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CBRN Practice2

QuestionAnswer
The primary focus of atomic, biological and chemical (ABC) programs was to train selected deployable Air Force personnel on ABC defense measures
What DOD document and course did the NUW AX exercises develop? The NARP manual and NETOP course
The significant change that occurred to emergency management and response after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001 was the implementation of National Incident Management System
The Air Force complies with adopting National Incident Management system by implementing the Air Force Incident Management System
What year was the emergency management career field occupational badge approved by the Chief of Staff of the Air Force? 2006
What is the stipulation about wearing the EM occupational badge? You must wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge
In what year did the program name change from full spectrum threat response to emergency management? 2006
Which principal piece of legislation governs how the federal government will respond to disasters with the US? Stafford Act.
Which United States department is the federal coordinating agency for foreign consequence management operations? The Department of State.
What Department of Defense manual is used to execute a unified response to a nuclear weapon accident? Nuclear weapons accident response procedures.
What codifies how the Air Force will best employ air and space power? Doctrine.
Every airman in the force protection program is considered to be a sensor.
What are the ancillary missions of the emergency management program? To support homeland defense and civil support operations and to provide support to civil and host nation authorities.
Who is responsible for ensuring the Air Force has established a single emergency management program? The Air Force civil engineer.
The emergency management program does not cover non-physical threats like cyber threats.
The two elements of the emergency management program are planning and management and the disaster response force.
What are the four sub-elements in the planning and management elements? EMWG, installation EM manager, unit EM representatives, and EET.
Who appoints the installation emergency manager? CE commander.
What is the primary means to evaluate the effectiveness of an installation’s Air Force incident management system implementation? The installation exercise evaluation team.
What type of command would be established if multiple incident commanders were managing several incidents across the installation? Area.
What are the primary special staff positions within the Incident Command System command staff? Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer.
What positions comprise the incident command system general staff? Operations section chief, logistics section chief, planning section chief, and finance and adminstration section chief.
What three functions support the installation control center command and control structure? CAT, EOC, and UCCs.
Who serves as the senior leader of the installation control center? Installation commander.
Who activates the EOC? The installation commander.
The emergency operations center is comprised of how many emergency support functions? 15.
In what two emergency support functions (ESF) do 3E9X1 personnel play a primary role? ESF 5 and 10.
To assume the role of the incident commander when you arrive at an incident, you have to be a trained and experienced subject matter expert from the fire and emergency services, medical, or security forces.
What is an emergency responder? Follow-on elements such as firefighters, SFS and emergency medical technicians, as well as EM and EOD personnel, physicians, nurses, medical treatment providers at medical treatment facilities, public health officers, BEE and mortuary affairs personnel.
A unit control center supports the incident commander or emergency operations center by providing subject matter experts.
What primary specialized teams are part of the disaster response force (DRF)? RST, SMT, CCT, PAR.
Why is stability within specialized teams important? It is important because adequate team experience and proficiency require a significant training investment.
In today’s world, who builds the foundation for an effective civilian community response? Senior officials and emergency managers.
What is considered to be a core obligation of local community leaders? Emergency management.
Why should your installation emergency manager develop a relationship with neighboring city and county emergency managers? To ensure your installation is not operating in a vacuum and is engaged with the local community’s efforts to plan, respond, mitigate, and recover from a disaster.
Who is responsible for preparing a state for large-scale emergencies and state response in any incident? State emergency management agency director.
Who leads the federal government’s response efforts for large-scale and catastrophic incidents? The president.
What are the types of federal disaster aid provided by the Federal Emergency Management Agency? Individual assistance, public assistance, and hazard mitigation.
Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management? Secretary of Homeland Security.
The federal coordinating officer position is filled by a senior FEMA official.
How many defense coordinating officers are there and where are they located? 10,one in each FEMA region.
The homeland security operations center serves as the nation’s nerve center for information sharing and domestic incident management
The homeland security operations center shares information with emergency operations centers through the HSIN.
Which Department of State (DOS) bureau is the principal link to the Department of Defense (DOD)? Bureau of Political-Military Affairs.
What HAZMAT and CBRN capabilities does the FBI have? The CBSU and HMRU.
What does the Federal Emergency Management Agency use to coordinate federal regional response efforts? Regional response coordination center.
What Federal Emergency Management Agency response and coordination tools can be deployed to emergencies and disasters? Hurricane liaison team, urban search and rescue task force, and mobile emergency response support.
Which Department of Energy (DOE) National Nuclear Security Administration asset is comprised of scientists, technical specialists, crisis managers, and equipment ready for shortnotice dispatch to the scene of a US nuclear weapon accident? DOE accident response group.
Who serves as the Air Force liaison between civil and military authorities during declared national security emergencies and critical events? Emergency preparedness liaison officer.
What would a civil engineer (CE) readiness and emergency management flight coordinate on with an emergency preparedness liaison officer (EPLO)? DSCA contact information, DSCA plans, and the installation CEMP 10–2 plan.
Which agency is a volunteer civilian auxiliary of the Air Force and can be used for natural and man-made disaster operations? Civil Air Patrol.
Which self-contained and self-sufficient team can deploy world-wide to support chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive terrorist threat? Chemical biological incident response force.
What defense threat reduction agency service is the DOD’s key provider of information and analysis on nuclear and conventional weapon topics? Defense threat reduction information analysis center.
Which Joint Task Force is the only military organization dedicated solely to planning and integrating Department of Defense forces for consequence management support to civil authorities? Joint Task Force-Civil Support.
What is a unified combatant command? A unified combatant command has a broad continuing mission and is composed of forces from two or more military departments.
Which unified combatant command is responsible for the Southwest Asia area of responsibility? United States Central Command.
Which unified combatant command is responsible for equipping and training a response task force? United States Pacific Command.
Which North Atlantic Treaty Organization standardization agreement (STANAG) does the 3E9X1 career field use for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear prediction, reporting, and warning? STANAG 2103.
Many of the nation’s critical infrastructures are operated and maintained by Private-sector organizations.
What is the primary product that a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight provides to its customers? Information.
What important responsibilities does a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight need to do to accomplish its mission? Advocate and operationalize the flight’s EM, C-CBRN and Prime BEEF mission.
What is the emergency management program review designed for? Facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.
Who determines which host installation will be responsible for equipping and training a geographically separated unit for its emergency management program? Major command.
Who determines and prioritizes all core processes when it comes to manpower? Career Field Manager and MAJCOM FAMs.
Which manpower document provides names assigned to position numbers? Unit personnel management roster.
What process begins when the Air Staff calls for budgets and financial plans associated with mission accomplishment? A budget call.
What is the amount called when a MAJCOM issues a lump-sum dollar amount that represents the anticipated amount of funding for the next fiscal year? A bogey.
Refer to figure 3–4 in unit 3. Which PE is assigned to active duty chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear defense? PE 27593.
Refer to figure 3–4. Which PEs are assigned to ANG and AFRC chemical, biological,radiological, and nuclear defense respectively? PE 55165 and 55166.
Which document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals to accomplish the assigned mission, tasks, or duties? An allowance standard.
The basis of issue listed in allowance standards is maximum allowances.
Before starting any task with a piece of equipment, what must be reviewed for familiarization with the latest procedures? Applicable TO.
Who requests technical orders for your flight? TO distribution account.
Which Air Force handbook would you use to determine a civil engineer readiness and emergency flight’s recommended facility space requirements? AFH 32–1084.
What must you do with training equipment in your flight? Carefully follow the technical order instructions, mark the equipment, and store it separately from operational equipment.
What kind of permit must a flight have before it can receive, store, distribute, use, transfer,or dispose of radioactive sources? Radioactive material.
How long must you maintain swipe test results? 3 years.
What learning theory is focused on changing the way a person thinks? Cognitive.
What barrier to creativity is demonstrated by an instructor who continues to teach a course the same way, time after time, because no one ever complains? Habit.
What three parts should student centered objectives have? Condition, performance, standard.
What does an instructor use feedback for? As an indication that students have received the message regardless if they understood the message or not.
What are the two primary teaching methods used by an emergency management instructor? Lecture and demonstration-performance.
Which teaching method combines an oral explanation with the operation of equipment? Demonstration-performance.
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides in-depth information on emergency management training courses? AFI 10–2501.
What is the minimum number of hours a civil engineer readiness and emergency management flight must complete in-house training each month? 16.
How do you document an enlisted individual mobilization augmentee’s (IMA) training? The same as active duty personnel.
The objective of Air Force emergency management (EM) training is to provide the required knowledge and skills to prepare for, prevent, respond to, recover from, and mitigate contingencies or emergencies requiring Air Force response.
How frequently must personnel complete chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear, and explosive awareness training in MTAs and HTAs? Every 20 months.
Unless otherwise specified, what must military, civilian, or contractor personnel complete to teach emergency management (EM) courses identified in AFI 10–2501? AETC EM apprentice or readiness flight officer courses.
Personnel going temporary duty (TDY) to or deploying to an medium threat area or high threat area must be current in chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive defense at the time of departure and for the duration of the TDY or deployment.
Air Force emergency management (EM) education and training is transitioning to blended learning. What are the distinctive parts of blended learning? Individual knowledge-based objectives and individual demonstration-performance objectives.
If an emergency management (EM) course is not available as a web-based course, what will EM instructors use to determine course proficiency standards for knowledge and performance? Readiness training packages.
Training must be completed every 20 months and the course must be completed within 15 consecutive work days after starting the course by active duty military, civilian, or contract personnel or within two UTAs by Air Reserve Command personnel Every 20 months
What program provides all personnel assigned to the installation with the knowledge to protect themselves from effects of and to support unit response to the all-hazard threats to their installation? Base emergency preparedness orientation.
What are all the DOD HAZMAT training levels? Level 1-First Responder Awareness, Level 2-First Responder Operations, Level 3-HAZMAT Technician, Level 4-HAZMAT Specialist, and Level 5-HAZMAT IC.
HAZMAT refresher training through a real-world response or exercise, documentation must include a summary of the person’s response that meets the criteria for the appropriate level of training, including each competency area IAW 29 CFR 1910.120.
Which item is not a training munition? Camphor.
At least how far away from an occupied building should the mask confidence training facility be placed? 100 meters.
What level of vapor concentration should not be exceeded when using chloroacetophenone (CN) or o-chlorobenzylidene malononitrile (CS) for mask confidence training? 10 mg/m3.
What reaction do students have when exposed to stannic chloride? Coughing or choking.
Created by: TruCancer