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CDC 3P051
Volume 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force? | Objective reasonableness. |
| The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action, | risk perception, and officer response. |
| You respond to the base housing are to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation? | Compliant. |
| Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it? | Verbal controls. |
| You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted are because he or she is not wearing a restricted are badge... What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels? | Professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls. |
| Deadly force would be authorized to keep | someone from killing you or doing serious bodily harm. |
| Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources | vital to national security. |
| Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force? | Keep someone from breaking into a house. |
| You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on | safe, and your finger not in the trigger guard. |
| Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, your first action is to | notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post. |
| When challenging individuals on foot, place the individual in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials? | 5 |
| What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon? | Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident. |
| Handcuffing is | never automatic. |
| How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs? | Loop the cuffs through the suspects belt at a point below the small of his or her back. |
| The alert stance places your week side towards an individual and your weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect, maintaining a distance of at least how many feet? | 6 |
| When suspects are cooperative handcuff them | in the standing position. |
| You would use a standing search on a suspect who is | not dangerous or violent. |
| What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the week side to the strong side standing search? | Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect's shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position. |
| The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who | is physically impaired. |
| IN which part of the body do you begin the prone search? | lower body. |
| If you apprehend someone of the opposite sex, you can search the | outer garments and hand-carried items. |
| Your first task as the transporting officer is to familiarize yourself with | vehicle, specific security devices, safety, and security. |
| When you arrive at Security Forces Control Center, after transporting someone of the opposite gender, what information must you provide the controller? | Time arrived and ending mileage reading. |
| In which prtion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques? | Resistant (active). |
| When using the one hand grab technique, in STEP 1 you spread the fingers wide apart, and rotate your thumb hand how many degrees over the suspect's hand? | 180. |
| Upon what is your decision to apprehend based? | Probable cause. |
| What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspects to make an apprehension? | Your position and your attitude. |
| The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to | gain control of your suspect. |
| The IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3 you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint | rearward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand. |
| In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the left/right? | elbow. |
| To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect's | arm parallel to the ground. |
| The three principle target areas for the baton are arms, | legs, knees. |
| The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon? | Impact. |
| For how many minutes can the effects and symptoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated? | 45. |
| OC pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered | non-leathel. |
| Which type of spray pattern does OC pepper spray canisters emit? | Cone shaped mist. |
| For rifle fighting techniques to be effective the must be applied with | speed and surprise. |
| The proper way to assume the rifle fighting technique attack position is to place | the left hand on the rifle hand guard and the right hand on the top of the rifle stock as close to the charging handle as possible. |
| Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarm an opponent? | Butt stroke. |
| What is an example of a rough grid coordinate? | 3/B. |
| What is an incident involving nuclear weapons? | Bent spear. |
| The accident or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war is called a | Nucflash. |
| The Initial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the | base's established notification system. |
| How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster? | Upwind or crosswind direction. |
| What major accident phase is a complex and time-consuming operation? | Recovery. |
| What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons? | 2000 feet. |
| What is the size of an accident involving biological agents? | 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. |
| Regardless of size, who establishes and controls on base-base cordons | SF personnel. |
| What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident? | Do not answer questions and refer them to public affairs personnel. |
| One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to | prevent or minimize loss of life and property. |
| Who is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation? | Federal Bureau of Investigations. |
| The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of | trained negotiators. |
| Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Force personnel, who is allowed inside? | Negotiation teams. |
| What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an incident called? | Abuse. |
| Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is | neglect. |
| Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of | physical battering. |
| Non accidental injuries such as burns, spiral fractures of the arms or legs and bruises are | physical abuse. |
| What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatantly rejecting their child? | Emotional maltreatment. |
| When responding to a call, keep in mind each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be | calm and positive. |
| What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension? | AF Form 3545, Incident Report. |
| When dealing with a violent disturbance, Security Force (SF) members must immediately | separate disputants. |
| The difference between a violent dispute and verbal dispute is during a | verbal dispute a physical assault not occurred. |
| How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks? | Randomly. |
| At least how many security forces members should be present when entry point checks are conducted? | Two. |
| After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and contents, before starting a base entry point check of a vehicle, have the driver | turn off the engine, have all other occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartments. |
| What must you do once illegal contraband is discovered while conducting and entry point check? | Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual. |
| Before conducting a vehicle search, you must have probable cause, | proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle. |
| What are the two types of vehicle searches? | Complete and simple. |
| Which search method is often used o conduct a room, building or small outdoor area search? | Concentric circle. |
| Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas? | Strip and grid. |
| If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may | enter the building to prevent injury or damage. |
| Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated? | So you cannot distort each other's impression. |
| What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area? | Hood, surgical mask, and eye protection. |
| What is a basic rile when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available? | Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. |
| As a security forces member, you testify under oath "I saw the car driven by SMSgt Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road." This is an example of | testimonial evidence. |
| What must evidence be to be admissible in court? | Competent and relevant. |
| What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it? | Record it in your notes and report. |
| What is the goal of employing blast and fragment mitigation? | Reduce the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings. |
| What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues? | Jersey and Bitburg barriers |
| Which barrier is intended for use against fragment mitigation? | Sandbang. |
| Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource? | C4 systems of active nuclear missions. |
| Secure PL1 resources by | providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area. |
| What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or military department? | National Defense. |
| What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken. | To assist in recapture and recovery operations. |
| Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time? | Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI) |
| Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties? | No-lone zone. |
| Security fences serve as | legal and physical demarcation of an area boundary. |
| The security fence height must be how many feet above the ground surface? | 7. |
| The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground? | 2 inches. |
| What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources? | 250. |
| What type of padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area? | Type III. |
| Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations? | Special Purpose lighting. |
| At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary? | 100 feet. |
| How many lines of detection must Security Forces (SF) establish for PL1 nonnuclear? | One line at the restricted area boundary and one line at the structure. |
| What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood? | Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities. |
| The success of any community policing program depends | on the extent to which the program meets the community's needs. |
| Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes? | Office of Special Investigations. |
| Who is responsible for ensuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist related activities? | Flight Chief. |
| Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property | Operation identification. |
| Security Force members should be discreet when using the siren because it | frequently complicates traffic problems. |
| What would you do if a violator stops in an area that you do not like or is unsafe? | Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go. |
| Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violators during a traffic stop? | Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left. |
| When contacting the violator during a traffic stop, an exigent circumstances would be speeding to | get your pregnant wife to the hospital. |
| In the double abreast position increased distance the primary and backup patrol vehicle are positioned double abreast how many feet to the rear of the suspect's vehicle? | 30 to 40. |
| Within how many hours must you report an accident to which Security Force did not respond? | 72. |
| Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic because | Shouting orders tend to antagonize motorists. |
| What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a 0.10 BAC? | 2. |
| Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment by your civilian counterparts? | So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. |
| Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content. | Breathalyzer. |
| After you write report, the next step would be to | evaluate the report. |
| Which report is an official/permanent record of events? | AF Form 3545, Incident Report. |
| If your report is non-opinionated, fair, and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report? | Objective. |
| Which sentence is an example of an active voice? | Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones. |
| What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated? | Bias motivation codes. |
| What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant? | Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer. |
| The chain-of-custody on the AF From 52, Evidence Tag, initiated by the | person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property. |
| What is placed in the badge number block of the AF From 1109 when no badge is used for an area? | N/A. |
| DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who | committed a moving or nonmoving traffic offense. |
| Who has the authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed Forces Traffic Ticket? | Issuing security forces member or Chief, Security Forces. |
| What is a seizure? | The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial. |
| Who can authorize a search? | Commender having control over the area or property to be searched. |
| What is used to document consent to search if an AF Forma 1364 is not available? | Plain piece of paper. |
| In which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect? | Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing. |
| How many copied of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for inmate or Detained Person should you prepare? | Two. |
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