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CBRN Practice 3

How many hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response levels are there? 3
Where might you find the radioactive material Americium–241 on various aircraft types? forward-looking infrared system (FLIRS).
Who will initiate a recall of the installation Disaster Response Force (DRF) during an on base aircraft accident response? Incident commander (IC).
Which AFI covers response to severe weather events? AFI 10–229.
What do you call a tropical cyclone located in the vicinity of Japan? Typhoon.
To obtain a complete list of world-wide tropical cyclone names, which agency’s website would you refer to? National Hurricane Center (NHC).
What scale is used to rate the intensity of a hurricane? Saffir-Simpson scale.
In which Saffir-Simpson hurricane category could you expect to have a 9 to 12 foot storm surge? Category 3.
What is the greatest threat to life and property along the immediate coast during a hurricane? Storm surge.
If a category 4 hurricane with a 17 foot storm surge makes landfall during a 3 foot high tide, how high would the storm tide be on shore? 20 feet.
What computerized model does the National Hurricane Center run to estimate storm surge heights and winds for a hurricane? Sea, land and overland surges from hurricanes (SLOSH).
During which months of the year are tornadoes more predominant? May and June.
What would a tornado with 3-second gust wind speeds of 168–199 mph be classified as on the Enhanced Fujita (EF) scale? EF–4.
Based on 2007 National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and Storm Prediction Center tornado data, which type of tornadoes occurred the most during the year? EF–0.
Which classification of thunderstorms are the largest and most severe? Super cell.
Tornadoes are most likely to occur between 3:00 pm and 6:00 pm.
Which tornado notification indicates a tornados location and projected path? Tornado warning.
What type of natural disaster is among the most frequent and costliest in terms of human hardship and economic loss? Floods.
Which volcano was the most dangerous in the US? Mount Rainier.
Which US agency monitors all 170 of our nation’s active volcanoes and had federal responsibility to issue timely and effective warnings of potential volcanic disasters? United States Geologic Survey (USGS).
Which installation plan must incorporate all installation notification and warning system (INWS) requirements listed in AFI 10–2501 and any local procedures? Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP)10–2.
In all hazard incidents how many steps are involved in the hazard analysis process and which one is the first step? 3
How many steps are in a capabilities assessment? 6.
Which capabilities assessment step lists installation resources? Step 3.
The primary objective of emergency management (EM) program planning is to support Air Force plans by minimizing effects caused by all-hazard incidents.
What is an emergency operations plan (EOP) and what emergency management (EM) EOP is used on Air Force installations? An EOP is a document describing how people and property will be protected in a disaster or emergency/comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2.
What are the four distinct steps in the emergency planning process? Step 1 – Hazard analysis, Step 2 – CEMP 10–2 development, Step 3 – Testing the plan through training and exercises, and Step 4 – Plan maintenance and revision.
How does collaboration between planning team members benefit the installation’s response to a disaster? It eliminates duplication of services resulting in a more efficient response, expands resource availability, and enhances problem solving through cross-pollination of ideas.
What is the primary plan the readiness and emergency management flight will be responsible for developing and maintaining? Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2.
What is the fastest way to send out a plan for review and coordination? Shotgun method.
What is the objective of concept planning? To develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an OPORD if necessary.
What plan do Air Force installation’s develop to provide comprehensive guidance for emergency response to physical threats resulting from major accidents, natural disasters, conventional attacks, terrorist attacks, and CBRN attacks? Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2.
Which type of plan is the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? OPLAN.
If a CEMP 10–2 is not developed for a deployed location at first, what may a commander use in lieu of one until it is developed? Expeditionary support plan (ESP).
Which AFI is used to determine the classification of the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? AFI 31–401.
Which part of the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 provides an overview of the plan and outlines the situations the plan will be used? The basic plan.
How many annexes are in the comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2? 5
What type of planning has applicability to multiple comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP) 10–2 annexes Disease containment.
Where can you find more definitive guidance on developing the CE contingency response plan (CRP)? AFI 10–211 and AFPAM 10–219, Volume 1.
Which chapter in the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) covers chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive (CBRN) defense operations? 11.
Which plan provides guidance to improve survivability of strategic forces and to enhance the recovery and reconstitution of those forces in the event of a nuclear attack on Air Force bases? Survival, recovery, and reconstitution (SRR) plan.
What type of agreement is made between two countries? Host nation support agreement.
What type of agreement do installation first responders enter into with local community first responders? Mutual Aid Agreement.
In which phase do emergency response operations begin? Notification phase.
What do command posts use to immediately notify commanders of any significant event or incident that rises to the level of Department of Defense (DOD), Air Force, or major command (MAJCOM) interests? OPREP–3s.
Flying over the US, an aircraft carrying a nuclear weapon crashes, resulting in rad contamination. There is no risk in the accident causing an outbreak of nuclear war. Which report would the command post most likely use to inform higher headquarters? PINNACLE BROKEN ARROW.
What does the eight-step incident management process outline and implement? The basic tactical functions.
Who activates the emergency operations center (EOC)? The installation commander.
Upon initial recall of emergency support function (ESF) personnel, what information should they receive during the initial briefing? Description of the incident or natural disaster, forces on-scene, casualty estimate, cordon size and location description, protective measures being taken, and tactical priorities.
What role does the readiness and emergency management flight have with the incident cordon? The flight may advise on evacuation and cordon size based on the type and size of the incident.
What criteria is used to establish hazardous materials (HAZMAT) zones? Site physical and topographical features adequate roads, power sources, water, and potential for fire and explosion.
Withdrawal is a protective action used when responders are in immediate danger or when all response actions have been completed.
During a hazardous materials (HAZMAT) incident at a chemical plant, toxic air contaminants were being carried downwind. If you were the IC and time did not permit to move people in the downwind hazard area, what protective action would you implement? Shelter-in-Place.
Which phase begins when first responders have completed emergency response and lifesaving actions? Recovery.
Before major accident and natural disaster operations involving Air Force resources can end, what actions must be accomplished? Provide positive or negative confirmation of contamination
After a major accident or natural disasters, caring for military families is extremely important. What is activated to provide assistance to military families? An emergency family assistance control center (EFACC).
What phase begins when the incident commander (IC) advises the emergency operations center (EOC) director that the incident has been sufficiently controlled or terminated and the security of the situation is sufficient? Restoration phase.
To bring an installation back to combat readiness status after a major accident or natural disaster what should restoration decisions focus its installation resources on? Safety
Mitigation during and after an incident includes preparing and exercising critical elements of responses to major accidents and natural disasters.
Which plan lists an installation’s critical facilities and defines facilities that are required protection? CE contingency response plan (CRP).
What are the principle routes into the human body for plutonium at a nuclear weapon accident? Inhalation and contaminated wounds.
Plutonium isotopes used in nuclear weapons are primarily alpha emitters except Pu–241, which is primarily a beta emitter.
What ADM–300 probe would you use at a nuclear weapon accident site if there was rain, morning dew, dust, snow, or firefighting foam? X-Ray probe.
After initial cloud passage at a nuclear weapon accident, the primary method causing a Plutonium inhalation hazard to personnel on the ground is due to resuspension from walking.
Until time and equipment permit completion of extensive radiation surveys, what will be used to assist in assessing the potential impact of a nuclear weapon accident and in identifying areas for initial investigation by your radiological response teams? Atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plot.
Which agency serves as the Lead Federal Agency during a response to an accident involving radioactive materials when the material is or was in Department of Defense (DOD) custody during the accident? DOD.
What are the five identifiable operational phases that constitute a response to a nuclear weapon accident? Notification and deployment
During which nuclear weapon accident phase will the response task force (RTF) arrive? Accident site consolidation phase.
What center will Department of Energy (DOE) and DOE National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) deploy for a domestic nuclear weapon accident? DOE Federal Radiological Monitoring and Assessment Center (FRMAC).
What type of command does the Department of Defense (DOD), Department of Energy (DOE) and National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) form when they come together during the initial response to a nuclear weapon accident? Unified command (UC).
What are the exception(s) to the Department of Defense (DOD), Department of Energy (DOE) and National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) policy to neither confirm nor deny the presence of nuclear weapons at any particular installation or location? The on-scene commander (OSC) is required to confirm the presence of nuclear weapons or
radioactive nuclear components in the interest of public safety if the public is, or may be, in danger of radiation exposure or other danger posed by the weapon and the OSC may confirm or deny the presence of nuclear weapons to reduce or prevent widespread public alarm.
As an emergency management (EM) specialist, the first non-DOD external agency products that you’ll request as you prepare to respond to a nuclear weapon accident is to request an atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plot.
What are the two types of atmospheric release advisory capability (ARAC) plots that an initial response force (IRF) will receive? 50-year whole body effective dose plot and cumulative deposition plot.
Which statement best describes the purpose of an initial perimeter survey (IPS)? Quickly determine if the radiological hazards are contained inside the cordon.
Which of these is not one of the three basic cornerstones of the initial perimeter survey (IPS) process? Quickly get downwind.
While conducting an initial perimeter survey (IPS) mission, the wind direction is blowing towards 090°. What will be your heading when you are on your fourth objective? 270°
The purpose of a contamination control station (CCS) is to minimize (attempting to eliminate) the spread of radiological contamination and serve as a secure entry and exit area to and from the accident site.
A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your CCS. Unfortunately, you have only four given circumstance? Implement initial CCS procedures.
Which of the following is not a principal element of a contamination control statio n (CCS)? Contamination removal zone.
If not already completed, what action does the response task force (RTF) conduct to determine the levels of radiological contamination and explosive hazards in and around the accident site? Initial reconnaissance.
Who is responsible for developing a recovery plan for a nuclear weapons accident? Response task force (RTF) on-scene commander.
A landmark or map coordinate used by every radial survey team as a reference is called a? Focal point.
Which of these is not a main area included in response task force (RTF) support at an accident site? Search and recovery area.
Where would you most likely work after being merged into the response task force (RTF)? Joint hazards evaluation center (JHEC).
In which phase of a nuclear weapon accident does weapon recovery occur? Phase IV.
During a nuclear weapon accident in a foreign country, who must the US coordinate its response with? Host nation.
Which type of Air Force inspection is conducted to evaluate the ability of units with a wartime or contingency mission to perform assigned operational missions? Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI).
Which inspection program provides a means to focus management attention, gather data, and evaluate the status of specific programs and conditions in the field? Special Interest Item.
How often must an Air Force installation conduct a Terrorist Use of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) exercise and what must one of those exercises focus on? Two annually
What concept must your installation’s emergency management (EM) exercises embody? “Train the way we fight” concept.
Before EET members can evaluate an exercise, they must complete the core training outlined in AFI 10–2501.
When you plan for an exercise, what CE requirements must be considered? If the CE unit is CONUS, OCONUS, and its Prime BEEF requirements.
When you conduct a nuclear weapon accident exercise, what do you use to refer to nuclear weapons on telephones, radios, and in written communications? Line numbers.
The five basic parts in an exercise are the objectives, ground rules, basic situation, the situation cards, and master scenario events listing.
What role does an evaluator have to help his or her unit? Expose big problems and give credit where credit it due.
Who conducts a critique of each exercise after its termination? Exercise evaluation team chief.
When assigning responsibility for an exercise write up, what should you avoid? Blame.
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