduled TURP later. Wha   BPH & Pneumonia  
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Patient underwent tonsillectomy as outpatient. After the procedure, the patient had post-operative hemorrhage & was admitted. Code-in correct sequence   Post operative Hemorrhage, Tonsillitis  
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What condition is associated with elevated ammonia in the blood   Alcoholic Encepalopathy  
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If the physician excised 2 lesions with 1 incision how is this coded   2 Excision codes with modifier-51 on the last  
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What are E codes   Codes used to identify the cause of injury, poisoning and other adverse effects  
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In poisoning with drug, what is the principal diagnosis   The Poisoning Code  
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Modifier to be used if submitting 2 codes, one of which is a part of the other procedure & is not coded unless done in a separate session or a different excision site.   modifier-59 to be used on/with the less significant procedure  
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What is the correct coding sequence: Patient had cataract surgery in the observation room. Patient had shortness of breath. Patient was admitted   Asthma, Cataract  
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Which procedure will go to a surgical DRG   CRTP (Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy Pacemaker)  
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Test for Hepatitis B   Hepatitis B Surface Antigen  
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How would you code Italicized Codes   Secondary  
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What hospital department is involved in EMTALA   Risk management-HIM & Compliance Dept  
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Test for level of anticoagulant   PTT (Prothrombin Time (PT)) & INR (International Normalized Ratio)  
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What is Surgical Package   It includes pre-operative, operative & post operative care services  
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Treatment for Thrush or Oral Candidiasis/Candida   Nystatin/Fungicidin  
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What is Pathological Fracture   Fracture of the bone due to weakness of the bone because of bone disease such as osteoporosis/ or cancer of the bone as in multiple myeloma  
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What is Spontaneous Fracture   This is considered pathological fracture, fragility fracture, compression fracture, or fatigue or insufficiency fracture  
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What is Principal Procedure   Procedure done for definitive treatment (not for diagnostic or exploratory purposes)  
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What condition has a patient or with a Polydipsia, Polyuria & Polyphagia symptoms   Diabetes Mellitus Type II  
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What is a Skin graft taken from a different species ex. PIG (non-human)   Xenograft  
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What is Unbundling   Submission of 2 codes: one of which is a component of the comprehensive code  
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What is the POA (Present on Admission) if the diagnosis is present on admission   Y  
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How would you improve the function and check the performance of the Medical Records   Audit & Monitoring  
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Up to when is the Postpartum period   Six weeks after delivery  
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What is Debulking   Partial excision or surgical removal of tumor, done if cancer is unresectable. It is a surgical removal or part of a malignant tumor which cannot be completely excised, so as to enhance the effectiveness of radiation or chemotherapy  
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What is called Infectious Hepatitis   Hepatitis A  
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What condition is associated with high TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone)   Hypothyroidism  
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If they did both diagnostic & surgical endoscopy, which one are you going to code   Surgical ONLY  
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What is the principal diagnosis if a patient with AIDS is admitted for an unrelated condition   The unrelated condition  
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Keyword in the index when you look for TURP   Prostatectomy  
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When is Delivery considered Normal   When it is: 1.) Single intrauterine live-born 2.) Vaginal delivery 3.) Full term (37-40 weeks) 4.) Cephalic presentation 5.) Episiotomy or anesthesia 6.) No complication 7.) Artificial Rupture of Membrane (AROM)  
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In what instances the acute respiratory failure is NOT the principal diagnosis   When is it due to: Sepsis, AIDS, Pregnancy, Poisoning, Newborn/Neonate  
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What is Starred Procedure   Code exempted from surgical package & includes only one service or limited services  
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What is the significance of high TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone) & lowT4   Hypothyroidism  
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Patient was admitted with chest pain due to unstable angina & CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)-Code in correct sequence   CAD & Unstable Angina  
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If the physician performs debridement, how will you code it   Query the physician whether it is an excision or incision  
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Modifier that is NOT applicable to hospital outpatient   modifier-51  
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Criteria for reporting additional diagnosis   When patient care requires: 1.) Clinical evaluation 2.) Therapeutic treatment 3.) Diagnostic procedure 4.) Extended length of hospital stay 5.) Increased nursing care or monitoring  
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Symbol for a Revised code   Triangle  
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2 ways of coding Excisional Biopsy   1.) Entire lesion removal = code as excision. 2.) Removal of a part or small piece only = code as biopsy  
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Treatment for Hypokalemia   : K-Dur  
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In Aspergillosis Pneumonia what is the first listed code   Aspergillosis  
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What is the purpose of a physician query   To clarify documentation  
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Modifier if patient is seen in ER by a cardiologist & a podiatrist   modifier-27  
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CPT code for unlisted procedure   Ending in 99  
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What is required to obtain a copy of the patient's medical record   Signed consent of release of medical information  
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Who allows insurance companies to transfer patient's information to another facility without patient's consent   HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)  
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How to code Bilateral Procedures in ICD-9   Code TWICE  
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Symbol for a New code   Bullet  
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Who investigates coding fraud   OIG (Office of Inspector General)  
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What part of the Tibia is the Tibial Plateau   Upper part  
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What is UHDDS   Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set-Used for reporting inpatient data in acute care, short-term care, and long-term care hospitals  
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What is the principal diagnosis for a patient admitted for Acute Gastroenteritis & Dehydration   Dehydration  
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What is the principal diagnosis: Pregnancy or Dehydration   Pregnancy  
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What is the treatment for Pneumonia (community acquired)   Rocephin or Zithromax  
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What is the treatment for osteoporosis   Fosamax  
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What is the treatment for DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)   Heparin or Coumadin  
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What organism is involved with CLO (Campylobacter-Like Organism) test   Helicobacter Pylori  
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Cholecystectomy without CDE (CholeDochoEnterostomy) & with MCC (Migrating Motor Complex), which will impact the DRG (Diagnosis Related Group)   Pneumonia  
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What is the meaning of Anemia   Low red blood cells  
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What is it called when a coder codes a diagnosis which is not present   Up-coding or DRG creep (Example: coder codes urosepsis as sepsis without documentation  
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When coding Residual & Late Effect, which is coded first   Late Effect  
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How would you code admission for hypertrophy of tonsil, had post operative hemorrhage   Post-operative Hemorrhage (principal), Hypertrophy of tonsil  
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Anemia's white blood cells fight what   Infection  
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What is the definition of Relative Weight   An assigned weight intended to reflect the relative resource consumption associated with each DRG  
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What is the Surgical Hierarchy   An order of surgical cases from most to least resource intensive  
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If patient has appendicitis & had an inadvertent abortion, what is the procedure   Appendicitis  
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Which of the following will go to a DRG   CRT-P (Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy Pacemaker)  
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What is the name of the software that produces the ICD-9 code   Encoder  
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What will simplify HIPAA ruling   PPP (Patient Personal Privacy)  
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Who handles or manages patient's health information records   HIM (Health Information Management)  
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What is the term for Destruction of lesion   Ablation, Cutterage, Cautherization  
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What does excision include   Includes anesthesia & simple closure  
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Which is NOT a minimum data set   HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)  
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Name for Central Data Repository   Common Data Base  
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Who administers the coding clinic   AHA (American Hospital Association)  
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Who administers the HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) Level I   AMA (American Medical Association)  
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Who administers the HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) level II   CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services)  
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In CPT when are you going to add the length of the lesion   Same anatomic group & same classification of repair  
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What is the Hepatitis enzyme   Transaminase  
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What condition is associated with elevated CPK-MM (Creatine PhosphoKinase-Muscle)   Musculo-Skeletal Injury (refers to damage of muscular or skeletal systems); Rhabdomyolysis (severe muscle breakdown)  
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Which will carry the most impact on DRG after 6 days upon discharge of the patient from the hospital   Length of Stay  
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If claim gets rejected what must be done   Review & re-code  
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What do you do with unbilled charts   Check if already coded, code if not  
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A CT (Computed Tomography) scan of the head was requested but the claim was denied, why is this   Diagnosis did not match procedure  
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What is required for a CT (Computed Tomography) scan of the head   Diagnosis  
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What is a Complication   A medical problem that occurs during a disease, or after a procedure or treatment or a condition after admission  
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What is ALOS   Arithmetic-mean Average Length of Stay (outlier cases)  
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What is paid under the APC (Ambulatory Payment Classification)   Partial hospitalization  
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What is NOT paid under the APC   Laboratory  
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What is APG   Ambulatory Patient Group- it "consolidates", "packages" and "discounts" a facility's payment for outpatient services, providers may experience decreased reimbursement for the same services when compared with the existing outpatient payment methodologies  
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What is ATN   Acute Tubular Necrosis- is usually caused by a lack of oxygen to the kidney tissues (ischemia of the kidneys). It may also occur if the kidney cells are damaged by a poison or harmful substance  
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What is Comorbidity   A pre-existing condition or co-occurring with a primary disease or disorder  
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What is HAC   Hospital Acquired Condition- is an undesirable situation or condition that affects a patient that arose during a stay in a hospital or medical facility  
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What is MDC   Major Diagnostic Category- is formed by dividing all possible principal diagnoses (from ICD-9-CM) into 25 mutually exclusive diagnosis areas  
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What is TAH   Total Abdominal Hysterectomy- is the removal of the uterus and cervix through an abdominal incision  
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What is TIA   Transient Ischemic Attack- often labeled "mini-stroke," it is more accurately characterized as a "warning stroke/' a warning you should take very seriously. It is caused by a clo  
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What is EPS   Electrophysiological Study- detects the abnormality of the heart rate  
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What is a Biopsy   A removal of specimen that is sent to pathology to see if there are malignant possibilities  
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What is the name of the biopsy that is performed with a definitive procedure   Open biopsy  
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The patient has no add on his cart, his claim was denied. Why?   Not an outlier  
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Where do slanted brackets // appear   In the Alphabetical Index  
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If they code lumpectomy with lympectomy, which range of codes will you choose   Partial  
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Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy Pacemaker would go to a...   Surgical DRG  
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If you are given several charts/a stack of charts which do you code first   High dollar chart/ high paid chart  
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What are 2 types of Nissen Fundoplasty   Laparoscopic & Open  
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How do you put ethics in your organization   Mandatory Compliance Training  
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What is similar between inpatient & outpatient payment system   Both are paid under the Prospective Payment System  
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What is the name of the inpatient reimbursement system   DRG (Diagnosis-Related Group)  
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How do you code an outpatient rule-out   No code (Cannot code possible, likely, or questionable)  
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What is the principal diagnosis for a patient with respiratory failure due to alcohol intake with medication (Xanax)   Poisoning  
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What is the purpose of the network   Allows access to everyone  
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Which gets coded when concerning a fracture & a dislocation   Fracture  
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Malunion of fracture of femur is considered what   Late Effect  
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When a fracture is caused by a disease, how does this need to be coded   Pathological  
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What causes Hypokalemia   Low-Potassium/Potassium Deficeincy  
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What is Hypoglycemia linked to   Low-Calcium  
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What do you do when you discover a breach in email confidentiality or unauthorized access of medical records   Notify immediate Supervisor  
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What must the coder do to prevent unauthorized access to confidential information   Sign in & out  
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How often do you change the pass-code in the system   90 to 180 days (3-6 months)  
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How documentation can be improved   Feedback  
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What is the difference between a discharge & a transfer   A discharge is a situation where a patient is released from care. A transfer is a situation in which a patient is admitted to another inpatient for related care same day.  
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Is it an adverse effect or poisoning if the patient developed a reaction after synergistic effect from drug   Adverse Effect  
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TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack) vs. Stroke   Both will be coded as primary & symptoms will be coded as secondary  
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Which of the following is used for external Data storage   USB Flash Drive  
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Controlling factor in the selection of E/M code when counseling and coordination of care dominates more than 50% of time spent by a physician to a patient encounter   Face To Face time  
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How do you code a diabetic patient with Nephropathy   Diabetes Mellitus with Renal manifestation  
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The physician documents Urosepsis due to E. Coli. The coder used this as Septicemia due to E. Coli. What is this called   Optimizing  
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Excision of brain via Craniotomy   Lobectomy of the brain  
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What kind of Mastectomy includes excision/removal of the major pectoral muscles of the breast   Radical Mastectomy  
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Sphincter of body   Common bile duct  
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What is Acute Alcoholism   Patient who has hallucinations due to alcohol intake (severe form)  
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Which of the following will be coded as primary Angina or CKD   CKD  
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How would you code 2 lacerations of the cheek- intermediate & one laceration of the forehead-simple   Add cheek & code simply separately (2 codes)  
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What is CCI   CCI stands for National Correct Coding Initiative. In 1994, the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) awarded a contract to AdminaStar Federal, the Indiana Medicare carrier, to define correct coding practices that would serve as the basis for nation  
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What Enzymes are elevated in Acute Pancreatitis   Amylase and Lipase  
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What type of Streptococcus resistant to Vancomycin in Enterococcus   Group D  
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What is considered a flap rotation on skin   Adjacent tissue transfer  
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What is the medication for severe sepsis   Xigris  
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How to clarify medical documentations   Query the physician  
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What is DRG optimization (legal)   Coding of diagnosis or procedure which is thoroughly reviewing the documents or query the doctor in order to increase the DRG  
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What are the 3 factors included in Case Mix   Relative Weight, Diagnosis, DRG  
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What is the first screening test for AIDS   ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)  
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What organ produces Amylase   Pancreas  
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What is a factor in profit and loss of the hospital   Case Resources  
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What type of contract or agreement does Office of the Inspector General have   Federal Compliance Agreement  
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Sponge was left inside after surgery who to notify   Risk Management  
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What is QIO   Quality Improvement Office- provides peer review services within the health care community  
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What tool is used for monitoring coding compliance   PEPPER- Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Repor  
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In the event that the Operative Report is missing on the discharge chart, where do you look next   Transcription Report  
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What CPT Code starts in 99   E&M  
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What CPT Code starts in 69   Auditory  
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What is Coding Policies and Procedures   Organizational Tools  
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Medication for Hypertension   Lotensin, Lopressor, Norvasec  
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What is the law that requires no authorization from the patient   HIPAA rules  
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Benign type of Neoplasm/Tumor   Lymphoma  
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Malignant type of Neoplasm/Tumor   Carcinoma  
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Other term for secondary site   Metastatic site  
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What is MDS   Minimum Data Set- is a powerful tool for implementing standardized assessment for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) and for facilitating care management in nursing homes and non-critical access hospital  
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The 3 words that defines the contrasting diagnosis   Versus, Either, Or  
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Diagnostic Rule   Inpatient: Code ALL of this: Ruled out, Probable, confirmed and Un-confirmed Outpatient: ONLY code Confirmed  
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Treatment for Atrial Fibrillation   Digoxin, Atenolol, Verapamil  
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The source document for coding and reporting diagnoses and procedures   Medical Record  
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An interventional radiology bill for common angioplasty has not been paid by the insurance company. What could be the reason for the denial   The coder did not submit the appropriate modifier  
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APC Encounter   Endoscopy Encounter  
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What Agencies uses UHDDS   Medicare and Medicaid  
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What is the purpose of UHDDS   To list and define a set of common, uniform data elements. It provides uniformity and comparability in hospital discharge data  
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What replaces the function of the book in EHR   Encoder Software  
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What is "Electrocauterization" equivalent to   Destruction by Ablation  
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A code that is enclosed in a Brackets [] in the index is an indication of   Manifestation code  
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3 Components of Hysteroscopy   Polypectomy, Myomectomy, and Endometrial Ablation  
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What kind of infections are Aspergillosis, Candidiasis etc   Fungal Infection  
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A procedure given as bilateral and only 1 side was performed   Repeat 1 code (code twice) & modifier-52 (reduced services)  
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According to AHIMA standards, what of the following is NOT considered a coding-related activity   Risk Analysis  
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DRG & APC groupers are part of an encoding system in w/c of the following settings   Acute Care  
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Which of the following is NOT a factor of CMI   LOS -Length of Stay  
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What is the keyword to find EGD & lleoscopy   Small Intestine  
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What is an Open Incisional Hernia   Strangulated  
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The word "Encounter" according to ICD-9 refers to what   Outpatient  
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What of the following takes precedence if there's an issue to be resolved   ICD-9 Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting  
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When do you code 650   Episiotomy  
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The Pt. is admitted with CAD & unstable Angina. Pt. underwent PTCA & insertion of Stent. Which of the following procedure performed would optimize the DRG   Stent Replacement  
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When Stent Insertion is NOT coded   When the catheter didn't go through the lesion  
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What is the code if a Pt. is being seen for testing for HIV and the result is + (positive)   Screening  
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What is the code if a Pt. returns with an HIV test and the result is - (negative)   Counseling  
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Early signs of CHF include   Tachycardia Fatigue Dyspnea on exertion Cough Swollen ankles and/or feet Weight gain Intolerance to cold  
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What are the diagnoses that will impact the DRG for Cholycystectomy   UTI  
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A hospital needs to bill $25,000 to $28,000 in account. Which one will you code first   The one that will expire first  
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According to UHDDS Guideline on ICD-9 codes that are required: If a Pt. has a Lumbar procedure because of lumbar pain, what procedure code that is NOT required for you to code   CT-Scan Vertebra  
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What is the purpose of EHR   Provides patient's collection of Medical History and tracks Audit Trails  
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Bronchodilators for Asthma   Proventil or Atrovent  
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An example of Steroids for COPD & Allergy   Prednisone or Medrol  
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What enzyme is an indicator of Thyroid Disorder   TSH  
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Procedure for flap rotation on skin lesion   Full Graft of adjacent tissue  
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Prospective Payment System (PPS) covers the following facilities   Acute Inpatient Hospitals, Home Health Agencies, Hospice, Hospital Outpatient, Inpatient Psychiatric Facilities, Inpatient Rehabilitation Facilities, Long-Term Care Hospitals, and Skilled Nursing Facilities  
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Modifier that is NOT applicable to hospital outpatient or modifier use when a physician performed a multiple surgeries/services on the same day, during the same surgical session   modifier-51  
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Modifier for discontinued procedure after administration of Anesthesia   modifier-74  
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What are some different types of services documented in medical record   Evaluation and Management Operative reports X-Rays  
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What is an Operative Report   A report written to document the details of a surgery or procedure performed on a patient  
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What are the 2 examples of HIPAA Transaction Code Sets   Place of Service codes Relationship codes  
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When will ICD-10-CM be effective   October 1, 2014  
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Who enforces HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules   OCR -Office of Civil Rights  
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3 volumes of ICD-9   Volume 1: Tabular List of Diagnosis & Injuries; Volume 2: Alphabetical Index of Diagnosis & Injuries; Volume 3: Tabular List & Alphabetic Index of Procedures  
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What are 2 supplementary classifications in ICD-9   V-codes E-codes  
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What is an Abortion   It is the expulsion or extraction of all or part of the placenta or membrane with or without an identifiable fetus weighing less than 500 grams  
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Types of Abortion   Spontaneous Induced Missed Threatened  
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4 additional contributory components of an Evaluation and Management code which are   Counseling Coordination of care, Time Nature of presenting problem  
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Code this when there is a decubitus X- ray, diagnostic thoracentesis, or chest-tube drainage   Pleural Effusion  
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What are the Diagnostic Descriptors that are listed in Italics   Manifestation code Secondary code  
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It is the assignment of numbers and sometimes letters to Diagnosis and Procedures. It is also the process of translating or identifying this written or dictated medical record into a series of numeric or alpha-numeric codes   Coding  
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The most common organs affected by Diabetes Mellitus   Eyes- Retinopathy Kidney- Nephropathy Nerve- Neuropathy Blood vessels- Angiopathy  
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Types of Diabetes   Type I -Juvenile onset Type II- Adult onset Gestational Diabetes - during Pregnancy Secondary Diabetes - caused by certain Illness or drugs  
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Classification of Burns   First degree (erythema) Second degree (blistering) Third degree (full-thickness involvement)  
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Types of Infection   Nosocomial Infection Cryptogenic Infection Local Infection Systemic Infection  
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2 Main Conditions that make-up COPD   Emphysema Chronic Ashmatic Bronchitis  
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Common airborne irritants that typically caused COPD   Tobacco smoke Dust Chemical fumes Air pollution  
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Types of CAD   Arteriolosclerosis Atherosclerosis Ateriolosclerosis Obliterans Medial calcific sclerosis  
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Major cause of Ischemia of the Heart, Brain and Extremities   Atherosclerosis  
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Types of Angina   Unstable Angina Angina Pectoris  
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Types of Infarction   Transmural Infarctions Subendocardial Infarctions a.k.a. non-Q-wave Ml  
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Types of CVA   Cerebral Infarction Cerebral Hemorrhage Arteriovenous Malformation of Brain  
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Types of Fracture   Treatment Reduction Stabilization  
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It is an internal fixation device that is NOT necessarily require direct exposure at fracture site, accomplished by gaining access to the bone through an incision   Internal fixation with intramedullary nails  
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What is ICD-9-CM   The International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification- is the official system of assigning codes to diagnoses and procedures associated with hospital utilization. It was designed for statistical reporting and used to code and  
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In Volume 1: Tabular List Of Diseases and Injuries. It contains major subdivision as follows   Classification of Diseases and Injuries Supplementary Classification Appendices  
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In Volume 2: Alphabetic Index of Diseases. It contains 3 major sections as follows   Main Term Subterm Carryover Lines  
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3 Conditions that are always presumed to be due to Diabetes even without cause and effect relationship unless there is a stated cause   Hypoglycemia Osteomyelitis Gangrene  
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Surgical Procedural Terms commonly use in the treatment of Neoplasm   En block Resection Debulking Resection Local Excision  
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Types of Heart Failure   Systolic heart failure Diastolic heart failure  
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Anti-Anginal Medications   Beta Blockers Calcium Channel Blockers Nitrates or Vasodilators  
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Subendocardial Ml is also known as   Non-Q-Wave Non-ST-Elevation Non-transmural  
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Effects of CHF   Increased pressure in the lung Impaired Kidney function Poor circulation throughout the body  
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What disposition affects MSDRG   Skilled Nursing Facility  
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Pregnant woman admitted with diarrhea, nausea, vomiting   Current Condition Affecting Pregnancy  
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Compressive Fracture of the lumbar spine due to osteoporosis   Pathological Fracture - 733.13 & 733.00  
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How to code induced Abortion resulting in live-born   644.21 - Early onset of delivery  
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Colonoscopy with biopsy of the transverse colon & polypectomy of the recto-sigmoid with snare   45385 & 45380-59 (2 codes - 2 procedures on different site)  
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Post-operative Anemia   285.9  
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What Auxiliary procedure is coded in CABG   39.61 Extracorporeal circulation or Cardio-pulmonary bypass machine  
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Code for Normal Delivery   650 & V27.0  
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Auto Immune Hemolytic Anemia (always choose over cold/warm type)   283.0 cold type/warm type  
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Exploratory laparotomy with appendectomy & drainage of abscess of appendix   47.09  
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CPT code for TURP (Transurethral Resection of Prostate)   52601  
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CPT code for PTCA with insertion of coronary stent   92980 = old code (use this instead). 92928 = new code. *always includes angioplasty. (ONE code only- because the code indicates with or without therapeutic intervention which is the PTCA.)  
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CPT code for PTCA   92920 (92982 - deleted)  
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What is the code for Decompensated COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)   491.21 (decompensated is the same as exacerbation of COPD)  
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CPT code for Total abdominal hysterectomy with or without salpingo-oophorectomy   58150  
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Intertrochanteric Fracture of the femur due to multiple myeloma   Pathologic fracture: 733.14 & 203.00  
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Code for anemia due to blood loss   280.0  
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Code for removal of skin tags 17 lesions   11200 & 11201  
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How to code renal calculus with Hematuria & Renal Colic   592.0 Code renal calculus only  
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CPT code for Laparascopic Nissen Fundoplasty or Fundoplication   43280, Laparascopic  
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CPT code for Bilateral Screening Mammography   77057  
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Code for Positive Serology for AIDS Adult   V08  
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Exploratory Laparotomy with incidental appendectomy   54.11 & 47.19  
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Positive Serology for AIDS in a 7 month old baby   795.71 - Inconclusive Positive Serology for AIDS  
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How to code destruction pre-malignant lesion of skin by cryosurgery or cryotherapy   First lesion = 17000. Each additional lesion = 17003 (Repeat code for each additional up to 14) 15 or more lesions = 17004 (Use only 1 code)  
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CPT code for Hysteroscopy with biopsy of the endometrium or polypectomy with or without DNC (Dilatation & curettage)   58558  
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CPT code for Colonoscopy with biopsy transverse colon polyp & polypectomy descending colon polyp by snare   45385 & 45380-59  
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What is the CPT code for angiography of the aortic arch & bilateral common carotid arteries   36217  
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How to code fracture of the bone due to multiple myeloma or osteoporosis   Pathological NEC 733.10 Multiple Myeloma 733.10 203.00 Osteoporosis 733.00  
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Respiratory failure after ingestion of drugs & alcohol   Poisoning code 980.0 & 980.9  
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How to code EGD (EsophagoGastroDuodenoscopy) up to the ileum   44376 Small intestinal endoscopy  
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CPT code for Colonoscopy with biopsy of the transverse colon followed by removal of the same polyp by snare   45385 (1 code only = 2 procedures on same (one) site)  
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CPT code for treatment of non-union fibula   27726  
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What is the CPT code for recurrent incisional hernia with mesh   49565 & 49568  
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What is the code for Amphetamine & Heroin dependency   Use combination code 304.70 (dependency with combination of drug with opioid)  
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CPT code for Destruction of pre-malignant lesion by cryotherapy -16 lesions   17004  
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CPT code for CLO-test also known as EGD with biopsy   43239  
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CPT code for Destruction of pre-malignant lesion by cryotherapy- 3 lesions   17000, 17003, 17003  
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What is the code for a seizure on Dilantin   Epilepsy 345.90  
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What is the code for Anemia due to CKD   285.21 (ONE CODE)  
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What is the code for CKD due to diabetes?   250.40 & 285.9  
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Female infertility due to Chronic Pelvic Inflammatory Disease   628.8 & 614.4  
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When a patient is admitted for the purpose of chemotherapy & develops complications such as uncontrolled nausea & vomiting or dehydration, what is the principal diagnosis   Admission for Chemotherapy V58.ll  
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What is the code for BIPAP? (Bi-level Positive Airway Pressure)   93.90  
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What are the 3 Ethmoidectomy codes   31254, 31255, 31267  
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What are the 2 CPT codes for colonoscopy   Polypectomy 45385 & Biopsy 45380 -59  
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What add on code must be included with Ventral Incisional Hernia   Mesh 49568 (Implantation of material)  
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What is the difference between codes 303.00 & 303.90   303.00 means that the patient has been admitted intoxicated (drunk) 303.90 means that.... is alcohol dependent  
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CPT code for Medial And Lateral Miniscectomy   29980  
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COPD with exacerbation of Asthma   493.22  
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CPT Code for Bunion Repair, Mitchell Procedure   28296  
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Admission for drug monitoring of anticoagulant for Coumadin for a patient with Atrial Fibrillation   V58.63, V58.61, 427.31  
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CPT Code for EGD with Percutaneous Gastrostomy   43246  
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CPT code for Bilateral Hip replacement   81.51, 81.51 (Code TWICE)  
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Code for Anemia due to blood loss   (Acute) 285.1  
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Code for contusion and laceration of Eyebrow   784.32  
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CPT code for Repair of Inguinal Hernia with Mesh in a patient with previous Inguinal Hernia Repair   49520  
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CPT code for Arthroscopy knee with medial meniscectomy and lateral chondroplasty   29881 & 29877-59  
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CPT code for Excision of scar arm 2X6 cm with closure bt split-thickness graft   15002 & 15110  
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CPT code for Destruction lumbar nerve by radio frequency ablation L2, L3 & L3   64622 64623 64623  
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CPT code for Injection steroid transforaminal Cl and C2   64479 64480  
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Pr code for TURP with incision of bladder neck   60.29 57.19  
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Code for Sino-Artrial Node Dysfunction   427.89  
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Pr code for EPS (Electrophysiological Study)   37.26  
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Code for Encounter for drug monitoring for Coumadin in a patient with Atrial Fibrillation   V58.83 V58.61 427.31  
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Code for Respiratory failure and coma after ingestion of alcohol   980.0 518.81 780.01  
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Code BPH (Benign Prostatic Hypertropy) with bladder neck obstruction   600.01 596.0  
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Pr code for TURP and incision of the bladder neck   60.29 57.91  
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Diagnosis: Code for BPH (Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy) with bladder neck obstruction   600.01 596.0  
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Procedure: Code for TURP and incisions of the bladder neck   60.29 57.19  
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Code for Seizure   780.39  
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Code for Seizure disorder and recurrent   345.90  
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Procedure Code for Explaratory Laparotomy with Liver biopsy   54.11 50.12 54.12  
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Patient with ESRD and Diabetes came in for Catheter replacement and underwent Hemodialysis   V56.0 585.6 250.00 38.95 39.95  
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Code for TIA vs Stroke   "TIA", it is coded as 435.9; "Stroke", it is coded as 434.91  
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Code for CHF due to HTN with pleural effusion   402.91 428.0  
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CPT code for Repair of Incisional hernia with prosthesis   49560 49568  
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CPT code for treatment of Non-union Fibula   27726  
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CPT code for Needle or puncture aspiration of cyst in the breast   19000  
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CPT code for Cystoscopy with fulguration of bladder tumor   52234  
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CPT code for benign forehead 2X3 cm and excision of benign lesion of the cheek 2X4 cm; both repaired by layered closure   I11443 11444 12053 11443 11444 12053  
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CPT code for Trabeculectomy for glaucoma in a patient with scarring from previous surgery   66172  
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Code for Interstitial Lung Disease   515  
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Code for Explaratory Laparotomy with liver biopsy   54.11 51.02  
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CPT Code for Mastectomy   19303  
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