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smc volume 5 review

List the four advantages of the R-14 ATHRS. It is easily deployed, is quickly operational upon arrival at destination, it performs various operations, and three R-14 modules can be transported in one C-130 aircraft.
For what purpose is the R-14C primarily used? To service aircraft where permanent systems are not available.
What R-14C component is equipped with a float control that stops fuel flow if the water gets too high? The filter separator.
At what rate is the R-14C self-priming pump designed to deliver fuel? 600 gpm at 2400 rpm with a discharge pressure of 110 psi.
Which R-14C component includes all of the switches, indicators, and gauges required to start and control the engine and pump? The control panel.
What is one of the most important factors that must be kept in mind when locating a suitable site for the R-14 operations? It should be large enough to accomplish the mission, yet kept to a minimum in size.
How far from the parking apron must an R-14C tank be placed if the site is dependent on ABFDS for re-supply? 100 feet.
How many gallons of fuel are required to prime the R-14C centrifugal pump? Approximately 10 gallons.
For "normal" operation of the R-14C, what is the manual-auto-reset switch position? Auto.
What valves on the R-14C are open for single-point refueling operations? 4-in isolation gate valves, tank inlet valves, strainer inlet isolation valve, strainer discharge isolation valve, air eliminator, main fuel discharge valve, and the 3-in S/P fueling valve.
When performing overwing servicing with the R-14C, what rpm setting is the throttle set to? 1000 rpm.
What position is the throttle switch in when you stop the R-14C? Manual.
What is the recommended grade of fuel for purging the R-14C prior to shipment? JP-5.
List the methods that may be used for uploading an R-14C onto an aircraft. An MB4 tow tractor, an aircraft winch, or a combination of the two used simultaneously.
What is the maximum ramp angle the R-14C can negotiate in the low mobility position? 15 degrees.
What is the maximum capacity that the R-22 can rapidly and safely pump? 600 gpm.
What type of pump is used on the R-22? Centrifugal pump that is self-priming and self-lubricating.
What gpm rate is the R-22 capable of pumping when the throttle is set at 1800 rpm? 400.
What are the accessories for the R-22? Two reducers, a grounding rod, and one 4-in gate valve.
What position should the fuel source selector be placed in when the R-22 is used to transfer MOGAS? The AUX position.
How much fuel should be used to prime the centrifugal pump on the R-22? Approximately 10 gallons.
When would the ether control knob on the R-22 be used to aid in starting? If the temperature is below 40 degrees.
When starting the R-22, what steps should be taken if the oil pressure fails to reach a minimum of 18 psi? Stop the engine and correct the cause of the failure.
When shutting down the R-22, how long should the unit be allowed to sit if the hoses are to be disconnected? Three minutes.
Describe the procedures for preparing an R-22 for shipment. Drain all fuel from the R-22 piping, disconnect and drain all hose assemblies, install dust plugs and caps on all fittings, and thoroughly clean the unit to remove all dirt and debris.
At what rate can the FFU-15E handle petroleum fuels? 600 gpm.
How often should the filter elements be changed in the FFU-15E? When the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first.
What are the two positions of the float valve in the FFU-15E filter separator? High and low.
When setting up the FFU-15E, what should the hoses be checked for? Ensure the gaskets/O-rings are in good condition.
Describe the reconstitution procedures for the FFU-15E. Drain all fuel from the FFU-15E, install dust caps on all fittings, and thoroughly clean the unit to remove all dirt and debris.
How many different additives can the TPI-4T-4A injector handle? Four.
What external power source is required to operate the TPI-4T-4A injector? None.
What type of meter is on the TPI-4T-4A injector? None.
What must the flow rate be for start-up and priming of the TPI-4T-4A additive injector? 150 gpm.
When should the injectors on the TPI-4T-4A be purged of all additives? If the unit will be inoperative for more than 72 hours.
How many additives is the TPI-4T-4A capable of simultaneously injecting? Four.
When calibrating the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector, what causes additive to flow to the pump head? Gravity.
List the information that must be considered before starting a calibration run. What the flow rate through the unit will be, what length of time the calibration run will cover, and what amount of additive to collect.
What level should the sight flow gauges on the TPI-4T-4A indicate when starting a calibration run? 1/2 to 3/4 full.
When calibrating the TPI-4T-4A, why must the pump stroke adjustment be done in small increments? Because very little movement of the dial results in consider change in the system's performance.
What was the PMU-27M designed to do? To support the transfer of small quantities of fuel and, secondly, support the servicing of small aircraft.
The self-priming pump on the PMU-27M is capable of delivering how many gallons per minute? 50 gpm.
The PMU-27M is equipped with what type of engine? One-cylinder, two-stroke engine rated at 6.5 hp at 3,600 rpm.
What PMU-27M component controls the flow of fuel from the suction hoses to the pump? The inlet valve.
What are the three common fuel supply sources used when setting up the PMU-27M as a bare base service station? 10,000-gal bladder, 500-gal sealed drum, and 55-gal steel drum.
How many 500-gal sealed drums does the 117 MRSP kit contain? Four.
What are the starting procedures for the PMU-27M? Ensure engine stop handle is pushed all the way in, set the throttle to half speed, push down and release the overload stop lever, engage the hand crank and hold the decompression lever against its stop, crank slowly.
How is fuel measured on the meter/register? Gallons and tenths of gallons.
What are the stopping procedures for the PMU-27M? Close the discharge and inlet valves, return the throttle to the idle position, stop the engine by pulling out the engine stop switch.
Explain the steps for preparing the 117 MRSP kit for reshipment. Completely drain all 500-gal sealed drums and hoses, and clean and return all drums, adapters, hoses, and nozzles to the kit and reseal it.
What type of aircraft can the ABFDS be used on? C-5, C-17, and C-130.
What ABFDS/ACE component is rated at 300 gpm? Filter separator.
What ABFDS/ACE component is connected together by unisex couplings? Hoses.
What ABFDS/ACE component measures amount of fuel issued or received? Flow meter.
What ABFDS/ACE component is equipped with four flow-direction wafer valves? Pump module.
What ABFDS/ACE component ensures the system does not endanger aircraft crew? Fume detector.
What ABFDS/ACE component has a 3,000-gal capacity? Collapsible fuel storage tanks.
What is the major advantage of the ADDS? The ADDS allows for direct servicing of aircraft.
The ACE filter separator is rated at how many gpm? 300 gpm.
Describe how the single point nozzles on the ACE differ from those on the ABFDS. The single point nozzles on the ACE incorporate a built-in pressure/flow regulator that limits the fuel delivery pressure.
What are the most commonly used sizes of fuel bladders? 10,000, 50,000, 200,000, and 210,000 gallons.
What are the advantages to using fuel bladders? Portability, minimum vapor loss, and all-weather capability.
How much working clearance should be between a bladder and the dike wall? Four feet.
How can fuel bladder accountability be accomplished? By metering, innage gauging, or by a calibrated pole located on each side of the bladder.
What are the three sizes of sealing clamps used for emergency repair of collapsible, coated-fabric storage tanks? 3 in, 5 in, and 7 1/2 in.
What is the primary purpose of the FAM cart? To provide an interface for transfer of fuel from tanker aircraft to a maximum of three receiver aircraft simultaneously in austere or remote locations.
What type of engine is the FAM cart equipped with? A one-cylinder, air-cooled, 9.2-hp diesel.
What is used to start the FAM cart? A pull rope mechanism.
What is the pumping capacity of the FAM cart? 365 gpm.
How many receiver aircraft can FAM carts service at one time? Three.
The overboard vent system is capable of connecting what maximum number of cryotainers to a single aircraft vent? Three.
When are cryotainers not required to be vented overboard? When they have been purged and pressurized with 15-25 psig of dry nitrogen gas.
Who is responsible for providing transportation personnel with in-flight monitoring instructions outlined in the applicable TO to ensure safety in flight? The shipping activity.
When air shipping a cryotainer, the inner tank pressure should remain within what pressure range? 5-40 psi.
What are the three primary missions the FORCE system is used to accomplish? Fuel servicing, off-loading, and transfer.
What is the maximum pumping rate of the R-18 pumping unit? 900 gpm.
What is the maximum filtering rate of the R-19 filter separator unit when both filter separators are running in parallel? 1,200 gpm.
What is the purpose of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit? It is used in conjunction with other FORCE equipment to service aircraft.
Describe the purpose of the R-20 plumbing assembly. The R-21 plumbing assembly consists of a large assortment of loose equipment, including hoses, valves, adapters and fittings, which are used to connect the FORCE subsystems into operational configurations.
What is the purpose of the beacon light on the R-18 pumping unit? It indicates the occurrence of a no-flow/rupture or emergency stop activation when flashing.
What R-18 pumping unit component indicates a serious problem with the unit engine when illuminated? Stop light.
What R-18 pumping unit component indicates the condition of the inlet air cleaner filter element? Air restriction gauge.
What are the two positions of the air evacuation valve on the R-18 pumping unit? NORMAL and AIR EVACUATION.
What component on the R-18 pumping unit hand-help remote flashes at a slow rate to notify the operator that the action/deadman switch must be released and depressed to continue operations? DMAN indicator.
What is the reset knob on the R-19 filter separator unit differential pressure gauge used for? To reset the differential pressure gauge.
What is the purpose of the float valve tester on the R-19 filter separator unit? It is used to simulate a high water level in the sump.
At what pressure setting will the pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter separator unit open and send fuel to the sump tank? 175 psi.
What R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform sump tank component indicates the level of fuel in the sump tank? Liquid level sight gauge.
The system shutdown indicator on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform will illuminate when the sump tank contents reach what level? 95 percent.
What R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform hose reel component controls free wheeling of the hose reel? Hose reel clutch handle.
What does a red flashing light on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform battery status LED indicate? The battery charge is low.
What does a slow flash on the DIAG indicator of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform hand-held remote indicate? A communication error.
How many 6-inch female ANSI flange adapters are in the R-21 plumbing assembly? Eight.
How many skid-mounted assemblies is the R-21 equipped with? Six.
Why is it important to avoid long runs of suction hose from a fuel source to an R-18? Long runs of suction hose from the fuel source to an R-18 can make it difficult to achieve adequate NPSH to support an engine speed of 2,250 rpm and a flow rate of 900 gpm or more.
Why are butterfly valves not required to be installed on the inlet side of the R-18 pumping unit? The R-18 pumping unit has an integral inlet butterfly valve.
For fuel servicing operations, which discharge side set-up arrangement for the R-19 filter separator offers certain advantages from the standpoint of flexibility and pressure relief? Locating the R-19 upstream of the cross connections.
What may occur if butterfly valves are closed to isolate sections of hose line during periods of inactivity? It can cause damage to hoses due to thermal expansion of fuel trapped in the hoses.
What is the advantage of deploying the communication wires in a loop? If one wire is cut (but not shorted), the unit will continue to communicate and the control system will function, thus providing redundancy.
Why must the communication wire connections on the R-18s and R-20s be tightened with pliers or a similar tool? Moisture in the connection can cause the communication link to short out and the remote control to cease functioning.
When setting up for off load operations, why is it recommended that the flow meter be installed on the discharge side of the R-19 filter separator unit? It can give incorrect data if installed on the suction side.
Why should hose kinks be avoided? They can result in pressure losses, reduced flow rate, accelerated wear, and reduce useful hose life.
How may fillstand pressure surges be reduced if the skid-mounted pressure relief valve is not used? By decreasing the R-18 pumping unit engine speed.
Why should the inspection frequency of fillstand hose be increased? Because of the long-term effect of pressure surges on hose fitting integrity.
What position is the manual/remote control switch on the R-18 pumping unit radio frequency control panel placed in for off-loading operations? Remote.
What rpm setting should the throttle control be manually set at when performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit? 2250 rpm.
What position should the hose stub isolation valve on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, why must the deadman switch be pressed and released at intervals no greater than two minutes? Closed.
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, why must the deadman switch be pressed and released at intervals no greater than two minutes? To maintain valve(s) in the open position.
What step should be accomplished first when performing evacuation procedures with the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform? Ensure the sump tank is empty.
When preparing the R-18 pumping unit for shipment, why must the battery cable terminal ends be isolated? To prevent accidental contact with the terminals.
When disconnecting the battery cables on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, which cable should be disconnected first? Negative cable.
How must fuel drained from the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform be disposed of? In accordance with local and federal environmental regulations.
What technical order provides guidance for packing the R-21 plumbing tricon containers? TO 37A9-3-5-61.
What are the four phases of the fuels mobility site planning cycle? Preplanning, site survey, plan execution, and after action planning.
What is the purpose of fuels mobility site planning? To determine the support requirements and optimum locations for fuel storage and dispensing systems at the deployed location.
What concerns should be considered when performing fuels mobility site planning? Fuel requirements, infrastructure, and product availability.
List the sources of information available for determining support and infrastructure availability. MAJCOM, logistics plans, AAFIF, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and DESC, DOD FLIP, and AMC assault zone survey repository.
Who should always be the first source for fuels information? The responsible MAJCOM.
How are ground fuel requirements determined? By contacting using agencies, such as civil engineers, transportation, communications, and aircraft maintenance.
List the important considerations when planning for cryogenic support. Product requirements, tankage required, and product availability via local purchase.
What is an MRSP kit? An air transportable package of spares, repair parts, and related maintenance supplies required to sustain a piece of equipment or weapons system for wartime or contingency operations.
MRSP kit contain sufficient stock to allow for how many days of support before resupply is necessary? 60 days.
Define an MRSP kit deployment. The temporary movement of a kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days.
With whom does the decision to transfer a MRSP kit rest? The losing and gaining MAJCOM.
Who coordinates with the Expeditionary LRS customer service element to replenish kit items? The accountable officer.
When inspecting the R-14, at what level must the radiator coolant be kept? Within one inch of the bottom of the filler neck.
How often is the line strainer on the R-14 checked for foreign matter and sediment? Weekly.
How often should the engine oil and engine oil filter on the R-14C be replaced? Every 150 operating hours or annually, whichever comes first.
What action should be taken if black smoke is detected coming from the R-14C muffler? Check the air filter.
How often should the engine hoses on the R-22 be inspected? Every 200 hours of operation.
What steps should be taken if the DP reading on an FFU-15E reaches or exceeds 20 psi? Remove the unit from service and replace the filter elements.
How often should the water slug valve test be performed on the FFU-15E? Monthly.
What are the TPI-4T-4A additive injector valves inspected for? Ease of operation, leaks, and valves are correctly positioned.
What are the TPI-4T-4A additive injector sight flow indicators inspected for? Cracked or broken glass.
When inspecting the PMU-27M, what is the muffler inspected for? Loose connections and leaks.
What part of fuel bladders must be inspected for cracks? Outer coating.
How long should the R-18 engine be stopped for before checking the engine oil level? One to two minutes.
What is the proper inflation pressure for the tires on the R-18? 75 psi.
How often should the filter sump on the R-19 be drained? Daily.
When should filter separator elements on the R-19 be replaced? When the DP gauge indicates greater than 20-psid, when the elements have been used for 36 months, or when vessel performance is unsatisfactory or questionable.
What should R-20 hoses and fittings be inspected for? Evidence of damage or leakage.
What should the precharge gauge reading on each R-20 surge suppressor read when the system is not operating? 90 psi.
When should micronic filter elements on the R-20 be replaced? When the DP gauge indicates greater than 15 psid.
Created by: nosoupferyoo
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