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Billing UB-04

2- Which payer action can be appealed A ( Claim denial)
3- Which payer action calls for corrected and resubmitted claim? B ( Claim rejection)
4- Physician must submit electronic 837P claims for Medicare Part B unless: B They have less than 10 full-time or equivalent employees and never send any kind of electronic health care transaction
5- How many unlabeled form locators does the UB-04 have? D (11)
6-Which of the following is not an advantage of EDI claim transmittal? D ( More expensive because requires higher level of personnel to process claims
7-Which of the following is not a common reason for a claim not to pass the clean claim requirements? C ( Incorrect provider address)
8- THe data element E8888 on the UB-04 is an example of which type of format? D ( Alphanumeric)
9- The second digit in the type of bill code represents the A ( Type of facility)
10- The third digit in the type of bill code represent the C ( Type of service)
11- The fourth digit in the type of bill code represents the B ( Bill frequency)
12- To correctly report the date of service in FL6, the MMDDYY format is required. Which of the following is an example of a correct entry? B ( 01022006)
13- Number assigned to a patient that is used for multiple episodes of care at the facility C (Medical record number)
14- A type of bill code has how many digits C ( Four)
15- The number 1 as the second digit in the TOB code represents what place of service A ( Hospital)
16- The number 1 as the third digit in the TOB code represent what type of service D ( Inpatient (including Medicare Part A)
17- The number 3 as the third digit in the TOB code represent what type of service B ( Outpatient)
18- Which of the following is not a basic category of patient dischare status A ( Nonroutine discharge)
19- If a patient's date of birth is March 8, 1951, is should be entered in FL10 as C ( 03081951)
20- In which type of admission is the patient admitted to the first available suitable accommodation B ( Urgent)
21- which type of admission indicates the patient's condition is sever, life threatening or potentially disabling C ( Emergency)
22- In which type of admission is the healh of the patient not in jeopardy A ( Elective)
23- Which of the following types of information is not part of the patient information section on the UB-04 claim form? C (Patients medical record number)
24- If an admission date is June 4, 2010, is should be entered in the FL 12 as B ( 060410)
25- In FL 8, which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that is hyphenated, such as Sanchez-Jones C ( Sanchez-Jones)
26- In FL 8, which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that has an apostrophe, such as O'Connor? B ( OConnor)
27- In FL: 8. which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that has a prefix, such as Van Buren? A ( VanBuren)
28- If the cold in FL14 (Type of Admission or Visit) is 4 (newborn) what Point of Origin for Admission of Visit code would be entered if the newborn was born outside of the hospital submitting the claim C (6)
29- FL 15 (Point of Orgin for Admission or Visit) has two coding structures, each with it own set of codes. What type of admission has its own set of codes? D (Newborn)
30-Conditon code 01 (military service related) is an example of which group of condition codes? A (insurance)
31- Condition code 36 (General Care Patient in a Special Unit) is an example of which group of condition codes B ( Patient Condition codes)
32- Conditin code E0 ( Change in Patien Discharge Status) is an example of which group of condition codes D ( Claim change reason code)
33- Condition code 18 (Maiden Name Retained ) is an exapmple of which group of condition codes B ( Patient condition codes)
34- Condition code 22 (patient on multiple drug regimen) is an example of which group of condition codes B ( Patient condition codes)
35- Condition code D2 (Changes in Revenue Code?HCPCS/HIPPS Rate Code) is an example of which group of conditions codes D ( Claim change reason codes)
36- Conditons code 39 (Private Room Medically Necessary) is an example of which group of condition codes C ( Room Codes)
37- Condition code 31 ((patient is a student - full time day) is an example of which group of condition codes. B ( Patient condition codes)
38- Whien either condition code 20 (Beneficiary requested billing) or 21 ( billing for denial notice) is reported, the services are known by the provider to be non-covered or exluded by medicare and the patient should have been issued a(n) B ( ABN) (Advanced beneficiary Notice)
39- On a claim form, the date on which an accident occureed is reported using C ( Occurrence code)
40- On a claim form, the period of skeilled nursing care that occurs druing aninpatient acute hospital stay is reported using B ( Occurrence code span)
41- Occurrence code 02 (no-fault insurance involved) is an expample of which type of occurrence code A ( An accident-related code)
42- Occurence code 40 ( scheduled date of admission) is an example of which type of Occurence code D ( A service related code)
43- Occurence code 16 ( date of lat threapy ) is an example of which type of Occurence code D ( A service related code)
44- A payment requested from medicare before a primary payer's payment is received, when medicare is the secondary payer and the provider believes that the primary payer will not pay within 120 days is call a A ( Conditional payment)
45- when an Occurence code is reported on a claim, what must also be reported C ( Date)
46- Occurence code 11 (Onset of Symptoms/Illness) is ofter used with which of the following codes D ( Date treatment Started for Physical Therapy)
47 _ Medicare coinsurance amount in the first calendar year is billing period is a description of B ( Value code)
48- Working Aged Beneficiary/Spouse with an EGHP is a description of a D ( MSP value code)
49- Value code A1 (Deductible Payer A) is used to report the amount to be applied by the provider to the patient's deductible for the indicated B ( payer)
50- Which of the following is an MSP value code D ( 47 Any liability insurance)
51- For hospitals, the total number of covered days reported with value code 80 (Covered Days) will not exceed A (150)
52- Value code 50 (Physical Therapy Visits) indicates C ( The number of PT visits provided from the onset of tx through the billing period)
53- If an accident occurred at 3:45 in the morning, how would this time be entered for value code 45 (Accident hour) C (03.00)
54 - In addition to value code 45 (Accident Hor), what other type of code must be entered to report the date of accident B ( Occurrence code)
55- When value code 02 (Hospital Has Noemiprivate rooms) is used, what amount is entered A (0.00)
56- The most commonly used revenue code for room charges is C ( 012X, Room and Board-Semiprivate(two-Beds)
57- Revenue code 0292 9 Purchase of new DME) is an example of B ( An Ancillary service code)
58- Revenue code 0352 (CT-body scan) is an example of B ( An Ancillary service code)
59- Which of the following subcatergory describtions is not included in revenue code series 063X (Pharmacy - Extension of 025X) A ( Drugs incident to other diagnostic services)
60- Which revenue code range represents accommodation revenue codes C ( 01X-021X)
61- Revenue code 0171 (Nursery, Newborn - level 1) is an example of A ( An accommodation code)
62- Revenue code 0201 (Intensive Care, Surgical) is an example of D ( An accommodation code)
63- Medicare does not require a detailed revenue code for A (General pharmacy charges)
64- On the UB-04 claim form, with the exception of revenue code 0001, revenue codes shold be listed in what order B ( Ascending numeric order by date of service)
65- Revenue code series 18X (Leave of Absence) is an example of D ( An accommodation code)
66- Which of the follwoing is a subcategory description uner revenue code 026X (IV Therapy) A ( IV therapy/supplies)
67- Ememergency room charges (045X) can be billed on A ( Both inpatient and outpatient claims)
68- A revenue code for physical, occupational or speech therapy is also reported with C ( A value code and an occurrence code)
69- Which of the following is a subcatergory description under revenue code 032X (Radiology-Diagnostic) D ( Chest X-ray)
70- FL 44 on an inpatient claim contains A A HCPCS/CPT code
For claims other than medicare, which field contains the covered and noncovered charges for each revenue code? c. FL 47
72- In FL 50 (payer name), which line is used to report the primary payer A ( Line A)
73- The code chices to complete FL 52 (release of information certification indicator) are C Y(yes), I informed consent
74- To indicate that the patient has refused to assign benefits, what code is reported in FL 53 (Assignment of Beneficts Certification Indicator) B ( W not applicable)
75- Code 01 (spouse) is a choice for which of these form locators B ( FL 59 patient relationship to insured)
76- The health insurance claim number is entered in whihc of thes form locators C ( FL 60 insured unique identifier)
77- In FL 58, the name Geller-Brown should be entered using the following format A (Geller-Brown)
78- WHich of the following types of provider data contained in the NPI database is not considered disclosable under the Freedom of Information Act A ( Social Security Number)
79- Which of the following codes is used in FL 59 (Patients Relationship to Insured) to identify a child of the insured C (19)
80- Which of the following is not an accurate description of a change from the UB-92 to the UB-04 claim form A decreased number of fields for secondarty diagnoses
81- the correct format on the UB - 04 form for diagnosis code 425.4 C - 4254
82- In which of the following encounters wold it not be appropriate to use a V Code b. patient being evaluated postoperatively
83 which type of codes are liste first highet priority amoung the other secondary diagnosis codes on a claim b. comorbidities and complications
84- The CMS-assigned UPIN had how many alphanumeric characters? c- six
85- Fl 78-79 Other proveders names and identifiers are used to report which of the followin d. a physician other thena the attending and operating physician who treated the patiednt
86- Which of the following is not a qualifier code used in the Code-Code field? a. R1 (Overflow Revenue Codes)
87- In physician billing taxonomy codes are used to indicate a. the providers specialty
88In hospital billing, taxonomy codes are used to indicate a. the type of hospital that is submitting the claim
89- The letter U in UB-04 stands for uniform
90 - The I in the 837I stands for inpatient false
91- THe paper claim used by physician is the CMS-1450 false
92- When a continuing claim is submitted, the provider expects that subsequent bills will be sent TRUE
93- A continuing claim is the first in a series of claims to be submitted FALSE
94- TOB is the abbreviation for type of bill TRUE
95- The principle diagnosis and principle proceduer must be locigally linked TRUE
96- Admitting diagnosis and principle diagnosis are always the same False
97- Only one procedure code can be reported False
98- Providers number are assigned by the payer True
99- DCN and INC serve as two different purposes False
100 NPI is the abbreviaton for nation provider identifier True
1- The NUBC is coordinated through A ( American Hospital Association)
Created by: swirlszz
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