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CBRN Mass
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Why does the CE squadron traditionally have a higher percentage of civilians than any other squadron on base? | The need for continuity |
| Which CE flight is commanded by the second highest ranking officer in the squadron? | Operations |
| Who is usually the highest grade civilian in the CE squadron? | Deputy Base Civil Engineer (BCE) |
| Which Civil Engineer flight is home to the crafts shops? | Operations |
| Which CE flight is responsible for counter-chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CCBRN) planning, training and response? | Readiness and Emergency Management |
| How many elements are in the Readiness and Emergency Management flight? | Two |
| Which Readiness and Emergency Management element is responsible for supporting a cross-functional program that integrates planning, exercises, and training? | Emergency Management |
| Which Readiness and Emergency Management element is responsible for Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) and air and space expeditionary force (AEF) reporting? | Expeditionary Engineering |
| Which element has an operations SNCO that reports directly to the Readiness and Emergency Management flight chief? | Expeditionary Engineering |
| Which CE flight performs initial on-site detection for CBRNE materials involving improvised explosive devices, suspect package, bomb threat, and munitions responses? | Explosive Ordnance Disposal |
| Which Air Force Instruction covers the Prime BEEF program? | AFI 10–210 |
| Which CE flight manages the Prime BEEF program? | Readiness and Emergency Management |
| Which characters define the Civil Engineer career fields? | 3E |
| What title are you awarded after completion of all 5-skill level requirements? | Journeyman |
| What is the Air Force’s planned program for training called? | Enlisted Specialty Training (EST) |
| What does job specialty training consist of? | A mix of formal and informal training |
| What skill level and grade is a Chief Enlisted Manager? | 9-level, E–9 |
| Which training prioritization code means “MISSION IMPAIRMENT” and severely restricts operation if training is not provided”? | B |
| What CerTest test covers a specific topic and must be passed to move on to another area of study? | Post test |
| For annual certification documentation, which Air Force form is used? | 1098 |
| Which AF Form is the On-the-Job Training Record? | 623 |
| The CFETP is located inside the | On-the-Job Training Record |
| AF Form 623 is maintained by the | supervisor |
| A requester is also known as a | customer |
| Which guideline does not help your image with a customer? | Impress your customer with your job knowledge |
| Which Air Force form is used to get approval to do self-help work? | AF Form 332, BCE Work Request |
| Which method is used to request emergency and urgent work? | Service call |
| Which Air Force form authorizes military family housing renovation jobs? | AF Form 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order |
| Which Air Force form authorizes work needing detailed planning or large bills of materials? | AF Form 327, BCE Work Order |
| What scope and frequency limits determine items put into the Recurring Work Program (RWP)? | More than $500 in value, and at least yearly maintenance required |
| What type of maintenance actions are not part of the Recurring Work Program (RWP)? | Utility operations |
| Which factor is not considered by CE when approving self-help work orders? | The requester’s ability to supply materials |
| What must be included in a self-help work request submitted by a military family housing occupant? | Statement of donor |
| What method does the Air Force use to program work requirements over a 12-month period? | In-service work plan |
| The purpose of time accounting is to distribute hours and | cost to work orders and account codes |
| What are the two methods of time accounting? | Actual time accounting and exception time accounting |
| What does the order in which jobs are scheduled depend upon? | The work in relation to the mission |
| Which scheduling method is used by CE? | Weekly work schedule |
| Upon what action does efficient use of operations flight shops depend? | Planning |
| Who ultimately is responsible for the proper and correct administration of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) program within his/her office? | Approving official |
| What is the dollar amount limit for construction when using the Government Purchase Card? | $3,000 |
| Government purchase cardholder must reconcile monthly statements within | 5 work days |
| Why is Interim Work Information Management (IWIM) easier to use? | It uses conventions in its programming |
| What does Interim Work Information Management (IWIM) provide to base and major command commanders? | Real time data |
| Besides CE, who also receives a copy of warranty evaluations? | Base contracting officer |
| How often are the documents selected for warranty/guarantee enforcement reviewed? | Quarterly |
| Who is responsible for instructing Air Force people in supply discipline? | Supervisor |
| If you find Government property that apparently has been lost, stolen, or abandoned, what type of responsibility must you assume? | Custodial |
| When the amount of property missing is more than $500, what must be prepared? | Report of Survey |
| When lifting heavy loads, instead of your back, use your | legs |
| Which injury is the number one cause of lost worker time? | Back |
| Which action is an ongoing requirement of a good safety program? | Regular safety briefings |
| What are the best teachers of safety? | Real life experiences |
| Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with all Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) requirements? | Installation commander |
| Reducing the amounts of hazardous waste is an ongoing process and the responsibility of | everyone |
| Storage of hazardous waste in an accumulation point must not exceed | 90 days |
| The primary goal of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) is to | promote reuse and recycling of valuable resources |
| Air Force policy on lead based paint (LBP) requires installations to | identify, evaluate, control, and eliminate existing LBP hazards |
| What are the two types of asbestos? | Serpentine and amphibole |
| Which type of asbestos possesses the greatest risk of releasing fibers in the air? | Friable |
| When are government owned contractor operated (GOCO) facilities not required to conduct an internal Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP) assessment? | When external assessments are conducted |
| During an Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP) assessment, findings that pose a direct threat to human health are annotated as | Significant |
| The National Environment Policy Act (NEPA) process is intended to help public officials make decisions based upon | Environmental consequences |
| Which publications can originate at major command (MAJCOM) level? | Field |
| What publications are issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)? | Standard |
| What type of standard publications suggests guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances? | Non-directive |
| What type of publication is a technical order (TO)? | Special |
| What type of publication is the National Response Framework? | Non-Air Force publication |
| What numeric series of publications contains civil engineer publications? | 32 |
| What civil engineer publications are a means of rapidly sending guidance in facility design? | Engineering technical letters |
| What type of publications are legal orders signed by a commander? | Technical orders |
| How many types of technical orders (TO) are there? | Five |
| Technical order (TO) indexes always start with which number series? | 00– |
| The primary focus of atomic, biological, and chemical (ABC) programs was to | train selected deployable Air Force personnel on ABC defense measures |
| What DOD document and course did the NUWAX exercises develop? | The NARP manual and NETOP course |
| The significant change that occurred to emergency management and response after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001 was the implementation of | National Incident Management System |
| The Air Force complies with adopting National Incident Management System by | implementing the Air Force incident management system |
| What year was the emergency management career field occupational badge approved by the Chief of Staff of the Air Force? | 2006 |
| What is the stipulation about wearing the EM occupational badge? | You must wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge |
| In what year did the program name change from full spectrum threat response to emergency management? | 2006 |
| Which principal piece of legislation governs how the federal government will respond to disasters with the US? | Stafford Act |
| Which United States department is the federal coordinating agency for foreign consequence management operations? | The Department of State |
| What Department of Defense manual is used to execute a unified response to a nuclear weapon accident? | Nuclear weapons accident response procedures |
| What codifies how the Air Force will best employ air and space power? | Doctrine |
| Every airman in the force protection program is considered to be a | sensor |
| What are the ancillary missions of the emergency management program? | To support homeland defense and civil support operations and to provide support to civil and host nation authorities |
| Who is responsible for ensuring the Air Force has established a single emergency management program? | The Air Force civil engineer |
| The emergency management program does not cover | non-physical threats like cyber threats |
| The two elements of the emergency management program are | planning and management and the disaster response force |
| What are the four sub-elements in the planning and management elements? | EMWG, installation EM manager, unit EM representatives, and EET |
| Who appoints the installation emergency manager? | CE commander |
| What is the primary means to evaluate the effectiveness of an installation’s Air Force incident management system implementation? | The installation exercise evaluation team |
| What type of command would be established if multiple incident commanders were managing several incidents across the installation? | Area |
| What are the primary special staff positions within the Incident Command System command staff? | Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer |
| What positions comprise the incident command system general staff? | Operations section chief, logistics section chief, planning section chief, and finance and administration section chief |
| What three functions support the installation control center command and control structure? | CAT, EOC, and UCCs |
| Who serves as the senior leader of the installation control center? | Installation commander |
| Who activates the EOC? | The installation commander |
| The emergency operations center is comprised of how many emergency support functions? | 15 |
| In what two emergency support functions (ESF) do 3E9X1 personnel play a primary role? | ESF 5 and 10 |
| To assume the role of the incident commander when you arrive at an incident, you have to be a trained and experienced subject matter expert from | the fire and emergency services, medical, or security forces |
| What is an emergency responder? | Follow-on elements such as firefighters, SFS and EMTs, as well as EM and EOD personnel, physicians, nurses, medical treatment providers at medical treatment facilities, public health officers, bioenvironmental engineering and mortuary affairs personnel |
| A unit control center supports the incident commander or emergency operations center by providing | subject matter experts |
| What primary specialized teams are part of the disaster response force (DRF)? | RST, SMT, CCT, PAR |
| Why is stability within specialized teams important? | It is important because adequate team experience and proficiency require a significant training investment |
| In today’s world, who builds the foundation for an effective civilian community response? | Senior officials and emergency managers |
| What is considered to be a core obligation of local community leaders? | Emergency management |
| Why should your installation emergency manager develop a relationship with neighboring city and county emergency managers? | To ensure your installation is not operating in a vacuum and is engaged with the local community’s efforts to plan, respond, mitigate, and recover from a disaster |
| Who is responsible for preparing a state for large-scale emergencies and state response in any incident? | State emergency management agency director |
| Who leads the federal government’s response efforts for large-scale and catastrophic incidents? | The president |
| What are the types of federal disaster aid provided by the Federal Emergency Management Agency? | Individual assistance, public assistance, and hazard mitigation |
| Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management? | Secretary of Homeland Security |
| The federal coordinating officer position is filled by a senior | FEMA official |
| How many defense coordinating officers are there and where are they located? | 10, one in each FEMA region |
| The homeland security operations center serves as the nation’s nerve center for | information sharing and domestic incident management |
| The homeland security operations center shares information with emergency operations centers through the | HSIN |
| Which Department of State (DOS) bureau is the principal link to the Department of Defense (DOD)? | Bureau of Political-Military Affairs |
| What HAZMAT and CBRN capabilities does the FBI have? | The CBSU and HMRU |
| What does the Federal Emergency Management Agency use to coordinate federal regional response efforts? | Regional response coordination center |
| What Federal Emergency Management Agency response and coordination tools can be deployed to emergencies and disasters? | Hurricane liaison team, urban search and rescue task force, and mobile emergency response support |
| Which Department of Energy (DOE) National Nuclear Security Administration asset is comprised of scientists, technical specialists, crisis managers, and equipment ready for short-notice dispatch to the scene of a US nuclear weapon accident? | DOE accident response group |
| Who serves as the Air Force liaison between civil and military authorities during declared national security emergencies and critical events? | Emergency preparedness liaison officer |
| What would a civil engineer (CE) readiness and emergency management flight coordinate on with an emergency preparedness liaison officer (EPLO)? | DSCA contact information, DSCA plans, and the installation CEMP 10–2 plan |
| Which agency is a volunteer civilian auxiliary of the Air Force and can be used for natural and man-made disaster operations? | Civil Air Patrol |
| Which self-contained and self-sufficient team can deploy world-wide to support chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive terrorist threat? | Chemical biological incident response force |
| What defense threat reduction agency service is the DOD’s key provider of information and analysis on nuclear and conventional weapon topics? | Defense threat reduction information analysis center |
| Which Joint Task Force is the only military organization dedicated solely to planning and integrating Department of Defense forces for consequence management support to civil authorities? | Joint Task Force-Civil Support |
| What is a unified combatant command? | A unified combatant command has a broad continuing mission and is composed of forces from two or more military departments |
| Which unified combatant command is responsible for the Southwest Asia area of responsibility? | United States Central Command. |
| Which unified combatant command is responsible for equipping and training a response task force? | United States Pacific Command |
| Which North Atlantic Treaty Organization standardization agreement (STANAG) does the 3E9X1 career field use for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear prediction, reporting, and warning? | STANAG 2103 |
| Many of the nation’s critical infrastructures are operated and maintained by | Private-sector organizations |
| What is the primary product that a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight provides to its customers? | Information |
| What important responsibilities does a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight need to do to accomplish its mission? | Advocate and operationalize the flight’s EM, C-CBRN and Prime BEEF mission |
| What is the emergency management program review designed for? | Facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies |
| Who determines which host installation will be responsible for equipping and training a geographically separated unit for its emergency management program? | Major command |
| Who determines and prioritizes all core processes when it comes to manpower? | Career Field Manager and MAJCOM FAMs |
| Which manpower document provides names assigned to position numbers? | Unit personnel management roster |
| What process begins when the Air Staff calls for budgets and financial plans associated with mission accomplishment? | A budget call |
| What is the amount called when a MAJCOM issues a lump-sum dollar amount that represents the anticipated amount of funding for the next fiscal year? | A bogey |
| Which PE is assigned to active duty chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear defense? | PE 27593 |
| Which PEs are assigned to ANG and AFRC chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear defense respectively? | PE 55165 and 55166 |
| Which document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals to accomplish the assigned mission, tasks, or duties? | An allowance standard |
| The basis of issue listed in allowance standards is | maximum allowances |
| Before starting any task with a piece of equipment, what must be reviewed for familiarization with the latest procedures? | Applicable TO |
| Who requests technical orders for your flight? | TO distribution account |
| Which Air Force handbook would you use to determine a civil engineer readiness and emergency flight’s recommended facility space requirements? | AFH 32–1084 |
| What must you do with training equipment in your flight? | Carefully follow the technical order instructions, mark the equipment, and store it separately from operational equipment |
| What kind of permit must a flight have before it can receive, store, distribute, use, transfer, or dispose of radioactive sources? | Radioactive material |
| How long must you maintain swipe test results? | 3 years |
| What barrier to creativity is demonstrated by an instructor who continues to teach a course the same way, time after time, because no one ever complains? | Habit |
| What three parts should student centered objectives have? | Condition, performance, standard |
| What does an instructor use feedback for? | As an indication that students have received the message regardless if they understood the message or not |
| What are the two primary teaching methods used by an emergency management instructor? | Lecture and demonstration-performance |
| Which teaching method combines an oral explanation with the operation of equipment? | Demonstration-performance |
| Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides in-depth information on emergency management training courses? | AFI 10–2501 |
| What is the minimum number of hours a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight must complete in-house training each month? | 16 |
| How do you document an enlisted individual mobilization augmentee’s (IMA) training? | The same as active duty personnel |
| The objective of Air Force emergency management (EM) training is to provide the | required knowledge and skills to prepare for, prevent, respond to, recover from, and mitigate contingencies or emergencies requiring Air Force response |
| How frequently must personnel complete chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear, and explosive awareness training in MTAs and HTAs? | Every 20 months |
| Unless otherwise specified, what must military, civilian, or contractor personnel complete to teach emergency management (EM) courses identified in AFI 10–2501? | AETC EM apprentice or readiness flight officer courses |
| Personnel going temporary duty (TDY) to or deploying to a medium threat area or high threat area must be current in chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive defense | at the time of departure and for the duration of the TDY or deployment |
| Air Force emergency management (EM) education and training is transitioning to blended learning. What are the distinctive parts of blended learning? | Individual knowledge-based objectives and individual demonstration-performance objectives |
| If an emergency management (EM) course is not available as a web-based course, what will EM instructors use to determine course proficiency standards for knowledge and performance? | Readiness training packages |
| Training must be completed every 20 months and the course must be completed within 15 consecutive work days after starting the course by active duty military, civilian, or contract personnel or within two UTAs by Air Reserve Command personnel | Every 20 months |
| What program provides all personnel assigned to the installation with the knowledge to protect themselves from effects of and to support unit response to the all-hazard threats to their installation? | Base emergency preparedness orientation |
| What are all the DOD HAZMAT training levels? | Level 1-First Responder Awareness, Level 2-First Responder Operations, Level 3-HAZMAT Technician, Level 4-HAZMAT Specialist, and Level 5-HAZMAT IC |
| When HAZMAT refresher training is done through a real-world response or exercise, documentation must include a summary that meets the criteria for the appropriate level of training, including each competency area listed under the levels of training in | 29 CFR 1910.120 |
| Which item is not a training munition? | Camphor |
| At least how far away from an occupied building should the mask confidence training facility be placed? | 100 meters |
| What level of vapor concentration should not be exceeded when using chloroacetophenone (CN) or o-chlorobenzylidene malononitrile (CS) for mask confidence training? | 10 mg/m3 |
| What reaction do students have when exposed to stannic chloride? | Coughing or choking |
| How many hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response levels are there? | 3 |
| Where might you find the radioactive material Americium–241 on various aircraft types? | forward-looking infrared system (FLIRS) |
| Who will initiate a recall of the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF) during an on base aircraft accident response? | Incident commander (IC) |
| Which AFI covers response to severe weather events? | AFI 10–229 |
| What do you call a tropical cyclone located in the vicinity of Japan? | Typhoon |
| To obtain a complete list of world-wide tropical cyclone names, which agency’s website would you refer to? | National Hurricane Center (NHC) |
| What scale is used to rate the intensity of a hurricane? | Saffir-Simpson scale |
| In which Saffir-Simpson hurricane category could you expect to have a 9 to 12 foot storm surge? | Category 3 |
| What is the greatest threat to life and property along the immediate coast during a hurricane? | Storm surge |
| If a category 4 hurricane with a 17 foot storm surge makes landfall during a 3 foot high tide, how high would the storm tide be on shore? | 20 feet |
| What computerized model does the National Hurricane Center run to estimate storm surge heights and winds for a hurricane? | Sea, land and overland surges from hurricanes (SLOSH) |
| During which months of the year are tornadoes more predominant? | May and June |
| What would a tornado with 3-second gust wind speeds of 168–199 mph be classified as on the Enhanced Fujita (EF) scale? | EF–4 |
| Based on 2007 National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and Storm Prediction Center tornado data, which type of tornadoes occurred the most during the year? | EF–0 |
| Which classification of thunderstorms are the largest and most severe? | Super cell |
| Tornadoes are most likely to occur between | 3:00 pm and 6:00 pm |
| Which tornado notification indicates a tornados location and projected path? | Tornado warning |
| What type of natural disaster is among the most frequent and costliest in terms of human hardship and economic loss? | Floods |
| Which volcano was the most dangerous in the US? | Mount Rainier |
| Which US agency monitors all 170 of our nation’s active volcanoes and had federal responsibility to issue timely and effective warnings of potential volcanic disasters? | United States Geologic Survey (USGS) |
| Which installation plan must incorporate all installation notification and warning system (INWS) requirements listed in AFI 10–2501 and any local procedures? | Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP)10–2 |
| In all hazard incidents how many steps are involved in the hazard analysis process and which one is the first step? | 3, hazard identification |
| What purpose does a hazard analysis serve? | None of the above |
| How many steps are in a capabilities assessment? | 6 |
| Which capabilities assessment step lists installation resources? | Step 3 |
| The primary objective of emergency management (EM) program planning is to support | Air Force plans by minimizing effects caused by all-hazard incidents |
| What is an emergency operations plan (EOP) and what emergency management (EM) EOP is used on Air Force installations? | An EOP is a document describing how people and property will be protected in a disaster or |
| emergency/comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 | |
| What are the four distinct steps in the emergency planning process? | Step 1 – Hazard analysis, Step 2 – CEMP 10–2 development, Step 3 – Testing the plan through training and exercises, and Step 4 – Plan maintenance and revision |
| How does collaboration between planning team members benefit the installation’s response to a disaster? | It eliminates duplication of services resulting in a more efficient response, expands resource availability, and enhances problem solving through cross-pollination of ideas |
| What is the primary plan the readiness and emergency management flight will be responsible for developing and maintaining? | Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 |
| What is the fastest way to send out a plan for review and coordination? | Shotgun method |
| What is the objective of concept planning? | To develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an OPORD if necessary |
| What plan do Air Force installation’s develop to provide comprehensive guidance for emergency response to physical threats resulting from major accidents, natural disasters, conventional attacks, terrorist attacks, and CBRN attacks? | Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 |
| Which type of plan is the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? | OPLAN |
| If a CEMP 10–2 is not developed for a deployed location at first, what may a commander use in lieu of one until it is developed? | Expeditionary support plan (ESP) |
| Which AFI is used to determine the classification of the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? | AFI 31–401 |
| Which part of the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 provides an overview of the plan and outlines the situations the plan will be used? | The basic plan |
| How many annexes are in the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? | 5 |
| What type of planning has applicability to multiple comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 annexes | Disease containment. |
| Where can you find more definitive guidance on developing the CE contingency response plan (CRP)? | AFI 10–211 and AFPAM 10–219, Volume 1 |
| Which chapter in the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) covers chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive (CBRN) defense operations? | 11 |
| Which plan provides guidance to improve survivability of strategic forces and to enhance the recovery and reconstitution of those forces in the event of a nuclear attack on Air Force bases? | Survival, recovery, and reconstitution (SRR) plan |
| What type of agreement is made between two countries? | Host nation support agreement |
| What type of agreement do installation first responders enter into with local community first responders? | Mutual Aid Agreement |
| In which phase do emergency response operations begin? | Notification phase |
| What do command posts use to immediately notify commanders of any significant event or incident that rises to the level of Department of Defense (DOD), Air Force, or major command (MAJCOM) interests? | OPREP–3s |
| Flying over the US, an aircraft carrying a nuc weapon crashes, resulting in radiological contamination. There is no risk in the accident causing an outbreak of nuclear war. Which report would the command post most likely use to inform higher headquarters? | PINNACLE BROKEN ARROW |
| What does the eight-step incident management process outline and implement? | The basic tactical functions |
| Who activates the emergency operations center (EOC)? | The installation commander |
| Upon initial recall of emergency support function (ESF) personnel, what information should they receive during the initial briefing? | Description of the incident or natural disaster, forces on-scene, casualty estimate, cordon size and location description, protective measures being taken, and tactical priorities |
| What role does the readiness and emergency management flight have with the incident cordon? | The flight may advise on evacuation and cordon size based on the type and size of the incident |
| What criteria is used to establish hazardous materials (HAZMAT) zones? | phys & topographical features, weather & wind, air contaminants, hazard/chemical air dispersion models, physical/chemical/toxicological,hazards present, cleanup activities & presence of adequate roads/power sources/water & potential for fire & explosion |
| Withdrawal is a protective action used when responders | are in immediate danger or when all response actions have been completed |
| During a hazardous materials (HAZMAT) incident at a chemical plant, toxic air contaminants were being carried downwind. If you were the IC and time did not permit to move people in the downwind hazard area, what protective action would you implement? | Shelter-in-Place |
| Which phase begins when first responders have completed emergency response and lifesaving actions? | Recovery |
| Before major accident and natural disaster operations involving Air Force resources can end, what actions must be accomplished? | Provide pos/neg contamination, identify, account for and recover all classified and hazardous materials, ensure representatives from all affected military and civil agencies complete necessary observations and remove debris and restore the site |
| After a major accident or natural disasters, caring for military families is extremely important. What is activated to provide assistance to military families? | An emergency family assistance control center (EFACC) |
| What phase begins when the incident commander (IC) advises the emergency operations center (EOC) director that the incident has been sufficiently controlled or terminated and the security of the situation is sufficient? | Restoration phase |
| To bring an installation back to combat readiness status after a major accident or natural disaster what should restoration decisions focus its installation resources on? | Safety, preventing the further loss of combat power, maintaining or restoring installation integrity and security, restoring C2 over forces, restoring the primary mission and supporting other forces |
| Mitigation during and after an incident includes | preparing and exercising critical elements of responses to major accidents and natural disasters |
| Which plan lists an installation’s critical facilities and defines facilities that are required protection? | CE contingency response plan (CRP) |
| What are the principle routes into the human body for plutonium at a nuclear weapon accident? | Inhalation and contaminated wounds |
| Plutonium isotopes used in nuclear weapons are primarily | alpha emitters except Pu–241, which is primarily a beta emitter |
| What ADM–300 probe would you use at a nuclear weapon accident site if there was rain, morning dew, dust, snow, or firefighting foam? | X-Ray probe |
| After initial cloud passage at a nuclear weapon accident, the primary method causing a Plutonium inhalation hazard to personnel on the ground is due to re-suspension from | walking |
| Until time and equipment permit completion of extensive radiation surveys, what will be used to assist in assessing the potential impact of a nuclear weapon accident and in identifying areas for initial investigation by your radiological response teams? | Atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plot |
| Which agency serves as the Lead Federal Agency during a response to an accident involving radioactive materials when the material is or was in Department of Defense (DOD) custody during the accident? | DOD |
| What are the five identifiable operational phases that constitute a response to a nuclear weapon accident? | Notification and deployment, initial response, accident site consolidation, weapon recovery operations and disposition and site remediation |
| During which nuclear weapon accident phase will the response task force (RTF) arrive? | Accident site consolidation phase |
| What center will Department of Energy (DOE) and DOE National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) deploy for a domestic nuclear weapon accident? | DOE Federal Radiological Monitoring and Assessment Center (FRMAC) |
| What type of command does the Department of Defense (DOD), Department of Energy (DOE) and National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) form when they come together during the initial response to a nuclear weapon accident? | Unified command (UC) |
| What are the exception(s) to the Department of Defense (DOD), Department of Energy (DOE) and National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) policy to neither confirm nor deny the presence of nuclear weapons at any particular installation or location? | The OSC confirms nuclear weapons or radioactive nuclear components in the interest of public safety and the OSC may confirm or deny the presence of nuclear weapons to reduce or prevent widespread public alarm |
| As an emergency management (EM) specialist, the first non-DOD external agency products that you’ll request as you prepare to respond to a nuclear weapon accident is to request | an atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plot |
| What are the two types of atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plots that an initial response force (IRF) will receive? | 50-year whole body effective dose plot and cumulative deposition plot |
| Which statement best describes the purpose of an initial perimeter survey (IPS)? | Quickly determine if the radiological hazards are contained inside the cordon |
| Which of these is not one of the three basic cornerstones of the initial perimeter survey (IPS) process? | Quickly get downwind |
| While conducting an initial perimeter survey (IPS) mission, the wind direction is blowing towards 090°. What will be your heading when you are on your fourth objective? | 270° |
| The purpose of a contamination control station (CCS) is to minimize (attempting to eliminate) the spread of radiological contamination and serve as | a secure entry and exit area to and from the accident site |
| A nuclear accident undergoes detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread. Hundreds of personnel show up at your CCS. You have only 4 personnel and a limited number of RADIACs to operate your CCS. Your CCS is overwhelmed. What action is best? | Implement initial CCS procedures |
| Which of the following is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)? | Contamination removal zone |
| If not already completed, what action does the response task force (RTF) conduct to determine the levels of radiological contamination and explosive hazards in and around the accident site? | Initial reconnaissance |
| Who is responsible for developing a recovery plan for a nuclear weapons accident? | Response task force (RTF) on-scene commander |
| A landmark or map coordinate used by every radial survey team as a reference is called a? | Focal point |
| Which of these is not a main area included in response task force (RTF) support at an accident site? | Search and recovery area |
| Where would you most likely work after being merged into the response task force (RTF)? | Joint hazards evaluation center (JHEC) |
| In which phase of a nuclear weapon accident does weapon recovery occur? | Phase IV |
| During a nuclear weapon accident in a foreign country, who must the US coordinate its response with? | Host nation |
| Which type of Air Force inspection is conducted to evaluate the ability of units with a wartime or contingency mission to perform assigned operational missions? | Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI) |
| Which inspection program provides a means to focus management attention, gather data, and evaluate the status of specific programs and conditions in the field? | Special Interest Item |
| How often must an Air Force installation conduct a Terrorist Use of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) exercise and what must one of those exercises focus on? | Two annually, biological incident |
| What concept must your installation’s emergency management (EM) exercises embody? | “Train the way we fight” concept |
| Before EET members can evaluate an exercise, they must complete the core training outlined in | AFI 10–2501 |
| When you plan for an exercise, what CE requirements must be considered? | If the CE unit is CONUS, OCONUS and its Prime BEEF requirements |
| When you conduct a nuclear weapon accident exercise, what do you use to refer to nuclear weapons on telephones, radios, and in written communications? | Line numbers |
| The five basic parts in an exercise are the objectives, ground rules, basic situation | the situation cards and master scenario events listing |
| What role does an evaluator have to help his or her unit? | Expose big problems and give credit where credit it’s due |
| Who conducts a critique of each exercise after its termination? | Exercise evaluation team chief |
| When assigning responsibility for an exercise write up, what should you avoid? | Blame |
| How many degrees are in a complete circle? | 360 |
| If you were traveling on an azimuth of 260 degrees and had to return to your original location, what is your back azimuth that you need to travel on? | 80 |
| When using an M1 lensatic compass, how far should the compass be from your rifle? | 1/2 meter |
| To navigate to a location using a global positioning system (GPS) unit, what must the user enter into the GPS? | A waypoint |
| How many sets of batteries does the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR) require to fully operate? | Two |
| If you use non-rechargeable alkaline (AA 1.5 volt) batteries in the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what is the unit’s anticipated operating life? | 11.5 hours |
| To obtain the best satellite reception with the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what angle does the unit need to be held toward the horizon? | 90 degrees |
| What level of reliability does the GeoXT have? | 2 to 5 meters |
| When using a typical range finder, what must be adjusted to overlap the images? | One of the mirrors |
| In a laser range finder, what determines the distance based on how fast the beam travels to the target and back? | Micro-processor |
| What does the night vision goggle (NVG) require to function properly? | Night light |
| Which subassembly converts the captured light into a visible image? | Image intensifier |
| What part of the Vantage Pro2’s integrated senor suite (ISS) contains the brains of the ISS? | Sensor interface module |
| All mobile command centers (MCC) are required to meet which DHS/FEMA requirements? | Type III |
| When do you check a vehicle for unusual vibrations, noises, odors, and abnormal instrument readings? | During operation |
| To reduce the possibility of an accident or equipment damage to an all-terrain vehicle (ATV), you should always | inspect your ATV before operation |
| Which major command (MAJCOM) serves as the lead command for agile combat support and RD&A initiatives? | Air Combat Command (ACC) |
| The specific requirements in AFOSH Standard 48–137 are based on which requirement? | 29 CFR 1910.134 |
| What are the two basic types of protective breathing equipment used by first/emergency responders at a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear/hazardous materials (CBRN/HAZMAT) incident? | Air-purifying respirator (APR) and atmosphere-supplying respirators |
| Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) will the Air Force use? | M50 |
| What color change occurs to the M61 filter time patch when it is expired and must be replaced? | White to dark blue |
| Which statement best describes the purpose of the MCU–2/P mask? | Protects the face, eyes, and respiratory tract of the wearer against chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles |
| Which valve assembly for the MCU–2/P must have a supportive screen or six raised spokes on the valve? | Outlet |
| The M45 second skin is made of what material and is available in how many sizes? | Agent-resistant rubber, three sizes |
| What type(s) of chemical protective clothing does National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 472 recognize? | Liquid-splash and vapor-protective clothing |
| A process that when the characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances is called | degradation |
| How many chemicals must liquid-splash protective clothing be tested against in accordance with National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 1992? | Seven |
| What do the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) protective equipment Level C provide users? | Splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying respirators (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) |
| The purpose of the ground crew ensemble (GCE) is to provide durable individual protection capable of preventing | field concentrations of CB warfare agents from physical contact with the wearer |
| How long will the anti-contamination suit protect the wearer from gamma radiation? | It provides no gamma protection |
| Which statement best describes an electron? | A very small negatively charged particle that is considerably lighter than the remainder of the atom |
| Which statement best describes an electrically neutral atom? | The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons |
| What portion of an atom undergoes a transformation resulting in a beta particle being produced? | A neutron changes to a proton |
| The unit of measurement for dose rate of gamma radiation is | roentgens per hour |
| An alpha particle can travel | a few inches in open air |
| Beta particles can travel | 12 to 18 inches in open air |
| A radiation dispersal device (RDD) is any device that causes the purposeful dissemination of | any radiological material across an area without a nuclear detonation |
| Which substance is used to produce a nuclear explosion by the fission process? | Plutonium |
| Which subatomic particle causes fission to take place? | Neutron |
| Which term best describes impurities within the active material that absorb neutrons and ultimately decrease neutron availability for further fissioning of the active material? | Purification |
| Which energy range from a normal nuclear explosion equals 10 percent of the weapon effects? | Residual nuclear radiation |
| What is the point at which the primary wave and reflected wave join together? | Mach stem |
| What portion of thermal radiation causes widespread burns and incendiary effects? | Infrared |
| What types of radiation does fallout primarily generate? | Beta and gamma |
| The blast wave causes damage primarily at junctions between | tissues of different densities |
| What are the two types of blast injuries? | Direct and indirect |
| Which is not a phase of radiation sickness? | Dormant |
| What do Geiger-Mueller (G-M) tubes use to limit Townsend discharge? | Certain types of gases |
| The major radiation hazard encountered during a peacetime nuclear weapon accident is | alpha |
| The beta gamma probe can be located up to how far away from the ADM–300? | 500 feet |
| Which radioactive source is associated with ADM–300 calibration? | Thorium 232 |
| Which components comprise the Air Force air sampling kit? | High volume air sampler, 4” diameter filter holder, filter paper, and tripod |
| What can the GR–135 Plus identify? | Industrial and medical isotopes and illicit nuclear materials |
| The GR–135 allows the user to | survey, measure dose, and analyze nuclides for risk assessment |
| Which primitive plants do not use photosynthesis, are capable of anaerobic growth, and draw nutrition from decaying vegetable matter? | Fungi |
| Tricothecene toxins are | absorbed through the skin |
| What type of microorganisms grows only in the presence of free oxygen? | Aerobes |
| A biological agent aerosol is most effective when the disseminated agent is viable, virulent, the correct size, and | airborne |
| Which term best describes particles in a biological warfare agent aerosol cloud that strike and stick to objects in their path? | Impaction |
| What does a biological warfare (BW) agent gas-generating sub-munition use to deploy the BW agent? | Cartridges to expel the agent through a simple orifice |
| Casualty rates from biological warfare agent filled sub-munitions are a function of the number of sub-munitions per square kilometer, the infectivity of the agent, and the | area of coverage |
| Aerodynamic stability makes which threat delivery platform easier cheaper to deliver and to disperse chemical and biological agents? | Cruise missiles |
| What period(s) of the day provide the best conditions for a successful biological warfare (BW) agent attack? | Nightime and early morning |
| What biological detection technology operates under the principle that every living organism has a substance with which it is incompatible? | Antibody techniques |
| Which biological detection technology identifies the agent by heating the sample to extremely high temperatures and breaking the sample into its individual components? | Mass spectrometry |
| How many biological agent tests can be conducted with a single Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? | 1 |
| As a minimum, what individual protective equipment should you wear while sampling with the Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? | Respirator protection and gloves |
| The key to the BioCapture® 650 is its | integrated collector cartridge |
| The dry filter unit (DFU) 1000 is rated for how many continuous hours? | 40,000 |
| Which chemical warfare agent disrupts the oxygen-carrying properties of blood? | Blood agents |
| What type of agent is Phosgene oxime (CX)? | Blister agent |
| Which term is defined as the rate at which the body is able to counteract the effects of a poisonous substance? | Rate of detoxification |
| Chemical warfare agents with high molecular weights indicate | solids |
| Chemical warfare agents with high boiling points tend to | evaporate slower at ambient temperatures |
| Which is the most important factor that impacts the persistency of a chemical warfare agent? | Volatility |
| A surface burst has occurred if a tactical ballistic missile (TBM) detonates | below 150 feet |
| What is the primary concern for exposure to toxic industrial chemicals (TIC)? | Inhalation |
| What are the principal factors in the development of chemical detection systems? | Toxicity of agents and ability of agents to off-gas |
| What chemical agents can you detect using M8 paper? | Nerve and blister |
| How long is M9 paper useful after being removed from the shipping bag? | Approximately one year for tropic and desert regions |
| pH paper indicates the presence of specific | acid and alkalines hazards |
| What does the M256A1 use for the detection of vapor nerve agent? | An enzyme from an eel |
| What is the use of the heater pads associated with the M256A1 kit? | Prevent glass from cutting your gloves or hands when crushing ampoules 3 and 5 |
| After crushing the first heater ampoule on the M256A1 sampler detector, how many minutes do you leave the heater in place over the test spot? | Two |
| Which item inside the chemical agent monitor (CAM) conducts a classification process of the chemical warfare agent detected? | Software stored in the memory of the internal microprocessor |
| The automatic chemical agent alarm (ACAA) passes the air sample drawn in through the inlet to | two detection cells through a permeable membrane |
| What does the MultiRae detect? | Oxygen levels. lower explosive limits, and two preselected gases |
| How many database libraries does the Hazmat ID include? | Eight |
| The Drager Haz-Mat Simultest Kit measures | 15 organic and inorganic chemicals and/or chemical families |
| When you are developing your installation’s Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan 10–2, which Air Force instruction do you refer to for guidance on format and content? | AFI 10–2501 |
| Which installation plan is AFI 10–2604, Disease Containment Planning Guidance, associated with? | Disease Containment Plan |
| After the Emergency Management Working Group has completed an annual chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear and high-explosive vulnerability assessment, how many days does the working group have to present a vulnerability mitigation plan to the insta | 90 |
| Which Air Force Tactics, Techniques, and Procedure provides detailed information on conducting a nuclear, biological, and chemical vulnerability assessment? | 3–2.54 |
| Of the possible threat weapon systems, what is the approximate fragmentation distance of a 120mm mortar? | 431 feet |
| If your installation was attacked by five missiles with a circular error of probability of 1250 meters, how many will likely impact your installation? | 3 |
| Chemical contamination avoidance is defined as | taking actions to avoid or reduce the effects of a CBRN attack and to minimize the effects of CBRN contamination hazards |
| When you identify chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear zones for your installation, what should you try to make them compatible with? | Base defense sectors |
| Which agency provides unit control centers with installation hazard locations and the installation commanders decision on MOPP levels in each chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear zone? | Emergency operations center. |
| When the medical community assesses trends in medical symptoms among personnel or makes an index case diagnosis, which trigger event has occurred? | Sentinel |
| Which item best describes one of the catalysts for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management program? | An effective command and control system |
| Which of the following is not one of the five functions performed within the command and control process? | Establishing communication |
| What documents do Air Force units use to reduce support and transportation requirements when overseas? | Host-nation support agreements |
| What do unit commanders use, during contingency operations, to manage items such as unit resources and passive defense measures? | Unit control centers |
| The primary mission of the emergency operations center is to monitor and direct | pre-attack and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations |
| The upward flow of attack information within the installation command and control structure is from the | individual, through the unit control center to the emergency operations center. |
| Which is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center? | Defending |
| After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center director pertaining to hazards persistency. What type | Internal |
| Which is not a category of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warning and reporting organization? | NBC reconnaissance center |
| What is the general rule for establishing the distance of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center area of observation? | 50 kilometers |
| You are working in the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center at your installation. The enemy attacks your base with chemical warfare agents. The hazards may affect a local community. Which person or position within the CBRN | Recorder |
| What does the line item “Fox-trot” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | Location of attack |
| What does the line item “Golf” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | Delivery and quantity |
| What does the line item “Zulu” mean associated with nuclear, biological, and chemical reports? | The actual weather conditions |
| You are deployed as CBRN. The enemy attacks your base and you observe use of a chem agent. You call the installation CBRN control center and report your findings. What NBC report does your action represent? | NBC 1 |
| You are deployed as CBRNE member. Chem agents have not been used thus far in the AOR. The enemy attacks your base. Several recon teams evaluated, consolidated information and reported a positive indication that the enemy used a chem agent. What NBC report | NBC 2 |
| Which defense condition indicates normal day-to-day operations? | 5 |
| Which defense condition indicates war? | 1 |
| Which air defense warning indicates attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is not probable? | White |
| Which air defense warning indicates attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is probable? | Yellow |
| Which air defense warning indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress? | Red |
| What terrorist force protection condition applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent? | CHARLIE |
| What is alarm condition “yellow” associated with according to the Air Force standardized alarm signals for areas subject to nuclear biological, chemical, and conventional attack? | Attack is probable |
| You are deployed to an area that is using the Air Force standardized alarm signals. Intel information indicates the enemy could attack using chem weapons with little or no warning. What MOPP do personnel assume upon hearing alarm “yellow”? | MOPP level 2 unless otherwise directed |
| Prior to deploying to a high-threat environment, you find out the location does not use standardized alarm signals. What best describes the action you take? | Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location |
| Which of the following is not a test method you use to evaluate a local alerting system? | User friendly |
| Who directs changes in mission oriented protection posture levels and variations? | Senior Air Force commander |
| When individual protective equipment is issued to personnel, prepared for use, and kept readily available, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 0 |
| When the overgarment and field gear are worn, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 1 |
| When all individual protective equipment items are worn, the installation is operating under mission oriented protective postures level | 4 |
| Which of the following is not a mission oriented protection postures option? | Hood-only |
| What is the most critical function of sound post attack mission oriented protective posture analysis? | Gathering post attack information |
| The four traditional types of attack made using conventional and other weapons are | air, ground, rocket or mortar, and artillery |
| Which type of attack delivers hostile action or the threat of hostilities against US installations, areas, or personnel? | Air |
| Which type of attack includes the enemy’s use of motorized rifle units to inflict damage on sortie generation or support operations? | Ground |
| Which type of attack includes a self-propelled bomb? | Rocket or mortar |
| Which type of attack includes weapons that contribute firepower? | Artillery |
| A chemical compound or mechanical mixture that, when ignited by a flame, spark, or blow, undergoes a sudden chemical change known as | an explosive |
| What is the term used to describe the chemical change that results when an explosive is ignited? | Decomposition |
| What effect is produced when an explosive converts from a solid or liquid into a much larger amount of gas? | Great pressure. |
| High explosives detonate at a rate of | 3,200 to 28,000 feet per second |
| The two prime killing mechanisms of high explosive bombs are | blast and fragmentation |
| In foreign areas, who is responsible for protecting or evacuating all American citizens, both military and civilian? | The Department of State |
| Which action does the commander take during pre-attack? | Shelters people who are not performing mission-essential tasks |
| When the attack warning signal is given, what action should personnel in the area take? | Take the best available cover in the immediate area and don required individual protective equipment |
| Which agency directs post-attack damage and hazard assessment? | The emergency operations center |
| Which term defines moving assets to alternate locations for a short time in order to protect the assets from attack? | Dispersal |
| What issues may increase when you disperse aircraft during an attack? | Problems in communication |
| Which term defines protecting assets by strengthening the building or equipment against attack? | Hardening |
| Hardening is also called | defensive construction |
| Splinter protection provides limited protection to facilities and equipment from | weapons and small arms fire |
| The two tiers of expedient hardening planning are long-range planning and | priorities and work schedules |
| How many Air Force chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phases are there? | 3 |
| During which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phase would a downwind hazard analysis be conducted? | Advanced |
| During which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-explosive response phase would hazard areas be identified so personnel could avoid them? | Mission continuation |
| Which emergency support function controls the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center? | 5 |
| To whom is the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear control center subordinate? | Emergency operations center director |
| What is the minimum number of personnel assigned to a post-attack reconnaissance team? | 2 |
| During which phased release, after an attack, would chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear reconnaissance teams be released to run their routes? | Initial |
| During which phased release, after an attack, would post-attack reconnaissance teams be released to run their routes? | Limited |
| During which phased release after an attack would mission essential personnel be allowed to accomplish assigned duties? | General |
| How many levels of decontamination are there? | 4 |
| How many steps are required to accomplish technical decontamination? | 9 |
| How many on-base contamination control area sites need to be identified for every 0.5 x 2 miles of land mass? | 4 |
| How many off-base contamination control area sites need to be identified for contingency/emergency operations? | 2 |
| How many personnel should a trained, six-person contamination control area team be able to process in one hour? | 80 |
| How many decontamination packets make up a full M291 kit? | 6 |
| How many packets make up a full M295 decontamination kit? | 4 |
| What is the maximum amount of time you should spend decontaminating your face using the M291 kit? | 3 minutes |
| In an attempt to extend the wear time of the chemical protective overgarment, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your overgarment within how many minutes of a chemical agent contamination? | 15 minutes |
| How many M295 decontamination mitts are normally used for a complete decontamination operation? | 2 |
| What options are available to dispose of contaminated waste during contingency operations? | Open storage, burning, and burying |
| You’re running the CBRN control center and you were just notified that a chemically contaminated aircraft has been given permission to land on your uncontaminated installation. After the aircraft lands, you dispatch one of you chemical, biological, radiol | That personnel remain in MOPP Level 4 within 500 feet during the first three hours |
| Within how many minutes, after notification during duty-hours, must emergency management personnel be able to conduct emergency operation center operations at an existing installation (Types 1A, 1B, 2A, 2B, and 3A)? | 30 |
| You’ve just deployed to an airbase in Southwest Asia. How many hours after arriving do you have to establish an installation Joint Warning and Reporting Network? | 12 |
| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an expeditionary installation, required to exercise their responder staging area survey capability? | Every 6 months |
| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an expeditionary installation, required to exercise their downwind hazard analysis capability? | Every 2 months |
| How often are readiness and emergency management flights, at an existing installation, required to exercise their ground survey capability? | Every 12 months |
| How frequently are readiness and emergency management flights, at an existing installation, required to exercise their site and facility survey capability? | Every 6 months |
| Which active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability requires an initial monitoring team to establish a two line detection array? | Downwind hazard analysis |
| During expeditionary operations, how many hours, after arrival, does a readiness and emergency management flight have to create a threat detection grid plan? | 48 |
| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a full threat detection grid capability? | 4F9WN |
| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a deployed active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability? | 4F9WL |
| Which 4F9W*-series equipment unit type code provides a home station active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capability? | 4F9WM |
| Which 4F9W*-series personnel unit type code provides an installation chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear and emergency management support team capability? | 4F9WD |
| Which Department of Defense area does active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear response capabilities occur? | Sense |
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