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CBRN Practice 4

How many degrees are in a complete circle? 360
If you were traveling on an azimuth of 260 degrees and had to return to your original location, what is your back azimuth that you need to travel on? 80
When using an M1 lensatic compass, how far should the compass be from your rifle? 1/2 meter
To navigate to a location using a global positioning system (GPS) unit, what must the user enter into the GPS? A waypoint.
How many sets of batteries does the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR) require to fully operate? Two.
If you use non-rechargeable alkaline (AA 1.5 volt) batteries in the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what is the unit’s anticipated operating life? 11.5 hours.
To obtain the best satellite reception with the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what angle does the unit need to be held toward the horizon? 90 degrees.
What level of reliability does the GeoXT have? 2 to 5 meters.
When using a typical range finder, what must be adjusted to overlap the images? One of the mirrors.
In a laser range finder, what determines the distance based on how fast the beam travels to the target and back? Micro-processor.
What does the night vision goggle (NVG) require to function properly? Night light.
Which subassembly converts the captured light into a visible image? Image intensifier.
What part of the Vantage Pro2’s integrated senor suite (ISS) contains the brains of the ISS? Sensor interface module.
All mobile command centers (MCC) are required to meet which DHS/FEMA requirements? Type III.
When do you check a vehicle for unusual vibrations, noises, odors, and abnormal instrument readings? During operation.
To reduce the possibility of an accident or equipment damage to an all-terrain vehicle (ATV), you should always inspect your ATV before operation.
Which major command (MAJCOM) serves as the lead command for agile combat support and RD&A initiatives? Air Combat Command (ACC).
The specific requirements in AFOSH Standard 48–137 are based on which requirement? 29 CFR 1910.134.
What are the two basic types of protective breathing equipment used by first/emergency responders at a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear/hazardous materials (CBRN/HAZMAT) incident? Air-purifying respirator (APR) and atmosphere-supplying respirators.
Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) will the Air Force use? M50.
What color change occurs to the M61 filter time patch when it is expired and must be replaced? White to dark blue.
Which statement best describes the purpose of the MCU–2/P mask? Protects the face, eyes, and respiratory tract of the wearer against chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles.
Which valve assembly for the MCU–2/P must have a supportive screen or six raised spokes on the valve? Outlet.
The M45 second skin is made of what material and is available in how many sizes? Agent-resistant rubber
What type(s) of chemical protective clothing does National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 472 recognize? Liquid-splash and vapor-protective clothing.
A process that when the characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances is called degradation.
How many chemicals must liquid-splash protective clothing be tested against in accordance with National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 1992? Seven.
What do the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) protective equipment Level C provide users? Splash-protecting garment and an APR or PAPR
The purpose of the ground crew ensemble (GCE) is to provide durable individual protection capable of preventing field concentrations of CB warfare agents from physical contact with the wearer.
How long will the anti-contamination suit protect the wearer from gamma radiation? It provides no gamma protection.
Which statement best describes an electron? A very small negatively charged particle that is considerably lighter than the remainder of the atom.
Which statement best describes an electrically neutral atom? The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
What portion of an atom undergoes a transformation resulting in a beta particle being produced? A neutron changes to a proton.
The unit of measurement for dose rate of gamma radiation is roentgens per hour.
An alpha particle can travel a few inches in open air.
Beta particles can travel 12 to 18 inches in open air.
A radiation dispersal device (RDD) is any device that causes the purposeful dissemination of any radiological material across an area without a nuclear detonation.
Which substance is used to produce a nuclear explosion by the fission process? Plutonium.
Which subatomic particle causes fission to take place? Neutron.
Which term best describes impurities within the active material that absorb neutrons and ultimately decrease neutron availability for further fissioning of the active material? Purification.
Which energy range from a normal nuclear explosion equals 10 percent of the weapon effects? Residual nuclear radiation.
What is the point at which the primary wave and reflected wave join together? Mach stem.
What portion of thermal radiation causes widespread burns and incendiary effects? Infrared.
What types of radiation does fallout primarily generate? Beta and gamma.
The blast wave causes damage primarily at junctions between tissues of different densities.
What are the two types of blast injuries? Direct and indirect.
Which is not a phase of radiation sickness? Dormant.
What do Geiger-Mueller (G-M) tubes use to limit Townsend discharge? Certain types of gases.
The major radiation hazard encountered during a peacetime nuclear weapon accident is alpha.
The beta gamma probe can be located up to how far away from the ADM–300? 500 feet.
Which radioactive source is associated with ADM–300 calibration? Thorium 232.
Which components comprise the Air Force air sampling kit? High volume air sampler, 4” diameter filter holder, filter paper, and tripod.
What can the GR–135 Plus identify? Industrial and medical isotopes and illicit nuclear materials.
The GR–135 allows the user to survey, measure dose, and analyze nuclides for risk assessment
Which primitive plants do not use photosynthesis, are capable of anaerobic growth, and draw nutrition from decaying vegetable matter? Fungi.
Tricothecene toxins are absorbed through the skin.
What type of microorganisms grows only in the presence of free oxygen? Aerobes.
A biological agent aerosol is most effective when the disseminated agent is viable, virulent, the correct size, and airborne.
Which term best describes particles in a biological warfare agent aerosol cloud that strike and stick to objects in their path? Impaction.
What does a biological warfare (BW) agent gas-generating submunition use to deploy the BW agent? Cartridges to expel the agent through a simple orifice.
Casualty rates from biological warfare agent filled submunitions are a function of the number of submunitions per square kilometer, the infectivity of the agent, and the area of coverage.
Aerodynamic stability makes which threat delivery platform easier cheaper to deliver and to disperse chemical and biological agents? Cruise missiles.
What period(s) of the day provide the best conditions for a successful biological warfare (BW) agent attack? Nightime and early morning.
What biological detection technology operates under the principle that every living organism has a substance with which it is incompatible? Antibody techniques.
Which biological detection technology identifies the agent by heating the sample to extremely high temperatures and breaking the sample into its individual components? Mass spectrometry.
How many biological agent tests can be conducted with a single Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? 1
As a minimum, what individual protective equipment should you wear while sampling with the Department of Defense (DOD) biological sampling kit? Respirator protection and gloves.
The key to the BioCapture® 650 is its integrated collector cartridge.
The dry filter unit (DFU) 1000 is rated for how many continuous hours? 40,000
Which chemical warfare agent disrupts the oxygen-carrying properties of blood? Blood agents.
What type of agent is Phosgene oxime (CX)? Blister agent
Which term is defined as the rate at which the body is able to counteract the effects of a poisonous substance? Rate of detoxification.
Chemical warfare agents with high molecular weights indicate solids
Chemical warfare agents with high boiling points tend to evaporate slower at ambient temperatures.
Which is the most important factor that impacts the persistency of a chemical warfare agent? Volatility
A surface burst has occurred if a tactical ballistic missile (TBM) detonates below 150 feet
What is the primary concern for exposure to toxic industrial chemicals (TIC)? Inhalation
What are the principal factors in the development of chemical detection systems? Toxicity of agents and ability of agents to off-gas.
What chemical agents can you detect using M8 paper? Nerve and blister.
How long is M9 paper useful after being removed from the shipping bag? Approximately one year for tropic and desert regions.
pH paper indicates the presence of specific acid and alkalines hazards.
What does the M256A1 use for the detection of vapor nerve agent? An enzyme from an eel
What is the use of the heater pads associated with the M256A1 kit? Prevent glass from cutting your gloves or hands when crushing ampoules 3 and 5
After crushing the first heater ampoule on the M256A1 sampler detector, how many minutes do you leave the heater in place over the test spot? Two
Which item inside the chemical agent monitor (CAM) conducts a classification process of the chemical warfare agent detected? Software stored in the memory of the internal microprocessor.
The automatic chemical agent alarm (ACAA) passes the air sample drawn in through the inlet to two detection cells through a permeable membrane.
What does the MultiRae detect? Oxygen levels. lower explosive limits, and two preselected gases
How many database libraries does the Hazmat ID include? Eight
The Drager Haz-Mat Simultest Kit measures 15 organic and inorganic chemicals and/or chemical families
Created by: TruCancer



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