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smc volume 3 review

QuestionAnswer
What is the normal capacity of the automotive dispensing system storage tank? 5,000 gallons.
What are the vent requirements for an automotive dispensing system? Vent pipe normally extends above the ground level to a height of at least 12 feet; when next to a building, it extends 2 feet above the roof line.
How far from the bottom of the automotive dispensing system tank can the fill line be? 3 inches from the tank bottom.
What type of cap is used on the gauging hatch of an automotive dispensing system? A weather-tight locking cap.
What are the dimensions of the service station tank cleanout line and how is it used? 3/4-inch in diameter and should extend 12 inches above the grade. They are used to remove water and sediment from the bottom of the tank.
What component on the suction line prevents reverse flow? The foot valve.
What type of pump is used when a foot valve is not required? A submersible or submerged pump.
What is the difference between a single- and a dual-dispensing, self-contained unit? The single unit has one meter and one computer with a register. The dual has two meters and two computer registers.
What self-contained unit uses a higher horsepower motor? The dual dispensing unit.
What is the difference between a dual-dispensing single-product unit and a dual-dispensing dual-product unit? The dual-dispensing, dual-product unit has two pumps.
What electrical components are used inside automotive dispensing units? Explosion-proof.
When the float chamber is full, through where is the fuel in the float chamber dispensed? To the suction side of the pump.
What dispensing system has revolutionized service station planning and improved service? The submerged pump.
The National Fire Protection Association requires what valve to be used with the submersible pump unit? An emergency shutoff valve.
What component in a submerged pump service station system prevents pressure from entering island dispensers that are not being used? The hydraulic control valve.
The AFSS provides self-service fuel dispensing without the need for what? A service station attendant.
What is the purpose of the manual override switches? They override the programming functions of the VIR to permit product dispensing in the event of a lost VIL or equipment malfunction.
How is the 16-position membrane keypad configured? It has selectors for numbers 0 through 9, ENTER and CLEAR, and four A-D functions.
What quantity is accepted if the shipping document indicates that meters were used to determine the quantity loaded? The quantity on the shipment document is accepted as received.
Where are visual samples taken from tank truck receipts? From the lower third of one tank/compartment on each tank truck receipt.
Who operates the nozzle at the service station? The vehicle operator.
How can you determine whether the receiving strainer is clean or dirty, and requires cleaning? By checking the differential pressure gauge.
Name four functions of the filter separator control valve. (1) Acts as a flow control. (2) Water slug shutoff. (3) Check valve. (4) Maximum differential pressure shut-off.
When is an automatic bypass valve installed around the receiving filter separator? When fuel is received directly from a commercial or cross-country pipeline.
What component on the pump control panel indicates whether the bypass valve is open or closed? A light.
Which receiving meter component indicates on the pump control panel the amount of fuel being received? Electronic digital counter.
What is the pipe configuration of the receiving manual valves? Four manual valves with two for tank receipt and two for receiving fuel from the hydrant loop into the tanks.
When are on-base bulk storage tanks used as the operating storage tanks? When they are within 1 mile of the fueling apron.
What type of reading does the tank level indicators provide and where can these readings be observed? Local and remote fuel level readings; local at the tanks, remote on the pump control panel.
What will the low-level indicator alarm do if it's actuated? It will give a visual and audible alarm and shut down all operating fueling pumps that might be operating at the time.
What type of manual valve is the operating storage tank outlet valve? A nonlubricated, double-block and bleed valve.
What color pump control panel light indicates that the tank outlet valve is open? Green.
What size and type of tank does the product recovery system use? 4,000 gallon, double-wall, steel tank.
What parts of the system does the product recovery tank collect fuel and water from? Pressure relief valves, strainer drains, filter separator automatic water drains, low/high point drains, and operating storage tank water draw-off.
What type of pump is used to remove water from the product recovery tank? Hand-operated pump.
How many manifolds are in the issue pipeline and where are they located? Three. Suction header, pump discharge header, and filter separator.
What type of pumps are used as fueling pumps; what is their rated capacity? Single-stage centrifugal, horizontal-mounted, vertical or radial split case, with a rating of 600 gpm when driven at 3,600 rpm.
At what pressure does the lead fueling pump energize, and what system component senses that pressure? When the pressure in the hydrant loop drops to 60 psi; the pressure indicator transmitter sends a signal to the microprocessor.
At what flow rate does the nonsurge check valve control flow through the pump? 650 gpm.
What type of component on the emergency shutoff valve causes the valve to close when an emergency-stop button is pushed? The solenoid.
What flow range can be read on the low-range DPTs? 0 to 1,000 gpm.
What should the loop pressure be if the type III hydrant system is idle? 60 to 75 psi.
How much pull does it take to open the hydrant pit lid, and how much push does it take to close it? 30 to open and 50 to close.
What is the adjustable pressure range of the hydrant control valve, and what pressure does it maintain? 15 to 75 psi; it should maintain 50 psi.
What is the pressure drop when you are using a D-1 single-point adapter on a 1,200 gpm system? No more than 28 psi.
What happens if a deadman hose ruptures? The main valve will close in a maximum of 5 seconds.
The back pressure control valve opens when the loop reaches what pressure? Roughly 130 psi.
What position should the defuel/flush valve be in during refueling? Closed.
What happens to the defuel/flush valve when all the refueling pumps stop? It opens to help the pressure control valve reduce the hydrant loop pressure to 80 psi.
Where is the pressure developed to open the defuel/flush valve for defueling? Hydrant servicing vehicle.
The defuel/flush valve allows what flow range during system flushing, and what system components determine the flow rate within that range? 300 to 2,400 gpm, depending on the number of fueling pumps used; differential pressure transmitter.
What are the ranges of the four differential pressure transmitters? Low 0 to 100 gpm, high 0 to 800 gpm.
How many single-point adapters are there on the R-12 check-out stand? Four.
What color lines are on the graphic display and what do they indicate? Green--receiving and hydrant loop return line. Yellow--pump suction, from the storage tank discharge lines to the inlet of the pumps, and water draw-off line. Blue--pump discharge and hydrant loop.
How can you tell which fueling pumps are operating if you're in the pump control room? By the green lights on the pump control panel.
The resonating horn sounds to indicate what problems? Emergency stop, low level operating tanks, and high-level operating tanks.
What must you do to silence the horns? Acknowledge the alert condition.
What does each pressure/flow recorder channel plot? The three channels plot system pressure, issue flow rates, and return flow rates.
How many microprocessors are there? Two.
What happens if one of the microprocessors fails? The other microprocessor automatically assumes control of the system.
What does it mean if the microprocessor's battery status LED is lit? The battery is low on power.
In programming the microprocessor, what happens if the information entered is outside that address's parameter? The 20-charactor, alphanumeric display indicates "Invalid Entry."
Where are the "hot pads" normally located? Just off the taxiway.
How is fuel received in the type IV pressurized hot fueling system storage tanks? From bulk storage.
What prevents the 600-gpm, deep-well turbine pumps from going dry? Low-level shutoff switch.
What component is designed to maintain a constant pressure to the loop? The venturi flow control.
How is the fuel flow controlled on the type V hydrant system? By a deadman control valve installed in each shelter.
What determines if another pump is required when two aircraft are being serviced at the same time? The computer in the control panel.
How are the flow and pressure recorder records of great value to the LFM personnel? They help identify and eliminate any problems that might occur in the system.
Why should the lead pump designation be change periodically? So all pumps will have basically the same amount of running time.
What type III system components sense the pressure downstream of the emergency shutoff valve? Pressure indicator transmitters.
At what pressure will the back pressure control valve modulate open when the type III system is pressurized? 130 psi.
In a type III system, what pressure control valve component keeps the valve closed when the fuel pumps are running? Solenoid.
In a type III system, at what hydrant loop pressure will the PIT signal the microprocessor to stop the lead pump? 175 psi.
In a type III system, where is excess pressure from thermal expansion relieved? Back to the tank.
When the lead pump in a type III system is running, what flow rate through the return venturi starts the second pump? Less than 40 gpm.
In a type III system, how many pumps are running if the flow rate is 1,800 gpm? Three.
If a pump in a type III system fails to start when called on by the microprocessor, what happens? The next idle pump in the predetermined sequence will start.
When issuing with a type IV system, what must the hot refueling supervisor take into consideration when positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad"? Wind direction.
When issuing with a type IV system, if an aircraft is suspected or known to have hot brakes, what action must be taken? The aircraft must depart the "hot pad" immediately.
What action must the aircrew take during servicing operations with a type IV system? Maintain their hands up and/or out of the cockpit intrumentation area.
What action is taken once the fillstand hose is connected to the bottom loader on a fueling unit? Pressure control valve and defuel/flush valve.
How many meters is the DESC Form 1233 designed to accommodate? Three.
In what section of the DESC Form 1233 are beginning meter readings recorded? Reconciliation section.
What types of tanks do not require a settling line? Underground tanks of 50,000 gallons or less that does not receive directly from the supplier.
How is a metered transfer between bulk storage and hydrants annotated on the DESC Form 1233? By drawing a lone through "UNIT NO." in the ISSUES section and entering "TRF TO TK NO." in the space above.
What is entered in column A of the AF Form 834? Tank number or hydrant station designation, which transferred or received the product.
How are AF Forms 834 filed? Filed with DESC Form 1233.
In what modes can the type III system be used to defuel? Idle condition and the refueling condition mode.
When defueling with the type III system, where is the defuel pump located? On the R-12.
If you are defueling one aircraft while another aircraft is being refueled, where does the (defueled) fuel go? To the aircraft being refueled or into the operating tanks.
When performing flushing operations, when should low point drains be checked? At the completion of the flushing operation.
What are the two methods of returning fuel into a belowground tank? Gravity feed or by using the fueling unit's pump.
What information is recorded in the Fueling Unit Summary section of the DESC Form 1233 for returns to bulk? The fueling unit number and the quantity returned to bulk.
How is the fuel/water mixture disposed of once it's drained from the product recovery system? In accordance with the local, state, and Federal environmental laws and regulations governing your base.
What publication governs inspection and discrepancy reporting procedures for fuel storage and dispensing systems? TO 37-1-1.
Monthly inspections of fuel storage and dispensing systems should not exceed what maximum number of days? 31 days.
Who must the FMFC notify when a system is placed out of service? Squadron commander, CE, MAJCOM energy management division, and other affected agencies.
What must you do if a ground wire with more than 1/3 of the wires frayed is discovered during an inspection of a hydrant system? Replace it.
How often should you ensure meters are labeled with calibration data? Daily.
What precaution should you take when replacing a damaged line strainer? Always replace damaged strainers with another one of the same type and size.
How often will receipt strainers be inspected and cleaned when fuel is received by pipeline, barge, and tanker? After each receipt, unless there is an installed filter within 1 mile of the base upstream of the strainer; then, clean the strainer weekly.
What are plug/ball valves inspected for during a weekly inspection? Ensure handles are available, valves operate freely and easily, and lubricate as required.
Identification markings for petroleum storage systems should be numbered/lettered in accordance with what military standard? MIL-STD 161.
During a semiannual inspection of grounding/bonding receptacles, what would a spring scale reading of less than 8 psi indicate? The receptacle is weak or damaged and must be replaced.
What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 39? It provides a monthly record of system inspections and maintenance actions.
How often should systems in standby status be inspected? At least monthly and prior to the first servicing.
How often is the FMFC or fuels manager required to inspect the systems? At least once a month.
How often should FMFC and fuels manager/superintendent review the AFTO Form 39? Monthly.
Who is responsible for completing the Maintenance Status section of the AFTO Form 39? LFM.
When manually gauging tanks, what time period should be observed after fuel movement before obtaining a product measurement? 30 minutes.
Describe the procedures for applying fuel-finding paste to a gauge tape. Apply a thin coat to the numbered side of the gauge tape approximately 3 inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth.
Why should the gauging tape be kept in constant contact with the gauging hatch at all times when obtaining product and temperature measurements? To prevent electrical arcing.
How should the bob be allowed to rest while manually gauging a tank? Vertically.
What is meant by "cut" while manually gauging tanks? The point at which the fuel finding paste changes colors, or dissolves, and washes off the tape and the water finding paste changes color.
How many identical gauge readings should be obtained to ensure accuracy? Two.
Where would the temperature be obtained from a 1,000,000-gal aboveground storage tank that is three-fourths full? In the center of the fuel depth.
When obtaining a temperature reading, at least how long should the thermometer be allowed to remain in the fuel? Five minutes.
List the components that make up the ITT Barton ATG module. Measurement probe, temperature sensor/cable, tank control unit, nitrogen supply, and remote terminal unit.
List the types of readings a TCU can display about a tank. Feet/inches measurements of fuel and water, fuel and water volumes in gallons, density, tank ullage, fuel temperature, and tank number.
The measurement probe has a minimum of how many measurement points? Two.
What key on the TCU is used to get the main menu? The ESC key.
When should active storage tanks be inventoried? Daily as of 0800.
What steps must be taken before gauging inactive storage tanks? Drain or pump out accumulated water.
What form should be used to document inventories? DESC Form 700.
When completing the DESC Form 700, from what publication should the conversion factor be obtained? The appropriate API table.
What form should be used to document inventories when additional sheets are required? DESC Form 700c.
Why are the supporting struts between the outer and inner tanks of the cryotainer made of thin stainless steel? To reduce the transfer of heat from the outer tank to the inner tank.
Why is insulation used in the annular space of a cryotainer? To reflect most of the radiant heat away from the inner tank.
What is the major difference between a large cryotainer and a vacuum bottle, and why is the cryotainer pumped down until its vacuum returns to an acceptable level? A vacuum bottle can be completely sealed, but a cryotainer cannot; therefore, a few molecules of air squeeze through the seals into the vacuum space, causing a loss of vacuum.
What component on the fill/drain line ensures that no particulate matter enter the cryotainer? A filter.
How long do you wait for the liquid to settle down after a transfer before closing the bypass valve to obtain a quantity reading? 10 minutes.
Why do the control valves on a cryotainer have long stems? To keep the valve handles warm enough to touch safely.
What are the two types of safety devices on each tank that protect the operators and equipment? Safety relief valves and rupture disc.
How are the transfer hoses constructed? The inner hose is jointed stainless steel and bronze alloy; the outer hose is covered with stainless steel mesh.
What type of threads do LOX couplings have? Right-handed threads.
What action is to be taken when a faulty gauge is discovered during the inspection of a cryotainer? Have the assembly calibrated in accordance with the applicable technical order or replaced.
How do you stop a stem from leaking on a hand-operated globe valve? Tighten the packing nut; if that doesn't work, remove the nut and add packing rings.
How can you tell if a LOX/LIN tank valve has a seat leakage? By its frosted lines.
What solvent is approved for cleaning cryotainer components? Trichlorotrifluoroethane (TRIC).
What form accompanies the tank truck during a LOX/LIN receipt? DD Form 250.
What safety gear is worn during LOX/LIN issues? Face shield, protective apron, leather gloves with inserts, and head covering; also don white coveralls for LOX servicing.
What valve allows the buildup of pressure in a LOX/LIN tank? The pressure buildup valve.
When issuing LOX/LIN, slowly open the pressure buildup valve on the issue tank and the pressure on the pressure gauge to what level? 10 to 15 psi (50 psi maximum).
What steps do you take to cool down an empty receiving tank? Slowly open the service valve on the issue tank enough to permit a partial flow of liquid. Maintain this reduced flow rate until the receiving tank has cooled down.
What do you do before you disconnect the transfer hose from the receiving tank? Relieve the pressure by pulling the hose safety relief valve.
What size beaker should be used to obtain an odor sample from a LOX cart? 400 milliliters.
What size sample should be obtained when performing an odor test? 200 milliliters.
When performing an odor sample, when would odor be most prevalent? When the beaker has warmed to nearly room temperature.
When would a particulate test be required on a cryotainer? When contamination with particulate is suspected.
How do particulate sampling procedures differ from odor sampling procedures? The nitrient pad is not used.
How often should the vacuum on a cryotainer be checked? Every 180 days.
What does the effectiveness of a high-vacuum pump depend upon? The oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers.
When should cryotainers be purged? Every 365 days; when the tank contents evaporate and the tank has warmed to ambient temperature; or if purity of the product fails to meet specifications in accordance with TO 42B6-1-1.
How is the temperature of the heated air from the air purging unit controlled? Thermostatically controlled.
When performing purging operations, what air purging unit components prevent equipment damage due to lack of or reverse air flow? A pressure switch combined with a time delay cutout relay.
What form is used to record LOX/LIN receipts? AF Form 1231.
What is annotated in column D, ODOR TEST, on AFTO Form 134? Enter the results of the odor test as either Pass or Fail.
When correctly used, what does AFTO Form 244 identify? Any malfunctions detected during operation, service, or inspection of the equipment, and also corrective actions taken.
What does Part IV of AFTO Form 244 provide? A means to document a quality control or supervisory review of the equipment forms.
How are discrepancies annotated when discovered on equipment that does not require a red symbol? They are annotated "Info" only if you find it is important to pass on relevant information.
How many defects are entered on each block for each job control or work order number? One.
How are symbols used in the "SYMBOL" column, entered on AFTO Form 244? Entered in red to make them stand out clearly.
How are all other entries on AFTO Form 244 annotated? In black pencil or black ball point pen.
What type of TCTO is entered as a red X on AFTO Form 244? An immediate action TCTO.
What shows that the discrepancy indicated by the red X is cleared? The last name initial entered in black over the symbol.
What is the purpose of AFTO Form 95? To provide a permanent record of significant action, which provides management with a life profile of the item.
What is entered in Block 2 of AFTO Form 95. The name of the manufacturer.
Created by: nosoupferyoo