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3S071 vol 3
Edit Code 01
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a UIF? | The UIF is an official record of unfavorable information about an individual |
| What does the UIF document? | The UIF documents administrative judicial, or nonjudicial censures concerning the member’s performance, responsibility, and behavior. |
| What does the UIF consist of? | The UIF consists of mandatory documents, optional documents (at the commander’s discretion), AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Actions, and AF IMT 1137, Unfavorable Information File Summary. |
| Who will appoint an individual to act as the UIF monitor? | The MPS commander will appoint an individual to act as the base UIF monitor. |
| When is the UIF monitor responsible to conduct UIF training? | The UIF monitor is responsible for training annually, within 60 days of notification of appointment of a new unit UIF monitor, and upon request from a unit commander or when it appears training is needed. |
| How many days does the individual have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes the final decision? | The individual (enlisted and officer) has 3 duty days (current date plus 3 duty days) to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes the final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF. |
| What does the commander use the control roster for? | rehabilitative tool to establish a 6-month observation period for individuals whose duty performance is substandard, or who fail to meet or maintain Air Force standards of conduct, bearing, and integrity, on or off-duty. |
| What Management Assessment Product is located on the MilPDS support webpage and is used as a management tool to monitor transactions to identify data discrepancies and local training needs? | Utilize MAP6-ENHANCEMENTS-QUALITY-CHECK roster located on the MilPDS support webpage as a management tool to monitor transactions to identify data discrepancies and local training needs. |
| Who maintains the UIF and all of its documents/contents until the final disposition date, unless early removal of the document of the UIF is warranted? | Commanders maintain the UIF and all of its documents/contents until the final disposition date, unless early removal of the document of the UIF is warranted. |
| Who may direct removal of derogatory data from the Officer Selection Record (OSR) at any time? | The wing commander (equivalent), imposing or issuing authority, whichever is higher. |
| What are the 3 main program objectives of the casualty program? | 1) Closely track all casualty reports and notifications 2) Provide (CAR) reports of casualties for timely notification of NOK 3) To eliminate delays in benefits to the NOK. |
| Name one responsibility of HQ AFPC/DPFC. | Administers policies on deceased, missing, (DUSTWUN), very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), incapacitating illness or injury (III), and not seriously ill or injured (NSI) personnel. |
| Name one responsibility of the MAJCOM. | The MAJCOM ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the MAJCOM Commander’s Orientation Program. |
| Name one responsibility of the installation commander. | The installation commander ensures all base agencies fully support the objectives of the Air Force Casualty Services Program, and provide the CAR access to all known information and documents needed to report casualties. |
| What publications apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties? | AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures; AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program; AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program; and Section 546 of Public Law 108-136, the National Defense Authorization Act for FY2004. |
| During the casualty notification process, how should the member be treated? | That each person involved in the casualty reporting, notification and assistance process should give every consideration to ensure the release of casualty information does not adversely affect the member, the NOK, the Air Force, or public morale. |
| After the CAR confirms with HQ AFPC/DPFCS (AF Casualty Operations) that all NOK have been notified, the MPS commander is authorized to release casualty information to the installation PA office under what circumstances? | 1) the casualty is an AF member, notification officer must confirm completed notification with the servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty to the installation PA office and (2) if the casualty is a fore |
| When the United States is involved in hostilities or terrorist acts, HQ AFPC/DPFCS releases casualty information to whom? | To HQ AFPC/PA after notifying all NOK. |
| Who’s responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor? | Commander. |
| Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor? | 30. |
| How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision? | 3 duty days. |
| Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF? | Customer Support element. |
| All of the following are Customer Support element responsibilities | -update Article 15 related actions. -utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool. -update UIF codes 1, 2, and 3. |
| What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions? | G. |
| What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions? | 12 and 16. |
| After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive? | TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. |
| If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT form must he/she utilize? | 1058. |
| Who’s responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next-of-kin? | Military Personnel Section commander. |
| It is the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare written instructions to supplement AFI 36–3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below | -installation command post. -unit commanders. -security forces. |
| Once the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office the member’s | name, age, home of record, and race. |
| If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment? | Humanitarian. |
| In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact? | Casualty team. |
| All of the following are publications that apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties | -AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures. -AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program. -AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Act Program. |
| How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public? | 24. |
| In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an Air Force member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty? | The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS. |
| For ill or injured casualties, all of the following personal information may be released | -name and gender. -rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number. -date entered active duty. |
| For deceased casualties, all of the following personal information may be released | -pay date, military base pay, and allowances. -age and date of birth. -home of record. |
| After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military member/s? | DD Form 93, SGLV 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI. |
| Upon receipt of Assignment Notification Report on Individual Personnel (RIP) from the Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center, how many days does the Career Development element have to verify the member’s eligibility? | Seven calendar days. |
| If the Career Development element determines the member is ineligible for reassignment, the Assignment Notification RIP (along with other pertinent data) is sent to whom? | The unit commander. |
| Upon official assignment notification, the Career Development element will prepare what type of folder? | A relocation folder. |
| What documents are filed in the relocation folder? | Assignment selection ltr, msg, or RIP, AF IMT 907, Reassignment orders and memo, relocation processing memo, SGLV 8286, PCS departure certification statement (endorsed copy of PCS orders), and all other documents pertaining to the member’s relocation. |
| Formal training is responsible for ensuring what? | All allocated quotas are effectively managed. |
| What does OTA provide? | A standardized system to effectively execute formal training across the Air Force and works in conjunction with other training administration programs. |
| What is the policy on Training Line Numbers? | The policy on Training Line Numbers is focused on the Formal Training office located in the MPS in the Career Development element. |
| If the formal training office is outside of the MPS, who is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers? | The Career Development element. |
| Why was the Virtual Enlisted Promotion Release created? | To transform the delivery of enlisted promotion information. |
| What does the web-based promotion release application eliminate? | The delay some members experience when trying to determine their select/non-select status. |
| What agency will place the promotion list on the AFPC Secure and public websites? | HQ AFPC. |
| Who administers the officer promotion program through the Chief of Staff, USAF, and the Deputy Chief of Staff for Personnel? | The Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF). |
| If a permanent party member has a permanent change of station, what system do they use to outprocess? | Defense integrated military human resource system. |
| When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the member’s eligibility? | 7. |
| Once the Career Development element verifies the member’s eligibility for an assignment, who do they send the assignment rip to? | Superintendent of the Career Development Element. |
| Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section? | 14. |
| The following documents are located in the relocation folder | -assignment selection letter, message, or RIP. -reassignment orders and all amendments. -relocation processing memorandum. |
| Where is the AF IMT 907 kept? | In the relocation folder. |
| Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment? | 63. |
| If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element forward to the member’s commander? | Security requirement memorandum. |
| Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment | overseas. |
| If a member requires a passport and/or visa, the Career Development element will advise the members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than how many days after their initial briefing? | 15. |
| Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure? | 60. |
| If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can outprocess no earlier than | 1 duty day prior to departure date. |
| What is the name of the system the Career Development element utilizes to manage training rips? | Oracle training administration. |
| If a member is going contingency TDY, which element will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures? | Personnel Readiness. |
| If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force PME and formal training, what system would use? | Oracle training administration. |
| If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers? | Career Development element. |
| To ensure training quotas are managed effectively the formal training section is responsible to ensure all the following | -individuals have the commander’s approval. -individuals filling quotas are qualified. -individuals follow reporting instructions. |
| What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application? | Eliminates the delay of notification. |
| Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name | name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. |
| The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Section will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of the following | -the board convening date. -name and rank of the most junior officer. -name and rank of the most senior officer. |
| Which element/function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion? | Career Development element. |
| What does the UPMR contain? | The UPMR is a cross between an alpha roster and the unit manning document. |
| What does the UPMR show? | The UPMR shows the authorized positions with such associated information as: position number, duty air force specialty code, authorized grade, functional account code, personnel accounting symbol, and required security clearance level. |
| Each position is authorized how many incumbents? | Each position is authorized one incumbent, however, under some circumstances, a second individual could be assigned for a limited period of time. |
| What does the UPMR highlight? | The UPMR also highlights any mismatches between what is authorized for each position and what the position incumbent has for assigned data. |
| Describe the duty status reporting tool. | Duty status reporting is an essential tool allowing commanders to identify names, strength accountability,and availability of personnel. |
| What type of picture does duty status give? | Duty status data gives a clear picture to HQ AFPC and the MAJCOM of a unit’s available strength, which impacts personnel tasked with operations or exercise commitments. |
| In order to have an effective duty status program, what needs to happen? | To have an effective duty status program and accurate Force Accountability on Air Force members, the member’s duty status should be reported and updated any time there is a change in their status, i.e. Hospital, TDY, confinement, AWOL, leave. |
| What will the commander utilize to initiate a duty status case? | The commander will utilize the BLSDM dashboard to initiate the duty status change into the case management system (CMS). |
| What is the purpose of the Personnel Reliability Program? | The purpose of the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) is to ensure that each person who performs duties involving nuclear weapons meets the reliability standards of the PRP. |
| What are the two possible designations in all PRP positions? | All PRP positions shall be formally designated as either critical or controlled and restricted to the minimum number required to accomplish the mission. |
| What is the job of the reviewing official? | The reviewing official ensures the requirements of the PRP are implemented and all personnel comply with applicable standards. |
| What is the job of the certifying official? | The certifying official will make judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for PRP duties. |
| Which mission personnel section element manages the unit personnel management documents? | Force Management operations element. |
| What AFI, AFMAN, or computer systems manual will the Force Development operations element utilize to update an active duty arrival? | AFCSM 36–699. |
| The unit manning document provides all of the following except authorized positions a unit is allowed to | share with other units. |
| When units identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document, who will they work with to get the changes completed? | Functional area manager. |
| PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following | -Air Staff. -Joint Staff. -other DOD agencies |
| If you are looking for a system to initiate duty status change applications for confinement, absent without leave, and deserter status, what system would you use? | Case management system. |
| Which element/function updates the duty status for all contingency TDYs? | Personnel Readiness Function. |
| Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the first to review the duty status change application? | TFSC. |
| Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an airman’s prolonged assignment outside of the normal career progression pattern. To negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between | all airmen in the same CAFSC. |
| Airman are not used outside of their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code | O. |
| For personnel assigned to a critical personnel reliability program position, all of these attributes apply | -has access and technical knowledge. -can either directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon. -has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit. |
| For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program position, all of these attributes apply | -has access, but no technical knowledge. -controls access into areas containing nuclear weapons. -is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons. |
| Who will the reviewing official work with if they need to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions? | Competent medical authority. |
| When a certifying official is conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program, the interview will cover, as a minimum all of the following | -the significance of the PRP assignment. -the need for reliable performance. -provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information. |
| What is the main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliability program? | Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information. |
Created by:
rie_spc
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