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Flashcards for Final March 8, 2012

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Question
Answer
What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine?   Acetylcholinesterase  
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There are four major areas of the brain:the cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, and   Cerebellum  
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The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are referred to as the   Brain Stem  
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Excessive opioids (narcotics) depress the medulla oblongata and therefore cause   Respiratory Depression  
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Endorphins are   Natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being.  
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The Medulla Oblongata descends as the   Spinal cord  
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The pituitary gland sits beneath the   Hypothalamus  
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In which cerebral lobe is Broca's area located?   Frontal  
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Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space?   Cerebrospinal fluid  
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Which of the following is the type of nervous tissue that conducts a nerve impulse?   Neuron  
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What is the name of motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?   Broca's area  
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Which structure is also called the "emotional brain?"   Limbic system  
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Which structure is part of the diencephalon; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system?   Hypothalamus  
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Which structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional behavioral expression, and carries out the "executive" functions?   Frontal lobe  
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Parkinson's disease   Is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal ganglia  
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To achieve spinal anethesia, a -caine drug is injected into the   subarchnoid space  
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The fifth cranial nerve, called the __________ nerve, is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from the scalp, face, and teeth.   Trigeminal  
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The tenth cranial nerve, the __________ nerve, "wanders" outside the head area and innervates the heart and gastrointestinal systems.   Vagus  
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Which of the following is most descriptive of the phrenic nerve?   Motor nerve supplying the diaphragm  
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An antibiotic-induced ototoxicity damages which nerve?   Vestibulocochlear nerve  
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Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes   footdrop  
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A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes   quadriplegia and an inability to breathe  
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A lumbar puncture is done by inserting a needle into the   subarachnoid space  
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The baroreceptor reflex controls   blood pressure  
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Which reflex is concerned with the regulation of blood pressure?   Baroreceptor  
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Which of the following is most characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system?   Feed-and-Breed system  
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The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble   sympathetic nerve discharge  
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An adrenergitic fiber is one that   secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter  
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Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves   innervate the viscera  
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A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called   sympathomimetic  
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Alpha and beta receptors are   activated by norepiinephrine  
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A beta1-adrenergic agonist   increases heart rate  
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Muscarinic receptors are   activated by ACh  
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A patient has vagally induced bradycardia (slow heart rate). Which of the following will relieve the bradycardia?   Muscarinic antagonist  
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What is the name of the specialized area of a sensory neuron that detects a specific stimulus?   Receptor  
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Photoreceptors detect   light  
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A nociceptor detects   pain  
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The colored part of the eye that contains the intrinsic eye muscles: the circular muscle and the radial muscles is known as (the)   iris  
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Which cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with vision?   Occipital  
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Which of the following structures secretes tears?   Lacrimal gland  
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Which of the following structures is located outside of the eye?   Conjunctiva  
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The sclera   is the outer layer of the eyeball  
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A cataract is a   cloudy lens  
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Which structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?   Tympanic membrane  
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Bone conduction occurs in the   middle ear  
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Cerumen collects in the   outer ear  
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The semicircular canals are concerned with   balance  
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Which of the following is one of the special senses?   Balance  
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Which of the following is concerned with the sense of smell?   Olfaction  
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The eustachian tube connects the pharynx (throat) with which structure?   Middle ear  
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Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (i.e., urinary bladder)?   Transitional epithelium  
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Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal?   Neuron  
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What is the most abundant of the four types of tissue?   Connective tissue  
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Ligments, tendons, and cartilage are types of __________ tissue.   connective  
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Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from "floating?"   Adipose tissue  
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Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer lining of the lungs?   Visceral pleura  
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Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma?   Cancer  
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Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the body?   Serous membrane  
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Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?   Epithelial  
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Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland?   Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface  
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Osseous tissue is   also called bone tissue.  
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The pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum are   serous membranes.  
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Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation are terms that are concerned with   heat loss.  
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Hives are called   urticaria.  
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What is the color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood?   Cyanotic  
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Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat?   Blood vessels constrict  
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What is the effect of shivering?   Increases heat production  
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Cyanosis   refers to a bluish coloring of the skin caused by hypoxemia  
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The hypothalamus   a. is the body's thermostat b. can be affected by pyrogens c. is involved in thermoregulation d. All of the above  
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The humerus   is located in the arm.  
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Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis?   Vertebral  
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Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs?   True, false, and floating  
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Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus?   Tibia  
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Which bone is distal to the acetabulum and proximal to the patella?   Femur  
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Which bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia?   Patella  
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Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?   Epiphysis  
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Spongy or cancellous refers to a(n)   soft bone.  
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Which structure is the site of attachment for tendons?   Periosteum  
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Which structure refers to the shaft of a long bone?   Diaphysis  
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Cervical, thoracic lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal refer to   vertebrae.  
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At which joint do the humerous and ulna meet?   Elbow  
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At which joint do the femur and tibia meet?   Tibiofemoral  
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Injury to the epihyseal disc of the tibia may   stunt the growth of the injured leg.  
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Which bone structure is most concerned with emopoiesis?   Bone marrow  
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Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)?   Kyphosis  
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Myelosuppression affects which structure?   Bone marrow  
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Osteoclastic activity   raises blood calcium levels  
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Which group of muscles is located on the posterior thigh?   Hamstrings  
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The rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius   are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris  
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The brachialis and brachioradialis   flex the forearm at the elbow.  
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Which muscle lies along the anterior surface of the humerus and acts synergistically with the brachialis and brachioradialis to flex the forearm at the elbow?   Biceps brachii  
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What is the name of the cord of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone?   Tendon  
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What is the site of calcium storage in a relaxed skeletal muscle?   Sarcoplasmic reticulum  
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Acetylcholine is released from the prejunctional membrane in response to the   nerve impulse.  
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Which of the following is responsible for muscle relaxation?   Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.  
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Which of the following describes a muscle that remains in a contracted stte?   Tetany  
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Joey has had his leg in a non-weight-bearing cast for 8 weeks. When the cast is removed, the leg appears smaller than the uninjured leg. Which term best describes this observation?   Disuse Atrophy  
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Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and is also the chief breathing muscle?   Diaphragm  
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On which large muscle do you sit?   Gluteus maximus  
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Which type of muscle requires stimulation by a somatic motor neuron?   Skeletal  
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Which of the following "slides" in the sliding filament hypothesis?   Actin and myosin  
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Muscle relaxation   occurs when calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum  
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The somatic motor nerve that supples the muscles of the thigh has been severed; therefore, the person   cannot walk  
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Which of the following is a higher order of organization?   Organ  
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The head is located _________ to the chest.   superior  
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The foot is located __________ to the leg.   distal  
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The leg is __________ to the thigh.   distal  
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The thigh is proximal __________ to the foot.   proximal  
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The thoracic cavity is __________ to the abdominopelvic cavity.   superior  
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which organ is located in the dorsal cavity?   Brain  
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Which cavity is divided into quadrants?   Abdominopelvic  
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Which of the following refers to the lower back region?   Lumbar  
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Which of the following refers to the groin region?   Inguinal  
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Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?   Antecubital  
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Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity?   It contains the brain and spinal cord.  
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The sternal area is   the breastbone area  
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A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which of the following indicates the site of pain?   Neck  
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A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient's pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a restatement of this description?   The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area.  
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A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to the right subscapular region. What best describes the pain?   High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area  
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Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration of [H+}?   pH  
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The sharing of electrons is referred to as   covalent bonding.  
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A cation is a(n)   positively charged ion.  
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Which of the following is true of an anion?   An anion carries a negative charge.  
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NaCI, table salt, is called a(n)   electrolyte.  
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Which process referes to the dissociation of NaCI into Na+ and CI-?   Ionization  
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Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid-base regulation?   HCO3-  
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Which compound is the universal solvent?   Water  
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[H+] refers to   hydrogen ion concentration.  
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Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism?   Carbon dioxide  
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Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction, but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction?   A catalyst  
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What is the energy-transferring molecule?   ATP  
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Which of the following is most descriptive of HCI?   Is called bicarbonate  
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ATP   is an energy transfer molecule  
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An electrolyte   dissociates into ions.  
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A catalyst   increases the speed of a chemical reaction  
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Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?   Nucleus  
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The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because __________ within the mitochondrion.   most of the ATP is produced  
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Which of the following is found on the rough endoplasmic retuclum?   Ribosomes  
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What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that "pulls" water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water?   Osmosis  
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What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that uses a pressure difference as its driving force?   Filtration  
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What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane?   Cilia  
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Lyosomes are filled with   powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens.  
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Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?   ATP  
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What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?   Facilitated diffusion  
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What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein-containing vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell?   Exocytosis  
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Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis?   Endocytosis  
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Which word means "the bursting of red blood cells"?   Hemolysis  
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If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will   swell and burst  
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Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells?   Hypertonic  
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Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are phases of   mitosis.  
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Pinocytosis   refers to cellular drinking.  
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Which of the following best describes normal saline?   Isotonic  
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Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome?   Phagocytosis  
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In which structure is most DNA found?   Nucleus  
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Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion?   Passive transport  
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Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in response to   diffusion.  
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Which process describes the pushing of water cross the capillary (blood vessel) membrane?   Filtration  
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Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer?   Cell membrane  
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The selectively permeable membrane   determines which substances enter and leave the cell.  
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A child has experienced to a blow to the head causing a slow bleed. Although the bleeding has stopped, the blood clot continues to expand because   the particles of the blood clot osmotically active and draw water into the clot.  
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Plasma proteins determine   plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure.  
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If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces,   edema develops  
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Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic?   Dead  
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A cervical Pap smear indicates well differentiated cells. You would interpret this statement as   a normal cellular appearance.  
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Which of the following is a nitrogen-containing waste product?   Urea  
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Which of the following is a waste product of glucose metabolism?   CO2  
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Glucose is usally broken down to   provide energy (ATP) for the working cells.  
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Which of the following are building blocks of protein?   Amino acids  
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Glycogen is   the storage of form of glucose  
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Which of the following is (are) produced by the rapid and incomplete breakdown of fatty acids?   Acetone and ketoacids  
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Ketone body formation is most likely to cause   acidosis.  
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Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes   glucose from protein.  
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Gluconeogenesis   increases blood glucose.  
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Which of the following is characteristic of urea?   Nitrogen-containing waste formed in the liver  
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Which of the following is most descriptive of ammonia?   Nitrogen-containing and brain-toxic  
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***Which cavity is divided into quadrants?   Abdominopelvic  
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***Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?   Right hypochondriac  
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***Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?   Left iliac  
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***Which of the following refers to the lower back region?   Lumbar  
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***Which of the following refers to the groin region?   Inguinal  
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***Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?   Antecubital  
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***Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H=]?   pH  
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***A cation is a(n)   positively charged ion.  
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***NaCI, table salt, is called a(n)   electrolyte  
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***Which of the following is an anion?   HCO3-  
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***Which compound is the universal solvent?   Water  
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***Which of the following is true of Na+?   Called the sodium ion  
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***An electrolyte   dissociates into ions.  
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***Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme?   Catalyst  
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***What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that "pulls" water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water?   Osmosis  
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***What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that uses a pressure difference as its driving force?   Filtration  
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***Lysosomes are filled with   powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens.  
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***What is the transport mechanism in this description: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?   Facilated diffusion  
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#19    
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