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EAWS Study

QuestionAnswer
safety 101-Respiratory Protection Program identifies employess as requiring respirator protection
101-Hearing Conservation Program identifies potentially hazardous noise levels
101-Sight Conservation Program surveys all activity work areas equipment and processes to determine which are eye hazards
101-define PPE program determines if hazards are present to neccessitate PPE
101-Identify F/A18 Danger Areas flammable liquids,compressed gases, canopy,seat and DFIRS explosive devices, airframe and external stores, engine, radar antenna, APU exhaust, Aressting hook, all moving flight control surfaces
101-Identify the minimum safe distances from aircraft Idle-IN 9ft EX 115-155ft / Military-IN 25ft EX 325-725ft / Maximum-IN 25ft EX 850-925ft
101-state the purpose and identify the location of the aircraft STEP NO STEP areas NOSTEP-LEF, TEF, Horizontal stabs, Airlerons, and radome surfaces. STEP-will have non-skid, also wings are considered walkways
101-state the general safety precautions associated with applying and removing external power circuit breakers in right position, power off before removal and installation of power cord
101-identify the personnal danger area during APU operations most center point of APU exhaust
101-state the precautions/restrictions that apply to performing maintenance on ordnance major maintenance is prohibited, weapons safetied to maximum degree
101-identify the precautions that must be observed when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials goggles, respirator, cotton weave gloves
102-state the number of tie-down points on the F/A-18 and identify their location 12, nose, left and right mains, fuselage and wing pylons
102-state the proper procedures for aircraft ground ground first to approved receptacle
102-state the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers FOD and environmental damage
102-Move director duties and responsibilities qualified personnel, safety, ready for move
102-brake rider duties and responsibilities insure all safety equipment installed, free from service equip, brake pressure correct
102-chock walker duties and responsibilities pulls chocks, observes area around moving aircraft,
102-Safety observer duties and responsibilities pre-tow inspection of A/C, free of chains, cable cords and SE, safety pins installed
102-tractor driver duties and responsibilities tows at walking speed avoiding sudden moves or stops and starts, pre-Op's tractor, follows move director
102-discuss towing preparations A-minimum structural access doors installed B-radome must be closed and secured (if installed) C-do not tow A/C with doors 68 l/r open D-ensure A/C emergency brake reads 2900 psi E-ensure A/C is clear of all obstacles and SE
102-state the purpose of the landing gear aircraft ground safety pins safeties nose and main landing gear to prevent gear retraction
102-describe the hazard associated with canopy static buildup 100,000 volts may build up and be stored during flight
102-briefly discuss the canopy static discharge process A- A/C is grounded B-ensure static charge removal kit has pre-op C-connect kit to aircraft nose landing gear wheel well ground receptacle D-run the kit mittens over the canopy and windshield until static discharge is gone
103-state the purpose of a hydraulic patch test to check level of contamination of aircraft hydraulic systems and SE
103-state the purpose of a tactical paint scheme to lesson the probability of visual or photographic detectionand to confuse/mislead observers
103-what does NAVAIR 01-1A-509 provide provides information on material and procedures for the prevention and repair of corrosion and upkeep of aircraft paint scheme
103-what does NAVAIR A1-F18AC-SRM-500 provide provides corrosion control procedures for organizational, intermediate and depot levels of maintenance..use with 509
103-state the three modes of wheel brake operation Normal- used for taxing, Emergency- when no hydraulic system pressure is available, Parking Brake- used at all times unless aircraft is being moved
103-discuss the purpose of composite airframe materials to limit weight, decrease effects of corrosion attack and to increase strength, also used for high performance composite structure both monolithic and sandwich material
103-what is a temporary repair allows aircraft to be flown until permanent repair can be made,
103-what is a one-time flight repair repair made to restore limited load carrying requirements to be flown to a repair station
103-what is permanent repair repair equals or exceeds strength of original structure or component
104-state the type and identify the models of engines used in the F/A-18 low by-pass axial low turbo fan with afterburner F404-GE-400/402 A thru D F414-GE-400 E thru G
104-state the three modes of operation for auxiliary power unit MES-main engine start GMM-ground maintenance mode, gives hydraulic and electric power, (de-coupled) ECS-environment control system, brings air into aircraft
104-state the purpose and identify the location of the IFR probe located on the right forward part of fuselage, allows fuel from tanker, electrically controlled hydraulically operated
104-explain the purpose of the aircraft fuel storage system contains and supplies on board fuel to the aircraft engines, APU, and to provide cooling for certain hydraulic and lubrication systems
104-state the purpose of the foam-lined wing tanks to prevent an explosion atmosphere in case of battle/accidental damage or rupture
105-state the difference between a barametric and radar altimeter Barametric-senses the difference in air pressure as the aircraft changes altitude, Radar- transmitts a signal and bounces it off the surface of the earth and receiving the same signal back
105-define Azimuth angle of position of bearing, measured clockwise
105-define Bearing angle of position of object
105-define Range distance to the target or station
105-what is Heading the direction you are pointing
105-what is True Heading direction measured by true north
106-describe the purpose of chaff and flares as counter measure devices Chaff-very fine pieces of metal that are expelled into the airway Flares-used for heat seeking infrared missles
106-explain the significance of the following color coding on weapons Yellow-high explosive, warhead section. Brown-live rocket motor, motor section. Blue-inert, all blue of around weapon or warhead
106-active weapons guidance system sends and recieves its own signal
106-semi active weapons guidance system needs independant or external source to track and lock on target
106-what is a passive weapons guidance system heat seeking infrared
106-state the objective of the explosive handling qualification and certification program to ensure military and civilian personnel are qualified of ordnance in which they are associated with
106-state the pupose of suspension/accessory equipment to suspend single stores, bombs, and a variety of missile launchers
106-state the purpose of an impulse cartridge to eject single stores and a variety of weapons from the aircraft
106-what are cluster bomb units containing several small bomblettes
106-what are fire bombs thin skinned, unstable non-aerodynamic container
106-what are air laid mines used to defend our straights, port approaches and coastal barriers
106-what are glide weapons designed to deliver self guided high explosive weapons from the attacking aircraft, no rocket
106-define pyrotechnics used for signaling, marking, and search and rescue
106-what are practice bombs training devices used to simulate the performance characteristics of live weapons
106-what does AIM mean air intercept missile
106-what does AGM mean air to ground missile
106-what does CATM mean captive airtraining missile
106-what does HERO mean hazards of eletromagnetic radiation to ordnance
106-describe the application of the following type of bomb =retarded slows the weapon down before it gets to target, used for low level bombing missions
106-describe the application of the following type of bomb =non retarded used in high level missions
107-identify the minimum requirements for aircrew PPE flight suit, aircrew fliers boots, anti-G suit, helmet, survival radio/beacon, aviator flight gloves, anit-explosive suit
107-state the purpose of the environmental control system provide aircrew comfort and avionics cooling
107-state the purpose of the oxygen mask designed for use with a regualtor which provides breathing gas upon demand at a pressure schedule dependent on the altitude
107-state the purpose of the oxygen regulator chest mounted, positive pressure, G-modulated regulator that provides demand oxygen flow
107-state the purpose of the life preserver low profile floatation collar equipped with the FLU-88/P automatic/manual inflation assembly
107-state the purpose of the anti-gravity suit consists of a bladder system encased in fire-resistant cloth outer shell
107-state the objective of the Egress System checkout certification program to thoroughly familiarize personnel working in or around the cockpit with the ejection systems
107-state the purpose of the ejection seat supplying a place to sit, for propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft, automatic cartridge operated and rocket assisted
107-define Hypoxia the higher the altitude the amount of oxygen per unit of volume of air decreases (blackout)
107-define anoxia death caused by complete lack of oxygen
107-type 1 of aviators breathing oxygen gaseous oxygen, MIL-0-27210D
107-type 2 of aviators breathing oxygen liquid oxygen, 99.5% pure
108-what is the meaning of SEAD suppression of enemy air defenses, to neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses in or around the target area by physical attack and/or electronic warfare
108-what is the meaning of WAS war at sea, to destroy the enemy's naval vessels and amphibious force
108-what is the meaning of CAS close air support, precisely deliver various munitions at a set time
108-what is the meaning of ACM air combat maneuvering, requires one pilot to fight his aircraft more efficiently and effectively than his opponent
108-what is the meaning of MAS maritime air superiority, maintain the airspace around the battle group
108-what is the meaning of CAC combat air control, mission executed by two or more fighter aircraft
108-what is the meaning of FCF functional check flight, to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and equipment are functioning per predetermined standards
108-what is the meaning of FCLP field carrier landing practice, form of training that is used to simulate landing on aircraft carriers
108-what is the meaning of VMC visual meteorological conditions, expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal to or better than specified minimums
108-what is meaning of IMC instrument meteorological conditions, expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling less than the minimum specified for visual meteorological conditions
108-what is the meaning of VFR visual flight rules, if VMC exists then pilots have the option of operating their aircraft within a set of rules known as VFR
108-what is the meaning of IFR instrument flight rules, if IMC exists then pilots are required to operate with adherence to IFR
108-discuss the purpose of the carrier air traffic control center is the centralized agency responsible for the status keeping of all carrier air operations and the control of all airborne aircraft
108-describe FLOLS fresnel lens optical landing system, (FLOS) or "meatball" is an optical system on board the carrier that aids pilots in landing aboard the ship
108-describe MOVLAS manually operated visual landing system, emergency system that is supposed to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inop
201-describe the radome provides an electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals
201-describe the forward fuselage from the end of the nose radome to the forward edge of panel 26,
201-describe the center fuselage from the forward edge of panel 26 to the aft edge of panel 55 L/R
201-describe the aft fuselage includes the engines, speed brake, vertical stabs, horizontal stabs, and arresting hook
201-describe wing fuselage provides lift for the aircraft, stores fuel, houses LEF's, TEF's, and ailerons,
201-describe leading edge extension provides added lift at high angles of attack,
201-describe ailerons are commanded asymmetrically to produce roll motion, during takeoff and landing they deflect symmetrically with the trailing edge flaps up to 42 degrees
201-desrcibe leading edge flaps takeoff and landing deflect symmetrically to change lift, in flight the deflect asymmetrically to aid the airlerons to producing roll motion
201-describe trailing edge flaps take off or landing LEF deflect symmetrically to change lift, in flight they independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion
201-describe stabilizers deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion and asymmetrically to produce roll motion
201-describe the function of the rudders take off or landing when the AOA is less than 8 degrees the rudders toe-in to increase lift and improve stability, less than 8 degrees toe-out, in flight the rudders are commanded symmetrically to produce yaw motion
201-describe the function of the speed brake certain conditions speed brake may be extended into airstream creating drag slowing aircrafts speed
201-function of HS1 provides fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source.
201-what does the HS1 system contain pump manifold, pump reservoir, filter unit, case drain filter, oil fuel heat exchange, and related indicators
201-function of HS2 same as HS1 for flight controls, also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems
201-function of APU gas charge cylinder provides required fluid pressure to the APU start motor and emergency hydraulic systems
201-function of switching valves each switching valve allows backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure if primary fails
201-function of nose landing gear assembly provides landing, take off and taxi energy absorbtion, and tire/runway compliance
201-function of main landing gear lever design with shock obsorber, provides a stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations
201-function of wheel brakes provides pilot modulated individual wheel-controlled braking, also has anitskid
201-function of launch bar provides a means of steering the aircraft during carrier operations and engages the catapult
201-fuction of the arresting hook provides a means of stopping the aircraft where normal runway landings are not available
201-function of bleed air system engine bleed air is extracted from the last compressor stage of both engines, regulated and routed to the air cycle air conditioning system
201-function of air cycle air conditioning system cools and conditions hot bleed air for use in various aircraft systems,
201-function of anti gravity system automatically regulates the air to the pilots anti-g suit to increase pilot tolerance to high acceleration
201-function of the oxygen system 161353 thru 164068 oxygen is supplied from a 10 liter liquid oxygen system,
201-function of on board oxygen generating system 164196 and up OBOGS removes nitrogen and other contaminats from engine bleed air, results in oxygen for pilots
201-function of ejection seat system provides support for the crewmember during normal flight and is a method of escape from the aircraft during emergency conditions
201-function of canopy system operated electrically, manualy, and jettisoned in an emergency
201-main components for canopy system electro-mechanical canopy actuator, canopy unlatch thruster, canopy jettison motors
201-function of emergency oxygen system required above 10,000 feet, located in the ejection seat survival kit
201-fire detection system double loop system provides warnings for the APU bay, left and right AMAD bays, and aft engine bays, single loop system is used for the left and right forward engine bays
201-fire extinguishing system single extinguisher tank with three distribution lines, one for each APU or engine/AMAD bays, one shot bay system
201-discuss the basic operation of the electronic flight control system is made up of 2 flight control computers, control surface servo actuators, air data and inertial sensors, and control surfaces, the flight control computers combine inputs with air data, inertial inputs and provide electrical signals to servo actuators,
201-explain the purpose fo the backup mechanical system provide automatic connection of a direct mechanical link from the stick to the defferential stabilator servo actuator, this provides limited pitch an roll control after a complete electrical failure or both flight control computers
201-discuss emergency extension of the landing gear primarily free fall aided by stored energy in the MLG shock absorber and hydraulic system #2B pressure, supplied by APU and emergency brake accumulators extension is controller by the LDG gear control
201-what special safety precautions apply to ejection seat main firing handle safety pin safeties the ejection control handle during all ground parking, servicing and towing
201-what special safety precautions apply to the ejection seat safe/armed handle safeties the ejection control handle preventing accidental seat ejection
201-what special safety precautions apply to the canopy jettison ground safety pin safeties the internal canopy jettison lever preventing accidental canopy jettison by movement of internal canopy jettison lever
201-what special safety precautions apply to canopy normal systems open door 9 set and hold external canopy control switch to open postion until canopy is fully opened and release
201-what safety precautions apply to liquid oxygen never allow LOX to contact skin, 50 feet away from smoking or open flame, keep ventilated from combustables, proper PPE
202-what is the function of the APU to provide pneumatic air for motoring over/starting main engine of drive AMAD
202-where is the APU located door 52
202-what is the function of the AMAD to transmit power to the engine for starts
202-where is the AMAD located door 53 L/R
202-what is the function of the secondary power compressed air provide pneumatic power for operating the air turbine starter or the environmental control system
202-what does the ignition consist of alternator, electrical control unit, ignition exciter, main igniter, and afterburner igniter
202-lubrication on an f/a 18 self contained oil system
202-how does the ignition work on an f/a 18 remains on until engine reaches 45% or throttle is moved to off, A/B ignition comes on when A/B is selected and remains on until light off is selected
202-explain main fuel on f/a 18 throttle movement is mechanically transmitted through the power level control, which acts as a power booster and postions the main fuel control
202-explain afterburner on f/a 18 when throttle is moved to AB the ECA positions the AB metering valve to a minimum (pilot) flow and holds this until light off is sensed
202-explain variable exhaust nozzle on f/a 18 system is self contained,
202- how is the veriable exhaust nozzle controlled on an f/a 18 hydraulically controlled throat area for the exhaust gasses from the turbine and afterburner
202-explain variable geometry for f/a 18 engines consists of fan variable geometry, provides the best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan margin
202-explain Anti icing on f/a 18 engines uses 4th stage high pressure bleed air to prevent build up of ice on the front frame struts, inlet guide vanes, and inlet center body
202-explain engine instrument on f/a 18 integrated fuel-engine indicator, displays compressor speed, exhaust gas temperature, fuel flow, variable exhaust nozzle position, oil pressure and fuel quantities
202-explain throttle on f/a 18 movement is transmitted by mechanical linkage and airframe mounted throttle boost actuator to the power level control
202-fuel storage fuel is carried internally by four interconnected fuselage tanks and 2 wing tanks
202-explain refuel/defuel can be done with or without electrical power, max of 55 psi
202-explain internal fuel transfer keeps the feed tanks 2 and 3 full and controls the sequence of tank to tank transfer
202-how does the center of gravity control work the signal data computer monitors the amount of fuel in tanks 1 and 4, if fuel becomes excessive computer will close off valve to effected tank
202-explain hot fuel recirculation cools the fuel by circulationg fuel up into the wings to be cooled by means of convection, which is used to dissipate heat from the AMAD and hydraulic system
202-explain fuel pressurization and vent provides regulated engine bleed air to all internal tanks, prevents boil off at high altitude and provides positive pressure to tank bladders and to external tanks for fuel transfer
202-fuel quantity and gauging intergrated fuel-engine indicator is the primary fuel quantity display
202-state the components driven by the AMAD hydraulic pump, generator and motive flow boost pump, and airturbine starter control
202-how does the AMAD interface with the APU and the engine AMAD is pneumatically connected to APU through the air turbine starter, AMAD transmits power from the ATS to the engine for starting and motoring
202-what safety precautions must be observed during engine ground turn-up anti ice must be turned on if temp is below 45 degress, do not operate with TTU-205 test set connect, engine may go into HP due to N2 lock up function, do not start or motor engine after emergency shut down until malfunction is correct
202-what special safety precautions apply to fueling wearing of goggles, watch gauges to prevent over pressuring fuel cells and watch vents for overflow
202-what special safety precautions apply to defueling never refuel during maintenace, make sure aircraft and equipment is grounded, all ordnance is safetied
203-state the purpose of very high frequency/ultra high frequency provides air to air and air to ground plain or secure communications in a fixed frequency mode, anti-jam mode, or maritime mode
203-state the purpose of intercommunications and audio system provides amplification and routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew, and rear cockpit,
203-state the purpose of tactical air navigation used to determine the relative bearing and slant range distance to a tactical air navigation ground station or a similar tactical air navigation equipped aircraft
203-state the purpose of inertial navigation system a self contained fully automatic dead reckoning navigation system
203-state the purpose of global positioning system navigation system which recieves reference information from a satellite source
203-state the purpose of attitude reference indicator self contained attitude reference system which provides backup pitch and roll attitude for use by other systems
203-state the purpose of instrument landing system an all weather approach guidence system
203-state the purpose of the identification friend or foe provides automatic indentification function for the aircraft,
203-what does the identification friend or foe do recieves challenging signals and determines the correct code and mode of challenge and automatically transmits a coded reply
203-state the purpose of forward looking infrared provides thermal imagery in television format for detection of tactical targets
203-state the purpose of datalink provides digital communication between aircraft
203-state the purpose of radio detection and ranging provides air to air and air to ground modes for target detection, designation, tracking and navigation
203-state the purpose of the mission computer computes and controls the data sent to the MPCD group, computes and produces missile launch and weapon release commands
203-what does the mission computer provide provides mode control and option select for various avionics systems
203-state the purpose of laser detector tracker used to detect and track reflected laser energy
203-what is the laser detector tracker reflected energy used for delivering laser guided bombs
203-state the purpose of interface blanker interfaces onboard rf transmitters and receivers that share common parts of the radio frequency spectrum
203-state the purpose of countermeasure set detects and deceives enemy pulse fire control and guidance radars
203-state the purpose of countermeasures warning and control provides aural and visual alerts upon detection of threat radar signals and at the same time provide information to the HARM missile and countermeasures set
203-describe the heads up display primary flight instrument in the aircraft
203-what does the heads up display do provides flight, navigational steering, and weapon delivery information
203-describe the digital display indicators LDDI-used primarily for stores management, caution, advisory, and BIT displays, RDDI-used primarily for sensor displays
203-describe the horizontal indicator used primarily to provide aircraft attitude, steering, and navigation information with a projected moving map superimposed over the CRT display
203-describe the multipurpose color display provides following displays, aircraft attitude, navigation, air to air, air to ground warnings, cautions, and advisories, and various aircraft checklists
203-describe the function of the digital map set moving map image, continuously updated for tactical and navigational situations
203-how many frames does the digital map set display up to 100 frames,
203-what does the data frames from the digital map set contain information such as check list and emergency procedures
203-what does the digital map set provide provides alphanumeric and graphic symbology for tactical and navigational situations
203-state location of the position lights white-below tip of right vertical stab, 3 green ones on right side, 3 red ones on left side
203-state the location and color of strobe light 2 red anti collision lights, located on each outboard side of vertical stab
203-location of landing/taxi light on nose gear strut,
203-what is the purpose of the landing/taxi light to illuminate the taxiway/runway
203-state the color/purpose of the approach lights green is high angle of attack, amber is optimum, and red is low angle of attack
203-state the color/number of the formation lights 8 green lights
203-state the location of the formation lights 2 on each wing tip, 1 on outside of each vertical stab, 1 below each vertical stab, 1 on each side of forward fuselage
203-state the pupose of the flight incident recorder and monioring system FIRAMS monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution/advisory conditions
203-state the purpose of the deployable flight incident recorder set DIFRS storage of flight data and the deployment of this data
203- how many minutes can the deployable flight incident recorder set record DIFRS can record 30 minutes of continuous flight date
203-state the purpose of the pitot static system measure pitot and static pressures surrounding aircraft
203-state the purpose of the indicated airspeed indicator displays airspeed as a function of the pitot and static pressure
203-state the purpose of the standby pressure altimeter uses static pressure and provides a pointer display for altitude to 1000 feet
203-state the purpose of the vertical speed indicator senses changes in static air pressure and displays them in a climb or dive rate
203-describe the function of the air data computer ADC-receives inputs from various aircraft sensors
203-describe the function of the airstream direction sensing units ADSU-provides angle of attack information to the air data computer and electronic flight control system
203-describe the function of the angle of attack indexer AOA-shows approach angle of attack with lighted symbols
203-describe the function of the total temperature probe TTP-measures total temperature of the air outside the aircraft
203-describe the function of the generator converter unit GCU-protects against damage due to under voltage, over voltage, over and under frequency, and feeder faults
203-describe the function of the transformer-rectifier transforms AC power from the generators into DC electrical power
203-describe the function of the utility battery power the maintenance 24/28 volt dc bus when both transformer-rectifiers are inoperative
203-describe the function of the emergency battery contactor will automatically close in response to a low voltage from utility batt
203-describe the function of the automatic flight control system AFCS-provides autopilot and automatic throttle control
203-state the purpose of the nose wheel well digital display indicator NDDI-receives and stores maintenance codes from the recorder
204-state the purpose of the armament control processor set brain of the stores managment system (SMS)
204-what does the armament control processor set consist of armament computer and 9 command signal encoder/decoders
204-state the purpose of the command launch computer controls and monitors the high speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)
204-state the purpose of the electrical fuzing power supply provides the electrical fuzing function of the SMS for weapons requiring electrical fuzing
204-describe the rate of fire for the M61 20 mm gun high 6000 rounds per minute, low 4000 rounds per minute
204-describe the capacity of the M61 20 mm gun maximum of 578
204-how many modes of operation for the M61 20 mm gun 3
204-describe the modes of operation for the M61 20 mm gun continuously computed impact point and manual, air to air mode
204-state the purpose of the countermeasures dispensing system provides protection for the aircraft against enemy radars and missiles
204-how does the countermeasures dispensing system worK by ejecting chaff, flares, or other jamming payloads
204-state the basic armament configuration of the F/A-18 2 wing tip LAU-7 missile launcher 1,9 2 LAU-116 missile launchers 4,6 4 SUU-63 wing pylons, 1 SUU-62 centerline pylons 5 BRU-32 2,3,5,7,8 M61 gun
204-state the basic characteristics of the AIM-7 guided missile (sparrow) its a supersonic, radar guided, air-to-air weapon,
204-how does the AIM-7 missile work (sparrow) semi-active CW homing radar and hydraulically operated control surfaces direct and stabilize the missile
204-state the basic characteristics of the AIM-9 missile (sidewinder) supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with a passive infrared target detection,
204-how does the AIM-9 missile work (sidewinder) has a proportional-navigation guidance, and torque-balance control system
204-state the basic characteristics of the AIM-120 missile (AMRAAM) advanced medium range air-to-air missile, supersonic, air-to-air weapon with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance
204-state the basic characteristics of the AGM-65 missile (maverick) guided rocket propelled air-to-ground missile
204-what is the AGM-65 missile used for (maverick) is used against field fortifications, surface to air missile sites and armored vehicles
204-what does the AGM-65 consist of (maverick) consists of a hermetically sealed guidance unit and main section
204-how many types of AGM-65 are there (maverick) laser and infrared
204-state the basic characteristics of the AGM-84 (harpoon) long range all weather anti ship missile
204-how does the AGM-84 work (harpoon) can be launched at various altitudes, airspeeds, and aircraft altitudes
204-what does the AGM-84 use (harpoon) uses a low level cruise trajectory, active radar guidance and terminal maneuvering to destroy target
204-state the basic characteristics of the SLAM missile (standoff land air missile) air-to-ground guided missile designed for use against stationary and mobile targets
204-how can the SLAM be loaded (standoff land air missile) can be loaded with up to three pre-planned and one target of opportunity missions
204-how does the SLAM work its a video guided missile, controlled by the launching aircraft or by second aircraft through the data link mode
204-state the basic characteristics of the AGM-88 HARM missile (high-speed anti-radiation missile) its a passive supersonic air-to-ground missile used for defense suppression, aka SAMS
205-what is the mission statement of VFC-12 to prepare US Navy strike fighter aircrews for combat throught challenging realistic and current threat replication
205-explain the term AAW (anti-air warfare) the detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons
205-discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an AAW mission its ability to detect contacts at medium range and contacts that are not hot to fighters
205-explain the term AMW attacks launched from the sea and by landing forces in ships or craft to achieve shore presence
205-discuss the role of the F/A-18 in an AMW mission the hornet preforms AMW primarily through close-air support
205-explain the term ASU (anti-surface ship warfare) the detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships
205-explain the term ASW (anti-submarine warfare) the detection, tracking, and destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines
205-explain the term CCC (command, control, and communications) providing communications and related facilities for coordination and control of external organizations or forces
205-discuss the role of the F/A-18 in a CCC mission (command, control, and communications) the hornet performs CCC on virtually every mission
205-explain the term CCC-2 (command and control warfare) C2W the integrated use of psychological operations military deception, operations security, electronic warfare, and physical destruction
205-explain the term FSO (fleet support operations) naval forces and designated shore facilities providing supporting services other than logistics replenishment to fleet units
205-explain the term INT (intelligence) the collection, processing, and evaluation of information to determine location
205-explain the term MIW (mine warfare) the use of mines for control/denial of sea or harbor areas
205-explain the term MOB (mobility) the ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations
205-explain the term NCO (non-combatant) selected operations of a noncombatant nature not clearly categorized in any other warfare mission area
205-explain the term STW (strike warfare) the destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons
Created by: Dafresh