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3DX5X Volume 1

3DX5X CDCs Volume 1 UREs

(001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)? Duty Position Task
(001) Which enlisted training element is defind as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field? Core Competency
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide? Cyber Systems Operations
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions? Client Systems
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices? Radio Frequency Transmission
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, groud air control, and warning radar systems? Ground Radar Systems
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations? Cable and Antenna Systems
(002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field? Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
(002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)? Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
(002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)? Major command functional manager (MFM)
(002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)? Base functional manager (BFM)
(002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)? Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment"? 91-46
(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems"? 91-50
(003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard... 91-64
(003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating? Nonionizing radiation
(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk? Accept no unnecessary risk
(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability? Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process? Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
(005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by... Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
(006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas? Supervisory control and data acquisition
(007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks? Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
(007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes? Network Control Center (NCC)
(008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages? Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
(008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)? Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
(008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenence costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter? Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
(009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States? Constitution
(009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps? United States Title Code 10
(009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law? Uniform Code of Military Justice
(010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD? 1995
(010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine? 1998
(010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility? Air Force Policy Directives
(010) Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents? Air Force Pamphlets
(011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographcial distances to communicate? Telecommunications
(011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location? Air Force Portal
(011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for ther transformation task forces? Air Force Portal
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized user to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement? Single-sign-on
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal? virtual Military Personnel Flight
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems? Community of practice
(013) Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use"? AFI 33-129
(013) Prior to posting web content to an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites? AFI 35-101
(013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette? Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature
(014) Which document is not considered an official government record? Library reference or museum exhibitions
(014) Records that are considered to be in draft format... can be altered and are not officially released
(014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic? Officially signed and officially released
(015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers? Command records manager
(015) Whos duties include providing assitance, managing staging areas, and records training? Base records manager
(015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management? Functional area records manager
(015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record? Chief of Office of Records
(016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an... Record
(016) A logical group of records is call a/an... File
(016) An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an... Database
(016) Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR) records custodian? Functional area records manager
(017) Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management Second step
(017) The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure... we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed
(018) What authorization generates a file disposition contral label for each item listed on the office's file plan? Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS)
(018) What determines the cutoff for active records? Retention period
(018) A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a... disposition
(019) For which exception will federal records centers accept records haveing less that 3 years of retention? Base closures
(019) Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization? Standard Form 135
(019) The proper way we destroy records to prevent compormise is by... any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction
(020) AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model? Tempo bands
(020) Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements? Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)
(020) What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? Posturing
(021) Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air compnent commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major war within the scape and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces? Air and Space Operations Center
(021) Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)? Unit Type Codes (UTC)
(021) Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastucture designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources? Theater deployable communications
(022) Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Releif Operations (HUMRO), Non-combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of... operational capabilities packages
(022) Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command? Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK)
(023) A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is call a/an... unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV)
(023) As of September 2004, how many flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM? 100,000
(023) Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in the near real-time? High altitude endurance (HAE)
(024) Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations? Modularity-scalability
(024) Which theater(TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment? Mobility
(024) Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network? Integrated communications access package (ICAP)
(025) Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and seperate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather? Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS)
(025) Which system asset can be tasked to provide liason, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination? Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS)
(026) The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the.. Air Combat Command (ACC)
(027) Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information? Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)
(027) What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enchances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations? Global Information Grid (GIG)
(028) Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the globeal information grid (GIG) and interconnected through SIPRNET? Global Command and Control System (GCCS)
(028) Which major system employs the Joint Operations Planning and Execution System, Global Status of Resources and Training Sysytem, Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments, and Common Operational Picture systems? Global Command and Control System (GCCS)
(029) Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements? Global Combat Support System (GCSS)
(029) Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and of United States Department of State? Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)
(030) Which Air Force specific system uses the GIG backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces and Joint/Combined Forces? Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)
(030) Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility,speed,reliability,and joint interoperability? Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)
(031) Which command and control structure is a priority component of the GIG designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities? National Military Command System(NMCS)
(032) Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages(EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field? Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)
(032) Which command and control structure has network nodes whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths? Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)
(033) Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems? SEAMARK
(034) Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?" Distributed Common Groudn Station (DCGS)
(034) Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dessemination (TPED)? Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)
(035) Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)? Base Control System-Fixed(BCS-F)
(036) Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direst broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters? Global Broadcast Service (GBS)
(036) Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka Band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)? Global Broadcast Service (GBS)
(037) Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communciations System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) missions? High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS)
(037) Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultrahigh frequency satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while abroad special airlift mission aircraft? Mystic Star
(038) Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airforce targets with minimal or no support? Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS)
(038) Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS)
(039) Which function provides DOD with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via PC, PDAs, land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time? AtHoc's solutions
Created by: herdairman
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