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smc volume 3 review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the normal capacity of the automotive dispensing system storage tank? | 5,000 gallons. |
| What are the vent requirements for an automotive dispensing system? | Vent pipe normally extends above the ground level to a height of at least 12 feet; when next to a building, it extends 2 feet above the roof line. |
| How far from the bottom of the automotive dispensing system tank can the fill line be? | 3 inches from the tank bottom. |
| What type of cap is used on the gauging hatch of an automotive dispensing system? | A weather-tight locking cap. |
| What are the dimensions of the service station tank cleanout line and how is it used? | 3/4-inch in diameter and should extend 12 inches above the grade. They are used to remove water and sediment from the bottom of the tank. |
| What component on the suction line prevents reverse flow? | The foot valve. |
| What type of pump is used when a foot valve is not required? | A submersible or submerged pump. |
| What is the difference between a single- and a dual-dispensing, self-contained unit? | The single unit has one meter and one computer with a register. The dual has two meters and two computer registers. |
| What self-contained unit uses a higher horsepower motor? | The dual dispensing unit. |
| What is the difference between a dual-dispensing single-product unit and a dual-dispensing dual-product unit? | The dual-dispensing, dual-product unit has two pumps. |
| What electrical components are used inside automotive dispensing units? | Explosion-proof. |
| When the float chamber is full, through where is the fuel in the float chamber dispensed? | To the suction side of the pump. |
| What dispensing system has revolutionized service station planning and improved service? | The submerged pump. |
| The National Fire Protection Association requires what valve to be used with the submersible pump unit? | An emergency shutoff valve. |
| What component in a submerged pump service station system prevents pressure from entering island dispensers that are not being used? | The hydraulic control valve. |
| The AFSS provides self-service fuel dispensing without the need for what? | A service station attendant. |
| What is the purpose of the manual override switches? | They override the programming functions of the VIR to permit product dispensing in the event of a lost VIL or equipment malfunction. |
| How is the 16-position membrane keypad configured? | It has selectors for numbers 0 through 9, ENTER and CLEAR, and four A-D functions. |
| What quantity is accepted if the shipping document indicates that meters were used to determine the quantity loaded? | The quantity on the shipment document is accepted as received. |
| Where are visual samples taken from tank truck receipts? | From the lower third of one tank/compartment on each tank truck receipt. |
| Who operates the nozzle at the service station? | The vehicle operator. |
| How can you determine whether the receiving strainer is clean or dirty, and requires cleaning? | By checking the differential pressure gauge. |
| Name four functions of the filter separator control valve. | (1) Acts as a flow control. (2) Water slug shutoff. (3) Check valve. (4) Maximum differential pressure shut-off. |
| When is an automatic bypass valve installed around the receiving filter separator? | When fuel is received directly from a commercial or cross-country pipeline. |
| What component on the pump control panel indicates whether the bypass valve is open or closed? | A light. |
| Which receiving meter component indicates on the pump control panel the amount of fuel being received? | Electronic digital counter. |
| What is the pipe configuration of the receiving manual valves? | Four manual valves with two for tank receipt and two for receiving fuel from the hydrant loop into the tanks. |
| When are on-base bulk storage tanks used as the operating storage tanks? | When they are within 1 mile of the fueling apron. |
| What type of reading does the tank level indicators provide and where can these readings be observed? | Local and remote fuel level readings; local at the tanks, remote on the pump control panel. |
| What will the low-level indicator alarm do if it's actuated? | It will give a visual and audible alarm and shut down all operating fueling pumps that might be operating at the time. |
| What type of manual valve is the operating storage tank outlet valve? | A nonlubricated, double-block and bleed valve. |
| What color pump control panel light indicates that the tank outlet valve is open? | Green. |
| What size and type of tank does the product recovery system use? | 4,000 gallon, double-wall, steel tank. |
| What parts of the system does the product recovery tank collect fuel and water from? | Pressure relief valves, strainer drains, filter separator automatic water drains, low/high point drains, and operating storage tank water draw-off. |
| What type of pump is used to remove water from the product recovery tank? | Hand-operated pump. |
| How many manifolds are in the issue pipeline and where are they located? | Three. Suction header, pump discharge header, and filter separator. |
| What type of pumps are used as fueling pumps; what is their rated capacity? | Single-stage centrifugal, horizontal-mounted, vertical or radial split case, with a rating of 600 gpm when driven at 3,600 rpm. |
| At what pressure does the lead fueling pump energize, and what system component senses that pressure? | When the pressure in the hydrant loop drops to 60 psi; the pressure indicator transmitter sends a signal to the microprocessor. |
| At what flow rate does the nonsurge check valve control flow through the pump? | 650 gpm. |
| What type of component on the emergency shutoff valve causes the valve to close when an emergency-stop button is pushed? | The solenoid. |
| What flow range can be read on the low-range DPTs? | 0 to 1,000 gpm. |
| What should the loop pressure be if the type III hydrant system is idle? | 60 to 75 psi. |
| How much pull does it take to open the hydrant pit lid, and how much push does it take to close it? | 30 to open and 50 to close. |
| What is the adjustable pressure range of the hydrant control valve, and what pressure does it maintain? | 15 to 75 psi; it should maintain 50 psi. |
| What is the pressure drop when you are using a D-1 single-point adapter on a 1,200 gpm system? | No more than 28 psi. |
| What happens if a deadman hose ruptures? | The main valve will close in a maximum of 5 seconds. |
| The back pressure control valve opens when the loop reaches what pressure? | Roughly 130 psi. |
| What position should the defuel/flush valve be in during refueling? | Closed. |
| What happens to the defuel/flush valve when all the refueling pumps stop? | It opens to help the pressure control valve reduce the hydrant loop pressure to 80 psi. |
| Where is the pressure developed to open the defuel/flush valve for defueling? | Hydrant servicing vehicle. |
| The defuel/flush valve allows what flow range during system flushing, and what system components determine the flow rate within that range? | 300 to 2,400 gpm, depending on the number of fueling pumps used; differential pressure transmitter. |
| What are the ranges of the four differential pressure transmitters? | Low 0 to 100 gpm, high 0 to 800 gpm. |
| How many single-point adapters are there on the R-12 check-out stand? | Four. |
| What color lines are on the graphic display and what do they indicate? | Green--receiving and hydrant loop return line. Yellow--pump suction, from the storage tank discharge lines to the inlet of the pumps, and water draw-off line. Blue--pump discharge and hydrant loop. |
| How can you tell which fueling pumps are operating if you're in the pump control room? | By the green lights on the pump control panel. |
| The resonating horn sounds to indicate what problems? | Emergency stop, low level operating tanks, and high-level operating tanks. |
| What must you do to silence the horns? | Acknowledge the alert condition. |
| What does each pressure/flow recorder channel plot? | The three channels plot system pressure, issue flow rates, and return flow rates. |
| How many microprocessors are there? | Two. |
| What happens if one of the microprocessors fails? | The other microprocessor automatically assumes control of the system. |
| What does it mean if the microprocessor's battery status LED is lit? | The battery is low on power. |
| In programming the microprocessor, what happens if the information entered is outside that address's parameter? | The 20-charactor, alphanumeric display indicates "Invalid Entry." |
| Where are the "hot pads" normally located? | Just off the taxiway. |
| How is fuel received in the type IV pressurized hot fueling system storage tanks? | From bulk storage. |
| What prevents the 600-gpm, deep-well turbine pumps from going dry? | Low-level shutoff switch. |
| What component is designed to maintain a constant pressure to the loop? | The venturi flow control. |
| How is the fuel flow controlled on the type V hydrant system? | By a deadman control valve installed in each shelter. |
| What determines if another pump is required when two aircraft are being serviced at the same time? | The computer in the control panel. |
| How are the flow and pressure recorder records of great value to the LFM personnel? | They help identify and eliminate any problems that might occur in the system. |
| Why should the lead pump designation be change periodically? | So all pumps will have basically the same amount of running time. |
| What type III system components sense the pressure downstream of the emergency shutoff valve? | Pressure indicator transmitters. |
| At what pressure will the back pressure control valve modulate open when the type III system is pressurized? | 130 psi. |
| In a type III system, what pressure control valve component keeps the valve closed when the fuel pumps are running? | Solenoid. |
| In a type III system, at what hydrant loop pressure will the PIT signal the microprocessor to stop the lead pump? | 175 psi. |
| In a type III system, where is excess pressure from thermal expansion relieved? | Back to the tank. |
| When the lead pump in a type III system is running, what flow rate through the return venturi starts the second pump? | Less than 40 gpm. |
| In a type III system, how many pumps are running if the flow rate is 1,800 gpm? | Three. |
| If a pump in a type III system fails to start when called on by the microprocessor, what happens? | The next idle pump in the predetermined sequence will start. |
| When issuing with a type IV system, what must the hot refueling supervisor take into consideration when positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad"? | Wind direction. |
| When issuing with a type IV system, if an aircraft is suspected or known to have hot brakes, what action must be taken? | The aircraft must depart the "hot pad" immediately. |
| What action must the aircrew take during servicing operations with a type IV system? | Maintain their hands up and/or out of the cockpit intrumentation area. |
| What action is taken once the fillstand hose is connected to the bottom loader on a fueling unit? | Pressure control valve and defuel/flush valve. |
| How many meters is the DESC Form 1233 designed to accommodate? | Three. |
| In what section of the DESC Form 1233 are beginning meter readings recorded? | Reconciliation section. |
| What types of tanks do not require a settling line? | Underground tanks of 50,000 gallons or less that does not receive directly from the supplier. |
| How is a metered transfer between bulk storage and hydrants annotated on the DESC Form 1233? | By drawing a lone through "UNIT NO." in the ISSUES section and entering "TRF TO TK NO." in the space above. |
| What is entered in column A of the AF Form 834? | Tank number or hydrant station designation, which transferred or received the product. |
| How are AF Forms 834 filed? | Filed with DESC Form 1233. |
| In what modes can the type III system be used to defuel? | Idle condition and the refueling condition mode. |
| When defueling with the type III system, where is the defuel pump located? | On the R-12. |
| If you are defueling one aircraft while another aircraft is being refueled, where does the (defueled) fuel go? | To the aircraft being refueled or into the operating tanks. |
| When performing flushing operations, when should low point drains be checked? | At the completion of the flushing operation. |
| What are the two methods of returning fuel into a belowground tank? | Gravity feed or by using the fueling unit's pump. |
| What information is recorded in the Fueling Unit Summary section of the DESC Form 1233 for returns to bulk? | The fueling unit number and the quantity returned to bulk. |
| How is the fuel/water mixture disposed of once it's drained from the product recovery system? | In accordance with the local, state, and Federal environmental laws and regulations governing your base. |
| What publication governs inspection and discrepancy reporting procedures for fuel storage and dispensing systems? | TO 37-1-1. |
| Monthly inspections of fuel storage and dispensing systems should not exceed what maximum number of days? | 31 days. |
| Who must the FMFC notify when a system is placed out of service? | Squadron commander, CE, MAJCOM energy management division, and other affected agencies. |
| What must you do if a ground wire with more than 1/3 of the wires frayed is discovered during an inspection of a hydrant system? | Replace it. |
| How often should you ensure meters are labeled with calibration data? | Daily. |
| What precaution should you take when replacing a damaged line strainer? | Always replace damaged strainers with another one of the same type and size. |
| How often will receipt strainers be inspected and cleaned when fuel is received by pipeline, barge, and tanker? | After each receipt, unless there is an installed filter within 1 mile of the base upstream of the strainer; then, clean the strainer weekly. |
| What are plug/ball valves inspected for during a weekly inspection? | Ensure handles are available, valves operate freely and easily, and lubricate as required. |
| Identification markings for petroleum storage systems should be numbered/lettered in accordance with what military standard? | MIL-STD 161. |
| During a semiannual inspection of grounding/bonding receptacles, what would a spring scale reading of less than 8 psi indicate? | The receptacle is weak or damaged and must be replaced. |
| What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 39? | It provides a monthly record of system inspections and maintenance actions. |
| How often should systems in standby status be inspected? | At least monthly and prior to the first servicing. |
| How often is the FMFC or fuels manager required to inspect the systems? | At least once a month. |
| How often should FMFC and fuels manager/superintendent review the AFTO Form 39? | Monthly. |
| Who is responsible for completing the Maintenance Status section of the AFTO Form 39? | LFM. |
| When manually gauging tanks, what time period should be observed after fuel movement before obtaining a product measurement? | 30 minutes. |
| Describe the procedures for applying fuel-finding paste to a gauge tape. | Apply a thin coat to the numbered side of the gauge tape approximately 3 inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth. |
| Why should the gauging tape be kept in constant contact with the gauging hatch at all times when obtaining product and temperature measurements? | To prevent electrical arcing. |
| How should the bob be allowed to rest while manually gauging a tank? | Vertically. |
| What is meant by "cut" while manually gauging tanks? | The point at which the fuel finding paste changes colors, or dissolves, and washes off the tape and the water finding paste changes color. |
| How many identical gauge readings should be obtained to ensure accuracy? | Two. |
| Where would the temperature be obtained from a 1,000,000-gal aboveground storage tank that is three-fourths full? | In the center of the fuel depth. |
| When obtaining a temperature reading, at least how long should the thermometer be allowed to remain in the fuel? | Five minutes. |
| List the components that make up the ITT Barton ATG module. | Measurement probe, temperature sensor/cable, tank control unit, nitrogen supply, and remote terminal unit. |
| List the types of readings a TCU can display about a tank. | Feet/inches measurements of fuel and water, fuel and water volumes in gallons, density, tank ullage, fuel temperature, and tank number. |
| The measurement probe has a minimum of how many measurement points? | Two. |
| What key on the TCU is used to get the main menu? | The ESC key. |
| When should active storage tanks be inventoried? | Daily as of 0800. |
| What steps must be taken before gauging inactive storage tanks? | Drain or pump out accumulated water. |
| What form should be used to document inventories? | DESC Form 700. |
| When completing the DESC Form 700, from what publication should the conversion factor be obtained? | The appropriate API table. |
| What form should be used to document inventories when additional sheets are required? | DESC Form 700c. |
| Why are the supporting struts between the outer and inner tanks of the cryotainer made of thin stainless steel? | To reduce the transfer of heat from the outer tank to the inner tank. |
| Why is insulation used in the annular space of a cryotainer? | To reflect most of the radiant heat away from the inner tank. |
| What is the major difference between a large cryotainer and a vacuum bottle, and why is the cryotainer pumped down until its vacuum returns to an acceptable level? | A vacuum bottle can be completely sealed, but a cryotainer cannot; therefore, a few molecules of air squeeze through the seals into the vacuum space, causing a loss of vacuum. |
| What component on the fill/drain line ensures that no particulate matter enter the cryotainer? | A filter. |
| How long do you wait for the liquid to settle down after a transfer before closing the bypass valve to obtain a quantity reading? | 10 minutes. |
| Why do the control valves on a cryotainer have long stems? | To keep the valve handles warm enough to touch safely. |
| What are the two types of safety devices on each tank that protect the operators and equipment? | Safety relief valves and rupture disc. |
| How are the transfer hoses constructed? | The inner hose is jointed stainless steel and bronze alloy; the outer hose is covered with stainless steel mesh. |
| What type of threads do LOX couplings have? | Right-handed threads. |
| What action is to be taken when a faulty gauge is discovered during the inspection of a cryotainer? | Have the assembly calibrated in accordance with the applicable technical order or replaced. |
| How do you stop a stem from leaking on a hand-operated globe valve? | Tighten the packing nut; if that doesn't work, remove the nut and add packing rings. |
| How can you tell if a LOX/LIN tank valve has a seat leakage? | By its frosted lines. |
| What solvent is approved for cleaning cryotainer components? | Trichlorotrifluoroethane (TRIC). |
| What form accompanies the tank truck during a LOX/LIN receipt? | DD Form 250. |
| What safety gear is worn during LOX/LIN issues? | Face shield, protective apron, leather gloves with inserts, and head covering; also don white coveralls for LOX servicing. |
| What valve allows the buildup of pressure in a LOX/LIN tank? | The pressure buildup valve. |
| When issuing LOX/LIN, slowly open the pressure buildup valve on the issue tank and the pressure on the pressure gauge to what level? | 10 to 15 psi (50 psi maximum). |
| What steps do you take to cool down an empty receiving tank? | Slowly open the service valve on the issue tank enough to permit a partial flow of liquid. Maintain this reduced flow rate until the receiving tank has cooled down. |
| What do you do before you disconnect the transfer hose from the receiving tank? | Relieve the pressure by pulling the hose safety relief valve. |
| What size beaker should be used to obtain an odor sample from a LOX cart? | 400 milliliters. |
| What size sample should be obtained when performing an odor test? | 200 milliliters. |
| When performing an odor sample, when would odor be most prevalent? | When the beaker has warmed to nearly room temperature. |
| When would a particulate test be required on a cryotainer? | When contamination with particulate is suspected. |
| How do particulate sampling procedures differ from odor sampling procedures? | The nitrient pad is not used. |
| How often should the vacuum on a cryotainer be checked? | Every 180 days. |
| What does the effectiveness of a high-vacuum pump depend upon? | The oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers. |
| When should cryotainers be purged? | Every 365 days; when the tank contents evaporate and the tank has warmed to ambient temperature; or if purity of the product fails to meet specifications in accordance with TO 42B6-1-1. |
| How is the temperature of the heated air from the air purging unit controlled? | Thermostatically controlled. |
| When performing purging operations, what air purging unit components prevent equipment damage due to lack of or reverse air flow? | A pressure switch combined with a time delay cutout relay. |
| What form is used to record LOX/LIN receipts? | AF Form 1231. |
| What is annotated in column D, ODOR TEST, on AFTO Form 134? | Enter the results of the odor test as either Pass or Fail. |
| When correctly used, what does AFTO Form 244 identify? | Any malfunctions detected during operation, service, or inspection of the equipment, and also corrective actions taken. |
| What does Part IV of AFTO Form 244 provide? | A means to document a quality control or supervisory review of the equipment forms. |
| How are discrepancies annotated when discovered on equipment that does not require a red symbol? | They are annotated "Info" only if you find it is important to pass on relevant information. |
| How many defects are entered on each block for each job control or work order number? | One. |
| How are symbols used in the "SYMBOL" column, entered on AFTO Form 244? | Entered in red to make them stand out clearly. |
| How are all other entries on AFTO Form 244 annotated? | In black pencil or black ball point pen. |
| What type of TCTO is entered as a red X on AFTO Form 244? | An immediate action TCTO. |
| What shows that the discrepancy indicated by the red X is cleared? | The last name initial entered in black over the symbol. |
| What is the purpose of AFTO Form 95? | To provide a permanent record of significant action, which provides management with a life profile of the item. |
| What is entered in Block 2 of AFTO Form 95. | The name of the manufacturer. |
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