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CDC 3S051 Vol 2 & 3

QuestionAnswer
In order for joint doctrine to promote a perspective that is used to plan, train, and conduct military operations, it represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is what works best)
What process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforseen crises? joint operation planning
The provision of logistics and personnel sercives required to maintain aand prolong operations until successful mission accomplishment describes sustainment planning
Total force accountability is defined as the accurate accounting for all Air Force at all times regardless of location
Total force accountability can be expanded by the theater commander or the supported command to include all of the following except: -DOD emergency civilians -DOD essential contractor personnel -dependents -allied forces dependents
PERSCO maintains acctblty over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed & designated geographically separated location, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes which element of totaly force acct? strength
The guard is a unique institution with both federal and state missions
The air and space expeditionary force's (AEF) primary purpose is warfighter support
Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations that are postured in unit type codes. These unit type codes are aligned in one of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries
The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through which concept? Air and space expeditionary (AEF)
Global Force Managemtn (GFM) is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements
AF manpower and logisitics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time-phased force deployment data are used in support of all of the following except: -operations plan,OPLAN -concept of operations,CONPLAN -operations order,OPORD -scedule of events,S schedule of events (SOE)
A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once it is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail
Standard UTCs are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for all of the following except: -deployment -movement planning -sustainment actions -plan execution sustainment actions
Which UTC attribute is a code identifying the deployment status of a UTC? deployment indicator
Personnel UTCs are generally built to accomodate how many days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel? 30
Each of these agencies can initiate UTC development except: -Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional area management (FAM) -Major command (MAJCOM) -Air National Guard (ANG) -Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS) Base Levl Military Personnel Section (MPS)
When a UTC is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled? MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA)
UTCs that are cancelled remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for how many years? one
All Air Force personnel contribute to the AEF; therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the unit type code (UTC)availability
Specific UTCs to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritizationand sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the AEFC AEF Online Web site
A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the AEF libraries
The purpose of mobilization planning is the means by which organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks
Normally, Push-Pull will not be recommended unless all of the following factors are present except: major contingencies involve large deployments
Push-Pull will be recommended when what factors are present? large deployments of AF forces are required accompanied by extended personnel shortages, shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing, and PIM resources represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages
Once the separation, personnel data system (PDS) action flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to 20
When will the flow of data from the active file to the ANG/USAFR file occur? at the time of the initial separation projection
In order to demobilize a member, demobilization orders are not required. The personnelist needs what two documents to verify the deactivation? DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher
Individuals may request retention on active duty because of all of the following except: -educational hardship -personal hardship -financial hardship -medical hardship educational hardship
Once the wing/installation commander completes the installation deployment officer (IDO) & alternate IDO appointment letter, all of these receive a copy except: -command post -security forces -respective MAJCOM/A4 -battle staff/crisis action team (BS/ security forces
Who determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy? wing/installation commander
At a minimum, each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks what percent of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs indentified in the UTC Availability? 25
The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within how many hours? 96
The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for what? supports & assists the IDO in resolving issues at the lowest level, supports the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness, & coordinates w/ the LRS/CC & the IDO & recommends to the wing CC the frequency & scope of instlltn exercises
The MSG/CC is not responsible for facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process
All of these make up the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) ecxept: -Installation deployment officer (IDO) -personnel readiness function (PRF) -logistic readiness flight (LGRR) -unit manpower document (UMD) unit manpower document (UMD)
W/in how many hours of an emergency event will HQ AFPC/PRC publish a message to the MAJCOM CAT drctrs w/a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 rep. outlining accountability procedures requiring all bases to identify prsnnl who are TDY, on base, or on leave 48
What category title will the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) make provisions to include evacuation plans on? 32
Who will each MAJCOM and the NGB direct to ensure all wing/installation commandersand GSUs have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency? Plans and Requirements (A5)
In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, members are encouraged to report their status to any responding agency
Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate? unit commander
MAJCOMs own base-level GCCS-AF equipments and are responsible for all of the following except: -software upgrades -warranty information -initial load of software -replacement parts initial load of software
Personnel planners are responsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT)and equipment are scheduled with what team? ADVON
Which UTC is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team? RFPF1
Which UTC is a dependent team consisting of four individuals and cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location? RFPF2
Training is the primary factor in what deployment phase? Planning
Who serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members? FSS UDM
The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor
What is one of the best ways to make the newcomer's move as smooth as possible? call them
As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer? what type of vehicle do you drive?
For information about on- and off-base housing, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go? Base housing office
After the initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet and the records review listing (RRL)are updated, ensure they are reviewed and forwarded to HQ AFPC/ARMS
What form is used to document a member's active duty service commmitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)? AF IMT 63, Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) Acknowledgement Statment
Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are collected by the personnelist
For officers, all of the following can look at UIFs except: -CC's at all levels assigned or attached to their unit -a member's peer who works in the MPS -MAJCOM CC, vice CCs, staff dir. & dir. -chiefs of staff, their dep & assts & other staff agency h a member's peer who works in the MPS
For enlisted members, who is not allowed to look at UIFs? the member's wing or unit chaplain
When filing an optional UCMJ Article 15, Nonjudicial Punishment, in a member's UIF do not use AF Form 3070A, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceeding (AB thru TSgt)
An officer reveices a letter of reprimand (LOR). What action must the commander take using the AF IMT 1058, UIF Action? The commander does not submit the AF IMT 1058 to the officer and LORs must be filed in an officer's UIF
How many days does an individual (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes the final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF? three duty days
Who is not subject to LOD determinations? -active duty AF members -ARC members who die, incur or aggravate an illness/injury -JROTC members -AFROTC members JROTC member
A LOD determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in what? death of a member, inability to perform duties for over 24 hours, likelihood of disability
During the LOD process, which of the following is the Customer Support element at the MPS not responsible for? -making medical determination -directing LOD to required authorities -monitoring suspenses -disposing of final documentation making medical determination
HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DSAS controls and approves all military personnel surveys, questionnaires, telephone interviews, and attitude opinion polls
When requesting survey approval, HQ AFPC/DPSAS does not require you to: -state the purpose & justification for the proposed research -indicate how you will use results -state the different types of surveys used last fiscal year -provide point of conta state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year
All approved, non-local surveys show one of the following except: -survey control number -report control symbol -Office of Management & Budget number -fiscal year number fiscal year number
Which of the following types of insurance does the government not offer? -Mutual Life Insurance (MLI) -Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) -Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) -Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI) Mutual Life Insurance (MLI)
In relation to insurance, the Customer Support has all of the following responsibilities except: -managing the SGLI Handbook -ensuring compliance with AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services -counseling & providing monthly rates -maintaining & completing VA fo ensuring compliance with AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services
An important benefit of the SGLI is the ability to convert it to what type of insurance after leaving the military? Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI)
FSGLI expands SGLI coverage to whom? spouses and children
All of the following children are eligible for an ID card except: -child, unmarried, under 21, adopted -child, unmarried, under 25 -child, unmarried, under 21, stepchild -legal custody ward, including foster children child, unmarried, under 25
ID card verifying and issuing officials cannot be: -commissioned officer -warrent officer -below grade E-4 -general schedule 4 and above civilian below grade of E-4
Once you retrieve ID cards, you may do all of the following except: -destroy -shred -cut -line out line out
Members are eligible for join spouse assignment consideration unless they: are on extended active duty with the AF and the spouse is civilian
What form is used as the primary document to record the marriage of a military couple? AF IMT 1048, Military Spouse Information
Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code? -A -B -C -H C
How many members does the Air Force Board of Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) consists of? three
What form is used to apply for correction to military records? DD Form 149, Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of Title 10, U.S.C., Section 1552
You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at all of the following locations except: -Finance Services Office -any Air Force MPS -most veteran's service organization -Air Force Review Boards Office Finance Services Office
What is the responsibility of the military personnel section as it pertains to casualty services? publish required installation supplements to AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services
In order for an enlisted Airmen to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grades MSgt through CMSgt
What are the three types of casualty reports? hostile, non-hostile, and pending
The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the LOD and is paid by the AF to the surviving spouse or children
The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) annuity paid is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies, but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55
A reassignment or deferment request must be initiated by the member
To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, criterion are a vacancy must exist at the new duty station & the mmbr must meet retainability requirements, the problem involving is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem, the member's presence must be essential to alleviate it
What is not a reason to substantiate a humanitarian assignment request? the member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete
An initial relocation briefing should be conducted within how many days? 15 calendar days
If the CDE has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what can they do in order to save time? mass briefings
An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates, and a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate
What is not needed with a DTDP application? proof of insurance for any POV being shipped to dependents location
What form from the military personnel records does the MPS, career development element extract information from for a member wishing to apply for miscellaneous separation? AF IMT 31, Airman's Request for Early Separation/Separation based on Change in Service Obligation
How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement? 20
Which of the following certificates are not given to retiring member? -DD Form 363AF, Cert of Retirement -DD Form 2542, Cert of Appreciation for Service in the Armed Forces of the US -DD Form 220, AD Report -AF Form 1344, Cert of Appreciation for Spou DD Form 220, Active Duty Report
Who in the military personnel section is responsibile for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection? career development element
How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant? 30
The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification? fourth
Within how many days of the first processing month must the BTZ-E4 promotion product be scheduled to run? 10
The SNCO promotion program is a two-phase selection process that combines factors from WAPS and the evaluation board
Within how many months of their original ETS does a second-term Airman receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration? 13
First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive SRP consideration? 33 (57 for six-year enlistees)
How many total months can second-term Airmen extend their current enlistments? 48
How many days leave can Airmen sell if they've sold any since 10 February 1976? 60
Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of the following except: -graduating students from formal training -planning formal training -controlling formal training -funding formal training graduating students from formal training
The policy on training line numbers is focused on the formal training office being located in the FSS/FSDE. If the formal training office is located outside the FSS/FSDE, who is repsonsible for the requirements outlined in this process? the responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE
Retraining requirements are determined by Air Staff and career field managers
What training code status can a second-term Airman not be in to be eligible for the NCORP? -M -N -O -P O
Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control? -loss of security clearance -drug or alcohol incovolvement -failure to progress in training -a medical condition a medical condition
Who is responsible for accomplishing an AF IMT 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, when a member does not have another awarded AFSC? Career development element
The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for active duty members
What grades can incur an ADSC? Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel
What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option? Financial counseling
What document(s) do commanders use to determine a member's eligibility for the CSB? ARMS and the Commander's Management Roster (CMR)
The UMD is a product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote
Over how many years does a UMD list positions that will be deleted? two
Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status
Restrict recommendations for decorations to all of the following except: -training honor graduates -meritorious service -outstanding achievement -acts of heroism training honor graduates
What two agencies does duty status data provide a clear picture to? HQ AFPC and MAJCOMs
What duty status code is used to represent present for duty (PFD)? 00
What form is used to document personnel reliability program (PRP) certification? AF Form 286, Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) Qualification/Certification Action
Which of the following output products does not generate during PRP processing? -PRP status P, R, P roster -Administrative qualification record of individual personnel (RIP) -PRP status A, B, C roster -PRP change roster PRP status P, R, P roster
The enlisted assignment preference is used for continental US or overseas assignments
Members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with all of the following except: -family members -supervisors -unit leave monitors -commanders unit leave monitors
How many months, minimum, time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)? 0
How many days are months computed when you are computing service dates? 30
The expression "use or lose" refers to leave days. In excess of how many days will be lost bu the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used? 60
Leave must being and end where? In the local area
Who does the commander and first sergeant forward an evaluation report to, for further processing, once they ensure it is accurate and technically correct? Military personnel section
Once the military personnel section receives an evaluation report, what do they do if they find errors? return to the unit for corrections
Airmen using self service module for supplemental promotion should complete the application, upload or fax any supporting documents and route the request electronically to what office? Total Force Service Center (TFSC)
The human resource (HR)-case management system (CMS) was initally developed my HQ-AFPC and AF Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems? pay
Regardless of who maintains a member's personal information, the unit personnel information file (PIF) myst be established and maintained in accordance with what AFI? AFI 36-2608, Military Personnel Records System
If a PIF is established what form must be used? AF Form 10A, Personnel Information File, Record of Performance, Officer Command Selection Record Group (Folder)
Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset the costs for members and no one else
The BAS is based on the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items? room and board
What factor below is the essential station messing (ESM) entitlement not based on? -location & capacity of dining facilities -location of living quarters -duty hours -number of people member lives with number of people member lives with
Essential Station Messing (ESM) is also termed rations-in-kind
Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced daily
How many months must the Personnel System Management (PSM) element retain the certified copy of the DJMS data change transaction register? six
Who should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks? Personnel System Management (PSM) manager
Which management assessment product (MAP) selects all individuals who have negative indicators such and a UIF, reenlistment eligibility, promotion eligibility, and lost time? six
The DJMS is used to update what type of personnel action to the DFAS files? Reenlistments and extensions
Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to access the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA) file to pull what type of product? T18
Created by: 1589940093