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3E351A2

CDC

QuestionAnswer
(201) What plan prepares us to react to unforeseen circumstances, such as an enemy attack, with an emphasis on restoring operations, saving lives, reducing human suffering, and minimizing further damage? Contingency response plan.
(201) Which center is established as a command and control element to direct and monitor preattack survival actions and post-attack recovery? Emergency operations center.
(201) Who directs all base operability, survivability, and recovery operations within the emergency operations center? Support group commander.
(202) Which center does the damage assessment and response team report hazards to? Damage control center.
(202) What must the damage assessment and response team determine before entering a facility? Structural soundness.
(202) Who controls the airfield damage assessment team? Damage control center.
(202) Who normally oversees the minimum operating strip selection process? Base civil engineer.
(202) Who has the authority to determine what rapid runway repairs are needed and in what priority? Emergency operations center.
(203) Which type of shoring is particularly effective when damage has been sustained to end or sidewalls yet roof members have been essentially untouched? Guys.
(203) What type of shoring is usually made of structural steel and heavy timbers? Braces.
(203) What type of shoring is used to stabilize the structural integrity of a facility affected by vertical loads (the effects of gravity)? Jacks.
(203) Which shoring method is particularly useful with reinforced concrete columns that have not been seriously damaged, yet show signs of cracking or minor fracture? Splints.
(203) Which shoring method restores some structural integrity into a cracked concrete slab? Tension ties (stitching dogs).
(204) When performing expedient repairs to a roof, what should your first efforts be towards? Ensuring adequate shoring and bracing.
(204) How are emergency repairs made to fire-damaged trusses? Scraping off the charred material and sistering a piece next to it.
(204) After expedient patches have been made to a flat roof, what action must you take? Ensure the roof still drains properly.
(204) What is the first action you should take to repair a large hole in a load-bearing masonry wall? Shore and brace the area around the hole.
(205) When using 16-inch stakes with the GP medium tent, at what angle do you drive them? Straight up and down.
(205) When using 24-inch stakes with the GP medium tent, at what angle do you drive them? 15° angle from vertical.
(205) What size hard-back tent frame is recommended for a tent that measures 16 feet by 32 feet? 6 inches smaller in both length and width.
(205) How many mudsills do you use to construct a GP medium tent frame? 3.
(205) Where is the on-center spacing for the first two floor joists from each end in a hard-back tent floor? 1 foot 10 ½ inches.
(205) Where is the on-center spacing for the first studs placed in a hard-back tent frame side wall? 3 feet 9 inches.
(206) How should the locking pins on a TEMPER end arches be installed and why? From the outside towards the inside to prevent fabric damage.
(206) The fly on the TEMPER is connected after both endwalls and the ridge and eave extenders are installed.
(207) When assembling and installing the arch assemblies on the SSS where are the red-coded arches placed? On the bottom; same side.
(207) How are the purlins secured to the arches on a SSS? Slip the purlins through the purlin sleeves; place pins from the top down.
(207) When installing the main cover on a SSS, you should work the cover over the ends until you have at least a 4- to 5-inch overlap.
(207) Approximately where and how are guy anchors installed for the SSS? 36 inches away from the side with the top of the anchor away from the shelter.
(207) What is the proper sequence for installing liners in the SSS? Mid liner, side liners, and end liners.
(207) What is the first step when disassembling the SSS? Ensure that all power is disconnected from the electrical system at the source.
(208) When assembling a MSS’s base frame, what are the four single-headed spikes used for? Anchoring the end base centers.
(208) How is the MSS’s floor installed when the cold weather kit is used? Install the insulated floor pads first; then install the floor with the black-side down.
(208) How many pullover ropes are used to install the top liner on the MSS? Four.
(208) How many pullover ropes are used to install the main cover on the medium shelter system(MSS)? Six.
(208) Which of the following procedures is not required when a MSS is anchored to a 4-inch reinforced concrete slab? Installing the duckbill anchors.
(208) At what height above the floor are the receptacles installed in a MSS? 47 inches.
(209) You should construct field latrines on level ground and never uphill from the campsite.
(209) When digging multiple side-by-side trenches for the saddle trench latrine, how much space should you allow in between the trenches for footing? 2 feet.
(209) What action(s) should be taken when a straddle trench latrine is filled to within 1 foot of ground level? All of these actions should be taken.
(209) What action should be taken when building a trough urinal out of wood? Line the trough with tarpaper.
(210) Who determines and reports the location, types, and quantity of airfield pavement damage to the emergency operations center? Damage assessment team.
(210) What type of airfield pavement damage has an apparent diameter equal to or greater than 15 feet and penetrates through the pavement surface? Large crater.
(210) What type of airfield pavement repairs create an operationally capable minimum operating strip, based on projected mission aircraft requirements, in the fastest manner possible? Expedient.
(211) Which RRR set(s) supports the repair of three bomb craters in four hours? Basic (R–1) RRR set only.
(211) Which RRR set(s) gives the capability to repair six craters in four hours? Basic (R–1) and Supplemental (R–2) RRR sets.
(211) What is the acceptable repair quality criteria that the filled-in crater should be in comparison with the adjacent undamaged pavement surfaces? Flush, plus or minus ¾ inch.
(212) How is the AM–2 matting starter keylock placed after it is assembled? Parallel or perpendicular to the extended crater centerline.
(212) When attaching AM–2 matting towing tubes concurrent with the keylock assembly, how is the starter tube that receives the first piece of matting placed on the mandrel? With the prongs facing up.
(212) What is the procedure used to install the first row of AM–2 mats. Start with full-size mats and lay left to right.
(212) How do you keep the rows of AM–2 matting in proper alignment during assembly? Install locking bars in between the mats.
(213) When assembling FFM, the mats are placed end-to-end about 4 feet apart.
(213) When unfolding FFM, what is used on the side opposite the tow vehicle to lift each successive panel as the tow vehicle pulls the mat? At least a four-member team or front-end loader with forks.
(213) What action should you take to try to prevent the resin from flaking at the FFM hinge locations? Have a vibratory roller make one pass down each hinge location and follow with a broom sweeper.
(213) When using 9 ½-inch long anchor bolts to anchor FFM to asphalt pavements, what hole diameter and how deep should you drill? 1½- by 10-inch.
(213) When it is necessary to anchor FFM that was moved to repair a failed crater repair, how is the mat positioned for re-anchoring? Align the anchor-bolt holes at least 6 inches from the original holes.
(214) When repairing a spall with magnesium phosphate cement, you should mix the ingredients for 1 to 2 minutes.
(215) What type(s) of paint are used for paint striping? Nonreflectorized and reflectorized.
(215) Which of the followings paints is used for all runway markings? Retroreflective white.
(215) Which of the following paints is used on runway shoulder markings and closed runway markings. Nonreflective yellow.
(215) Which of the following paints is used for all primary taxiway and taxi-lane markings? Retroreflective yellow.
(216) After the MOS layout and marker placement is complete, what is the final task for the fourperson team? Remove any existing airfield marking signs.
(216) The paint striping machine’s spray guns are adjusted to provide a 30- to 36-inch-wide stripe.
(216) Where you encounter difficulty locating signs to identify taxiways, mark the identification letter on the pavement near the centerline in 6-foot block letters.
(217) Which type of hardening is only needed when the threat is great and time permits major military construction programming, design, and construction? Permanent.
(218) When using B–1 revetment, how should you start constructing each wall after establishing a baseline? Start in the center and work out towards each end.
(218) What action should you take so that the cross-panel ends fit the side panels on a B–1 revetment? Flare the cross-panel ends.
(218) How are additional B–1 revetment base units connected together until you reach the length you need? By adding a cross panel between them and pinning them together.
(218) You can connect additional sections of Concertainer together by overlapping the coil hinges and inserting a connecting pin.
(219) When removing a guide roller from a HAS door, you should open the door until the inside end of the door is within approximately 6 to 8 feet from the speed reducer.
(219) When removing a turret tank from a HAS door, you should place a 100-ton capacity jack near the middle of the tank.
(219) When removing a turret tank from a HAS door, how do you keep the weight of the door from rupturing the jack’s hydraulic seals? Place a metal spacer underneath the door to hold the door off the tanks.
Created by: leocriz50
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