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3S051 vol 3
Edit Code 01
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| When contacting a newcomer, what should you discuss with them? | Tell them you’re there to provide info and assistance to make the move smooth as possible. Make sure you listen to what the newcomer has to say. Many times a newcomer can reduce stress by merely talking to someone”already there.” |
| What questions should you ask the newcomer? | Will your family members accompany you and what are their names,ages,and interests? Do you need info about services, banking, child care, education, and so forth? Do you want me to meet you when you arrive and what is the date, time, and location? |
| Within how many days should you mail the sponsor kit? | Mail the sponsor kit within seven calendar days. |
| What two letters should you include in the sponsor kit? | A personalized letter from your commander and your own personal letter. |
| Where does an inprocessing member first report? | First, the member reports to the customer support element to check in. |
| Certify the member’s PCS arrival by noting the date and time arrived. What document is used? | The personnelist will certify the member’s PCS arrival by noting the date and time arrived on station on the front of the AF IMT 899 (endorsed travel order). |
| What does the personnelist do if the departure date is missing? | Start a new certification on a copy of the member’s PCS orders, witness and certify the endorsed order, and forward to HQ AFPC to be filed in ARMS until the subsequent reassignment. |
| When inventorying the FRGp, what document is utilized to compare the enclosed documents with? | The FRGp is inventoried against the enclosed AF IMT 330. |
| What is an UIF? | The UIF is an official record of unfavorable information about an individual. |
| What does a UIF consist of? | The UIF consists of mandatory documents, optional documents (at the commander’s discretion), and AF IMTs 1058 and 1137. |
| Who will appoint an individual to act as the base UIF monitor? | MPS commanders. |
| Who can commanders appoint as the unit UIF monitor? | Commanders will appoint a personnel specialist or a civilian (civil service employee or contractor) from their staff to act as the unit UIF monitor. Or an information manager may be appointed if a personnelist is not assigned. |
| What can a LOD determination impact? | a member’s:disability retirement and severance pay, forfeiture of pay, extension of enlistment, VA benefits, survivor benefit plan, medical benefits of members of the ARC, incapacitation pay for ARC members, and basic education assistance death benefit. |
| An LOD should not be used for what purposes? | A LOD determination shall NOT be used for disciplinary action or reimbursement of medical expenses. |
| Who is subject to LOD determinations? | active AF, ARC who die, incur or aggravate an illness, injury, or disease while on orders for any period of time, or while on inactive duty, traveling directly to or from the place of active duty, IDT,USAFA cadets, AFROTC cadets |
| What are the four possible findings of an LOD determination? | In the Line of Duty, Existed Prior to Service, Not in Line of Duty, Not Due to Own Misconduct, Not in Line of Duty, Due to Own Misconduct. |
| HQ AFPC/DPSAS controls and approves all surveys with what exceptions? | Occupational surveys, internal reporting requirements, surveys of course graduates, official audit surveys, surveys requiring OMB approval, and single-base surveys initiated by an installation or unit commander. |
| What information is required in the survey approval request? | Purpose & justification for the proposed research, how you will use the survey results,a point of contact with a telephone number,population of interest,tell how you expect to collect data,copy of the proposed data collection instrument |
| All personnel are required to maintain what type of confidentiality? | All personnel will maintain strict confidentiality concerning the identity of individual survey respondents. |
| What responsibilities does the survey respondent have? | should answer surveys accurately and honestly to provide the best possible data for analysis. However, no classified information may be included in any answer to a personnel survey. A respondent is not required, but is encouraged to complete surveys. |
| What are the responsibilities of the MPS commander? | The MPS commander will ensure compliance with AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services and they may delegate completion of forms to the customer support element. |
| What is the intention of the special counseling? | The intent of special counseling is to inform members of their insurance benefits, the rationale behind those benefits, and the general availability of commercial alternatives. |
| What is the principal role of life insurance? | to ease the financial burden imposes on survivors when a member dies before achieving the financial strength needed to cover the expenses associated with death and any associated loss of income to those financially dependent on the member. |
| What two types of insurance are there? | The two primary types of insurance are term and whole life. |
| What can be used to verify eligibility when enrolling a member or dependent in the DEERS? | A Social security card, passport, driver’s license, or other official document can be utilized when enrolling a member or dependent into the DEERS. |
| List five different types of ID cards. | Active duty;Guard & Reserve,retired w/pay; Reserve eligible for retired pay at 60; 100% DAV; civ employee;civ contractor; lawful spouse,unmarried child under age 21, legitimate, adopted, or stepchild; ward, including foster children, and student age 21-23 |
| What is the VO’s responsibility? | The VO is responsible for validating eligibility of bona fide beneficiaries to received benefits and entitlements, and is the only person authorized to sign block number 99 on the DD Form 1172. |
| What is the IO’s responsibility? | The IO is the only person authorized to sign block number 108 on the DD Form 1172. |
| Who is eligible for join spouse assignment consideration? | extended active duty with the AF and their spouse is also on extended active duty with any US military; meets all PCS eligibility reqs; have a code “A” or “B” & both are not scheduled for reassignmnt, sep, retirement, or release from active duty w/i 12mo. |
| What is the primary document used to record the marriage of a military couple? | The AF IMT 1048, Military Spouse Information, is the primary document used to record the marriage of a military couple |
| When is the AF IMT 1048 completed? | The AF IMT 1048 must be completed as soon as possible following the marriage of two military members. |
| How many copies of the AF IMT1048 are completed? | The AF IMT 1048 is completed in original only. |
| How many members make up the AFBCMR? | Three members make up the AFBCMR. |
| When can an applicant with a proper interest request correction of another person’s military records? | When the person is incapable of acting on his or her own behalf, is missing, or is deceased. |
| What are applicants required to provide when requesting correction of another person’s military records? | Applicants must send proof of proper interest with the application when requesting correction of another person’s military records. |
| How long do you have to file a correction to military records? | Ordinarily, applicants must file an application within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered. |
| What are the Casualty Services program objectives? | To track casualty reports and notifications in accordance with procedures set by HQ AFPC; reports casualties; ensures notification has been made to the NOK; and provides compassionate assistance to the NOK until all claims and personal affairs are settled |
| The CAR prepares written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of which agencies? | CP, COs, SF, MTF, chaplains, mortuary services officer, CPF, Airman and Family Readiness, transportation officer, base telecom center and telephone operators, PA office, disaster preparedness office, and the ARC MPS/MPF attached or on the installation |
| The CAR will ensure the MPS commander or the FSS commander sends what to HQ AFPC/DPFCS? | The installation supplemental instruction to AFI 36-3002, with a signed transmittal memorandum, through the MAJCOM to HQ AFPC/DPFCS. |
| What will the CAR send, email, or fax to HQ AFPC? | The CAR will send, email, or fax the original AF IMT 1075 listing MPS personnel responsible for casualty standby duties, whenever a change occurs and annually on 1 October to HQ AFPC/DPFCS. |
| What AFI governs SBP? | The AFI governing SBP is 36-3002, Casualty Services. |
| How often is the SBP paid? | SBP is a monthly annuity paid to an active duty member’s spouse or children if the member died in the LOD. |
| What is the payment equal to? | The annuity is equal to 55 percent of the retired pay a member would be entitled as if retired for total disability on the date of death. |
| On what date did the payment reduction cease? | April 2008. |
| The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to | the newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor . |
| What is one of the best ways to make the newcomer’s move as smooth as possible? | Call them. |
| As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer? | What type of vehicle do you drive? |
| For information about on- and off-base housing, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go? | Base housing office. |
| After the initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet and the records review listing (RRL) are updated, ensure they are reviewed and forwarded to | HQ AFPC/Automated Records Management System (ARMS). |
| What form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)? | AF IMT 63, Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) Acknowledgement Statement. |
| Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are | collected by a personnelist. |
| For officers, all of the following can look at unfavorable information files (UIF) | -commanders at all levels for members assigned or attached to their unit. -major command commander, vice commanders, staff director and directors. -chiefs of staffs, their deputies and assistants and other staff agency heads. |
| For enlisted members, who is not allowed to look at unfavorable information files? | The member’s wing or unit chaplain. |
| When filing an optional Uniform Code of Military Justice Article 15, Nonjudicial Punishment, in a member’s unfavorable information file (UIF) do not use | AF Form 3070A, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceeding (AB thru TSgt). |
| An officer receives a letter of reprimand (LOR). What action must the commander take using the AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 1058, Unfavorable Information File (UIF) Action? | The commander does not submit AF IMT 1058 to the officer and LORs must be filed in an officer’s UIF. |
| How many days does an individual (enlisted and officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes the final decision on placing optional documents in the unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Three duty days. |
| Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations? | Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members. |
| A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following | -death of a member. -inability to perform duties for over 24 hours. -likelihood of permanent disability. |
| During the line of duty (LOD) process, which of the following is the Customer Support element at the military personnel section (MPS) not responsible for? | Making the medical determination. |
| HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DSAS controls and approves all military personnel surveys, questionnaires, | telephone interviews, and attitude and opinion polls. |
| When requesting survey approval, HQ AFPC/DPSAS does not require you to | state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. |
| All approved, non-local surveys show one of the following | -survey control number. -report control symbol. -Office of Management and Budget number. |
| Which of the following types of insurance does the government not offer? | Mutual Life Insurance (MLI). |
| In relation to insurance processing, the Customer Support element has all of the following responsibilities | -managing the Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance Handbook. -counseling and providing members with monthly premium rates. -maintaining and completing numerous veterans affairs forms. |
| An important benefit of the Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is the ability to convert it to what type of insurance after leaving the military? | Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI). |
| Family Member Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom? | Spouses and children. |
| All of the following children are eligible for an identification (ID) card | -child, unmarried and under age 21, adopted. -child, unmarried and under age 21, stepchild. -legal custody ward, including foster children. |
| Identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be | below the grade of E–4. |
| Once you retrieve identification (ID) cards, you may do all of the following | -destroy. -shred. -cut. |
| Members are eligible for join spouse assignment consideration unless they | are on extended active duty with the AF and the spouse is civilian. |
| What form is used as the primary document to record the marriage of a military couple? | AF IMT 1048, Military Spouse Information. |
| Which is not a join spouse intent code? | C. |
| How many members does the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) consists of? | Three. |
| What form is used to apply for a correction to military records? | DD Form 149, Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of Title 10, U.S.C., Section 1552. |
| You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at all of the following locations | -any Air Force Military Personnel Section. -most veterans’ service organization. -Air Force Review Boards Office. |
| What is the responsibility of the military personnel section commander as it pertains to casualty services? | Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services. |
| In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s) | Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt. |
| What are the three types of casualty reports? | Hostile, non-hostile, and pending. |
| The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the | surviving spouse or children. |
| The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) annuity paid is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies, | but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55. |
| A request for humanitarian reassignment or deferment is considered based on what? | A request for humanitarian reassignment or deferment is considered based on individual merit taking into account the human factors involved, the applicant’s skills and length of service, and manning priorities and requirements. |
| A humanitarian request may be approved when what criteria is met? | A request may be approved when it is clearly in the best interest of the Air Force. |
| A humanitarian request will not be disapproved based solely on what? | A humanitarian request is approved on its own merit, and will not be disapproved based solely on the member’s substandard performance and (or) conduct. |
| What must a member, desiring humanitarian deferment, formally submit? | formally submit his or her request to the Total Force Service Center (TFSC) within 30 calendar days from PCS reassignment notification, nomination to HQ AFPC or MAJCOM, or selection for TDY in excess of 30 calendar days. |
| When an individual is relocated due to PCS, TDY, separation, or retirement, what will the member have? | When an individual is relocating due to PCS, TDY, separation, or retirement, the member will have a relocation folder. |
| Who is responsibility for preparing the relocation folder? | It is the responsibility of the career development element personnelist to prepare the relocation folder. |
| How many relocation folders are prepared for several individuals being reassigned to the same location with the same reporting month? | Prepare once relocation folder when reassigning several individuals to the same location with the same reporting month (unit move). |
| What documents are kept in the relocation folder? | assgnmnt selection ltr, msg, email, or RIP, AF IMT 907, Relocation Prep Checklist, Reassgnmnt orders and amendments, Relocation processing memo, SGLV 8286, SGLI Election and Cert, PCS departure cert statement and all other docs pertaining to the member |
| What office is the POC, for family member travel, that will provide guidance and administrative support to assigned personnel? | The career development element is the base-level POC and will provide guidance and administrative support to assigned personnel. |
| Who does the dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) program apply to? | This program applies to an Airman selected to serve a short, dependent restricted overseas tour or an Airman electing to serve an unaccompanied overseas tour and does or does not have an approved overseas follow-on assignment. |
| Who does the dependent travel to a designated place with an approved overseas follow-on assignment apply to? | This program applies to an Airman with an approved overseas follow-on assignment. |
| Who does the dependent travel to a designated place without a follow-on assignment apply to? | This program applies to Airmen without an approved follow-on assignment. |
| What must officers do before they apply for separation? | Officers must meet with their immediate commander or supervisor before applying for separation to schedule the separation and consider their preference and interests of the Air Force. |
| A separating member may be subject to recoupment for what reasons? | They may be subject to recoupment or a portion of education assistance, special pay, or bonuses received if they leave active duty before completing the period of active duty they agreed to serve. |
| Officers who are subject to recoupment must sign what? | Officers must sign the statements if they are subject to recoupment of education assistance, special pay, or bonuses. |
| What form does the member use to request separation? | Officers submit AF Form 780, Officer Separation Actions, to apply for separation. |
| When are members eligible for retirement? | Members are eligible for retirement of the first of the month after completing 20 years of TAFMS, 10 years of TAFCS (in order to retire in officer status), and fulfilled all ADSCs. |
| How soon can a member apply for retirement? | Applications for retirement can be submitted NET 12 months before the requested retirement effective date and NLT 120 days to include the number of days of terminal leave and permissive TDY requested. |
| What two items will the career development element update in the vOP? | The career development will update the member’s projected departure date (PDD) and SSN in the vOP. |
| What documents/certificates are given to the spouse of the retired military member? | If appropriate, the AF Form 1344, Certificate of Appreciation (for Spouses). |
| Who administers the officer promotion program? | The secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) administers the promotion program through the Chief of Staff, USAF, and the Deputy Chief of Staff of Personnel (AF/A1). |
| Who issues written instructions to selection boards? | The SECAF issues written instructions to selection boards as well establishes competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility and selection criteria, promotion opportunity and selection rates. |
| Who implements the promotion program approved by the SECAF through a fair and equitable process? | HQ AFPC implements the promotion program approved by the SECAF through fair and equitable process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process. |
| Don’t use administrative demotions when what is more appropriate? | When it is more appropriate to take actions specified by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). |
| Do not demote Airmen who have separated. What should a commander do instead? | Begin administrative demotion action during the term of enlistment and if the commander has sufficient reason to initiate demotion action, use the entire military record in deciding whether demotion is appropriate. |
| What type of documentation should the commander maintain on demotions? | Commanders should maintain supporting documentation of all rehabilitation and probationary actions. |
| Output products associated with all enlisted promotion programs are produced and must be monitored jointly by whom? | Output products associated with all enlisted promotion programs are produced and must be monitored jointly by PSM and the career development element. |
| What database is used to support WAPS? | The database used to support WAPS is the promotion file. |
| This promotion database is an extract of what system? | This database is an extract of the MilPDS master personnel file and contains data that is current as of the PECD established in AFI 36–2502. |
| Who controls promotions to Amn through SrA? | Amn through SrA promotions are controlled at the MPS, career development element. |
| What is the objective of the selective reenlistment program? | To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards. The SRP applies to all enlisted personnel. |
| What Airmen receive SRP consideration? | Only reenlistment eligible Airmen receive SRP consideration. |
| What product does the career development element use to identify Airmen eligible for the selective reenlistment program? | Career development element uses the four-part AFPC-controlled computer product. |
| What does Part I (SRP Actions) identify? | Part I (SRP Actions) identifies Airmen requiring SRP consideration or reconsideration. |
| Who reserves the authority to approve extensions of enlistment under certain conditions? | HQ AFPC reserves authority to approve extensions of enlistment under certain conditions. |
| Who may approve or disapprove extension or extension cancellation requests? | MPS Chiefs or their designated representatives may approve or disapprove extension or extension cancellation requests (AF Form 1411, Extension or Cancellation of Extensions of Enlistment in the Regular Air Force/Air Force Reserve). |
| Designated representatives assigned to the MPSs or GSU personnel functions must posses what grade? | Designated representatives must be assigned to the MPSs or GSU personnel functions, and possess the grade of TSgt, GS–6, or higher. |
| How long can first-term Airmen extend for? | First-term Airmen can extend for a total of 23 months. |
| What is oracle training administration? | Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is an AFPC standardized managed computer support system that effectively executes formal training across the Air Force and works in conjunction with other training administration programs. |
| Oracle training administration is the source record for what? | OTA is the source of record of all Air Force Professional Military Education (PME) and formal training. |
| What is OTA used for? | The system is used for planning, controlling, and funding formal training throughout the Air Force including the MAJCOM TDY to School Programs. |
| Who is the OPR for OTA? | The OPR for OTA is HQ AFPC/DPSIT (Education and Training Branch). |
| What is the overall objective of the retraining program? | The overall objective of the retraining program is to balance the career force of each AFSC needed. |
| What are the two types of retraining? | The two type of retraining are CAREERS and the NCORP. |
| What does the CAREERS retraining allow? | CAREERS retraining allows first-term Airmen (including Staff Sergeants on their first enlistment) to refrain in conjunction with reenlistment into skills where a shortage exists. |
| What is the NCORP designed to do? | The annual noncommissioned officer training program (NCORP) is designed to move NCOs from AFSCs with significant overages into AFSCs with NCO shortages. |
| What is the Air Force’s classification system policy? | Air Force policy is to retain Airmen who demonstrate the ability to successfully complete training and whose past record clearly justifies further investment. |
| Describe the term disqualification. | An Airman whose AFSC is withdrawn for failing to meet mandatory skill qualification, performing duties in an awarded AFSC, cannot maintain the skill according to AFI 36–2101,, and has no other awarded skill will be considered disqualified. |
| Commanders must do what before considering retraining? | Commanders must consider separation for all Airmen before initiating retraining. |
| What is the AFSC for disqualification – reasons beyond control? | RI9A000. |
| The Air Force establishes an ADSC for whom? | The Air Force establishes an ADSC for all active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events. |
| What grades incur an ADSC when they complete all or a portion of an ADSC-incurring event? | Officers in the grades of colonel and below and all enlisted personnel incur an ADSC when they complete all or a portion of an ADSC-incurring event. |
| When does an ADSC, incurred for training, become effective? | An ADSC incurred for training becomes effective upon graduation and expires on the ADSCD. |
| What form is utilized to document and make the member aware of an ADSC? | An AF IMT 63, Acknowledgement Statement, is used to formally document an ADSC acknowledgement and to make the member aware of the ADSC(s) that has or will be incurred as a result of training or education. |
| When are personnel on active duty eligible for the CSB? | Personnel on active duty are eligible for CSB if they have a DIEMS/DIEUS of 1 Aug 86 or later and have completed 15 years of active duty service. |
| What is the retirement plan for personnel who elect CSB? | Members who qualify under service regulations for retention to 20 years of active duty service have the option to elect a 15-year $30,000 lump sum and remain at the High 36/40 percent retirement plan. |
| What is the retirement plan for personnel who do not elect CSB? | Members who do not elect the CSB lump sum will be restored to the full high three average system known as High 36/50 percent retirement plan, currently available to personnel who entered uniform service between 8 Sep 80 and 31 Jul 86. |
| What form is completed in order to apply for CSB? | Complete the individual notification memorandum (referred to as RIP) and DD form 2839 in order to apply for the CSB. |
| A reassignment or deferment request must be initiated by the | member. |
| To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a criterion? | The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. |
| An initial relocation briefing should be conducted within how many days? | 15 calendar days. |
| If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what can they do in order to save time? | Conduct mass briefings. |
| An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have all of the following | -the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location. -a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates. -a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate. |
| What form from the military personnel records does the Military Personnel Section (MPS), career development element extract information from for a member wishing to apply for a miscellaneous separation? | AF IMT 31, Airman’s Request for Early Separation/Separation based on Change in Service Obligation. |
| How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement? | 20. |
| Which of the following certificates are not given to a retiring member? | DD Form 220, Active Duty Report. |
| Who in the military personnel section is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection? | Career development element. |
| How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant? | 30. |
| The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification? | Fourth. |
| Within how many days of the first processing month must the “BELOW-ZONE-E4” promotion product be scheduled to run? | 10. |
| The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a two-phase selection process that combines factors from | WAPS and the evaluation board. |
| Within how many months of their original expiration term of service (ETS) does a secondterm Airman receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration? | 13. |
| First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration? | 33 (57 for six-year enlistees). |
| How many total months can second-term and career Airmen extend their current enlistments? | 48. |
| How many days leave can Airmen sell if they’ve sold any leave since 10 February 1976? | 60. |
| Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of the following | -planning formal training. -controlling formal training. -funding formal training. |
| The policy on training line numbers is focused on the formal training office being located in FSS/FSDE. If the formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the requirements outlined in this process? | The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE. |
| Retraining requirements are determined by Air Staff, | and career field managers. |
| What training status code can a second-term or career Airman not be in to be eligible for the Noncommissioned Officer Retraining Program (NCORP)? | “O”. |
| Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member’s control? | A medical condition. |
| Who is responsibility for accomplishing an AF IMT 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, when a member does not have another awarded Air Force specialty code (AFSC)? | Career development element. |
| The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for | active duty members. |
| What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)? | Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel. |
| What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option? | Financial counseling. |
| What document(s) do commanders use to determine a member’s eligibility for the Career Status Bonus (CSB)? | Automated Records Management System (ARMS) and the Commander’s Management Roster (CMR). |
| What is the UPMR a cross between? | The UPMR is a cross between an alpha roster and the unit manning document. |
| What does the UPMR show? | The UPMR shows the authorized positions with such association information as: position number, duty air force specialty code, authorized grade, functional account code, personnel accounting symbol, and required security clearance level. |
| What does the UPMR highlight? | The UPMR highlights mismatches between what is authorized for each position and what the position incumbent has for assigned data. |
| Each position on the UPMR is authorized how many incumbents? | Each position is authorized one incumbent, however, under some circumstances, a second individual could be assigned to a position for a limited period of time. |
| Who is eligible for a US military decoration? | All military personnel on active duty are eligible for consideration for a US military decoration. |
| Are the traditional Air Force decoration (blue) binders mandatory or optional? | The traditional Air Force decoration (blue) binders used for presentation are optional. |
| Describe the selection of an alternative document holder. | The selection of an alternative document holder should be in good taste and should not detract from the overall presentation. |
| Do not submit recommendations in a token effort to what? | Do not submit recommendations in a token effort to “so something for your people.” |
| What does the duty status tool identify? | Duty Status reporting is an essential tool allowing commanders to identify names, strength accountability, and availability of personnel. |
| What does the duty status data provide? | Duty Status data provides a clear picture to HQ AFCP and the MAJCOM of a unit’s available strength, which impacts personnel tasked with operations or exercise commitments. |
| Duty status reporting directly affects what? | Duty status reporting directly affects Personnel Tempo (PERSTEMPO) reporting. |
| To have an effective duty status program, what must happen? | the member’s duty status should be reported and updated anytime there is a change in their status, i.e. hospital, TDY, confinement, absent without leave (AWOL). |
| The Air Force Administrative qualification process is designed to do what? | The Air Force Administrative qualification process is designed to be the first step in selecting reliable personnel to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons. |
| The Air Force Administrative qualification is a critical and integral part of what program? | The Air Force Administrative qualification process is a critical and integral part of the Air Force PRP. |
| What is the administrative qualification is a PRP screening process designed to do what? | Administrative qualification is a PRP screening process to help ensure military personnel meet PRP standards before departing for training or assignments to PRP duties. |
| What is mandatory to use when processing PRP qualifications? | It is mandatory to use the PRP “How To” Checklist when processing administrative qualifications. |
| What was the enlisted assignment preference web-based self-service process designed to do? | The enlisted assignment preference web-based self-service process was designed to allow member to apply for normal reassignments to CONUS and OS areas. |
| How many preferences can an enlisted member choose? | Enlisted members may select as many as eight CONUS and eight OS assignment preferences by using specified base or country codes from the advertised requirements. |
| How are assignments managed? | Most assignments are computer generated; however, an AFPC Assignment NCO or Functional Manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity. |
| What is the enlisted assignment preference not used for? | The enlisted assignment preference is not used to apply for special duty assignment, joint/departmental, and short-notice overseas assignments. |
| Airmen volunteer for special duty assignments (SDA) through what system? | Airmen volunteer for SDAs through the vMPF by updating the job number from EQUAL-Plus. |
| Airmen are limited in volunteering for only those SDAs which appear where? | Airmen are limited in volunteering for only those SDAs that appear as ads on EQUAL-Plus. |
| In addition to an electronic application, some SDAs also require what? And where is the requirement listed? | In addition to the electronic application, some SDAs also require a hard copy application. And it is reflected in the EQUAL-Plus ad. |
| What category of Airmen receive a DOR equal to the date of enlistment in the RegAF? | NPS enlistees (served <24 months TAFMS; former SMs of a regular component enlisting on/after the 6th ann of their DOS;reservists who enlisted in a pay grade > the last grade held in a reg component, and reservists who have never served in a reg component |
| How is the DOR computed for a member who served in a regular component other than the RegAF and enlists in a lower grade due to their TAFMSD? | The DOR will be computed form the original DOR for the enlistment grade and years separated from DOS. |
| What is leave? | Leave is a paid vacation from duty for recreation and relief from the pressures of job related duties. |
| Members may take leave for what reasons? | Vacation, personal reasons, and emergency situations. |
| What is the leave program designed to do? | To allow service members to use their authorized leave to the maximum extent possible. |
| At what rate does leave accrue? | Leave accrues at the rate of two and ½ calendar days per month. |
| What do evaluations document? | Evaluations document an individual’s performance, promotion, and special duty assignment considerations. |
| Why is timely, accurate processing of EPRs, OPRs, and TRs so important? | To ensure personnel managers have current information. |
| What does the MPS do once they receive the TR or OPR/EPR notice from MilPDS? | The MPS checks the notice for accuracy and attaches the LOE to the EPR/OPR notice, if applicable. |
| How does the MPS get the TR or OPR/EPR notice to the respective squadron? | By way of the unit’s workflow box. |
| What AFI attachment should members read if they intend to file an appeal? | Attachment 1, AFI 36-2401. |
| What could happen if the member does not read the attachment? | Could cause the ERAB to delay its decision, return the application without action, or not have sufficient information to reach a fair and equitable decision. |
| What module will provide the means for members to submit an appeal? | The evaluation appeal module, located in the vMPF under “Most Popular Applications”. |
| Airmen may also request what action when appealing an evaluation? | Airmen may request consideration for supplemental promotion through the same application when appealing an evaluation. |
| The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train and | promote. |
| Over how many years does a unit manning document (UMD) list positions that will be deleted? | Two. |
| Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration | in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status. |
| Restrict recommendations for decorations to all of the following | -meritorious service. -outstanding achievement. -acts of heroism. |
| What two agencies does duty status data provide a clear picture to? | HQ AFPC and major commands (MAJCOM). |
| What duty status code is used to represent present for duty (PFD)? | 00. |
| What form is used to document personnel reliability program (PRP) certification? | AF Form 286, Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) Qualification/Certification Action. |
| Which of the following output products does not generate during personnel reliability program (PRP) processing? | PRP status P, R, P roster. |
| The enlisted assignment preference is used for | continental United States or overseas assignments. |
| Members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with all of the following | unit leave monitors. |
| How many months, minimum, time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)? | 0. |
| How many days are months computed when you are computing service dates? | 30. |
| The expression “use of lose” refers to leave days. In excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used? | 60. |
| Leave must begin and end where? | In the local area. |
| Who does the commander and first sergeant forward an evaluation report to, for further processing, once they ensure it is accurate and technically correct? | Military personnel section. |
| Once the military personnel section receives an evaluation report, what do they do if they find errors? | Return to the unit for corrections. |
| Airmen using the self service module for supplemental promotion should complete the application, upload or fax any supporting documents and route the request electronically to what office? | Total Force Service Center (TFSC). |
| What is HR-CMS? | CMS is used for entering, tracking, resolving, and reporting on HR system related cases within the USAF. |
| Why was HR-CMS developed? | To give base-level offices the ability to communicate with all levels of the HR community to resolve problems with member’s computer records that cannot be resolved by directly updating the various HR systems. |
| How did MPFM 07-89 affect the PIF policy? | It did not affect the commander’s discretion to maintain a PIF. |
| MPFM 07-89 was issued to remind commanders of what? | That with the impending loss of unit personnelists, they may wish to review their policies regarding PIF creation and maintenance. |
| What is BAS meant to offset? | Member’s meals. |
| BAS is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two things? | Room and board. |
| What is ESM formerly known as? | Subsistence in Kind. |
| ESM is food furnished for whom? | Enlisted personnel at government expense. |
| All products designed and controlled by HQ AFPC are considered what type of products? | All products are considered standard products. |
| Standard products include what type of products? | All programmed products, transaction registers, RIP products, and MAPs. |
| The management assessment products (MAP) and MPS management tool were designed to help with what personnel actions? | They were designed to help identify potential errors and assist with database integrity issues. |
| What is the intent of MAP and tools? | They help identify potential database errors, and it should not be the only database management accuracy verification. |
| What actions will a personnelist in the MPS take once they receive supporting documents from a member for a personnel action? | A personnelist will conduct a quality check on the paperwork and make any corrections necessary. |
| Once the personnelist updates the MilPDS, what happens to the update? | The update is used to flow information to the DFAS. |
| The human resource (HR)-case management system (CMS) was initially developed by HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) and Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems? | Pay. |
| Regardless of who maintains a member’s personal information, the unit personnel information file (PIF) must be established and maintained in accordance with what Air Force instruction (AFI)? | AFI 36–2608, Military Personnel Records System. |
| If a PIF is established what form must be used? | AF Form 10A, Personnel Information File, Record of Performance, Officer Command Selection Record Group (Folder). |
| Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and | no one else. |
| The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items? | Room and board. |
| What factor below is the essential station messing (ESM) entitlement not based on? | Number of people member lives with. |
| Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed | rations in-kind. |
| Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and | daily. |
| How many months must the Personnel System Management (PSM) element retain the certified copy of the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) data change transaction register (TR)? | Six. |
| Who should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks? | Personnel System Management manager. |
| Which management assessment product (MAP) selects all individuals who have negative indicators such as an unfavorable information file (UIF), reenlistment eligibility, promotion eligibility and lost time? | Six. |
| The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) is used to update what type of personnel action to the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) files? | Reenlistments and extensions. |
| Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to access the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA) file to pull what type of product? | T18. |
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