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3SO51B 01 0902
Personnel Journeyman CDC
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| An AB can be promoted to A1C upon completion of BMT if the Amn is qualified for promotion and | The enlistment contract guarantees the promotion |
| When is an A1C considered fully qualified for promotion to SrA? | 20 months TIG, 36 Months TIS, and recommended by the CC in writing. |
| If the BTZ selection board process includes a personal appearance, that happens when an Amn is unable to psychically appear before the board due to TDY? | All eligible will be evaluated for promotion based on solely their records. |
| What is the promotion eligibility status code for an Amn with Article 15 suspended reduction? | A |
| When an Amn will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the CC's written confirmation must include the reason for non recommendation, inclusive dates, and? | The Amn's Acknowledgment |
| In the WAPS what two weighted factors account for 44% of the total point value | Specialty knowledge test(SKT) and PFE |
| In the WAPS, what is the EPR conversion factor? | 27 |
| A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt upon obtaining a 7 level and? | 24 months TIG and eight years TAFMS. |
| To be eligible for promotion to CMSgt, an Amn must have at least 14 yrs TAFMS as of the | First day of the last month of the promotion cycle |
| What is the minimum total board score a record canbe accessed if the three panel member central CMSgt promotion evaluation board assigns a composite score of 18? | 270 points |
| Which of the following is not considered as a "whole person" in the senior NCO promotion process? | Marital Status |
| Individual factors comprising the "whole person concept" are not giving a predetermined score because | They do not lend themselves to predetermined values. |
| To be promoted to MSgt under the STEP program, an Amn must have a minimum of 8 yrs TAFMS and must have completed. | The NCO academy |
| Under the STEP program, no AMN may be promoted more than once during any 12 month period under any combination of promotion programs except | SrA |
| Commanders of Organizations that receive a STEP promotion quota are delegated promotion authority. Under this delegated authority, they may establish all of the following except | A central STEP promotion board for the field operating agencies. |
| In which of the following situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected is prevented from assuming the higher grade? | Awaiting a decision on an application as a Conscientious objector. |
| What happens if the effective date of a member's promotion has passed and the promotion authority did not take action to defer the promotion? | The promotion is valid and cannot be retroactively deferred. |
| An officer is ineligible for consideration by a selection board or for promotion if he or she | has not been on extended AD at least 6 consecutive months immediately before the board convenes |
| A USAFR Officer is ineligible for promotion consideration if the officer | Is retired. |
| When a promotion board is considering AD officers promotion to Maj What is the minimum grade of the board president | Brigadier General |
| What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given a particular record by promotion board | A difference of more than 1 1/2 points between any two scores on a record. |
| Removal of an Officer's name from a list of those selected for promotion to caption is officially confirmed by | The senate |
| In which of the following circumstances should a commander initiate action an officers name from a promotion list? | A preponderance of evidence shows the officer is not qualified for promotion. |
| Which of the following is the approving authority for all officer promotion removal actions and, as such acts, for the presidents? | Secretary of the AF |
| The Military personnel Element eligible for promotion testing roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to | Provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status. |
| When the career development office or the Commander Support Staff(CSS) schedules personnel for testing, they do so by annotating the | Unit Eligible for promotion Testing Roster |
| Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about the | 15th of the month |
| Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in-system via transactions from | AFPC to servicing MPE's and MAJCOM's |
| Which document is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the HQ Air Force that is used by all officer selection boards? | Officer Selection Brief |
| When a promotion board is to convene within 14 day, how does the Military Personnel Element notify HQ AFPC of erroneous data on an officers preselection brief | By Message |
| An EPR is not required when ratee is | A A1C or below, has less than 20 months TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 Calender days |
| Which rater cannot prepare EPR's? | A Non-active duty USAFR Member in the grade of SrA. |
| Which of the following individuals may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in action | Additional Rater |
| When can someone other than the rater and additional rater evaluate a ratee's performance and make overall performance evaluation assessment for a reporting period? | When the commander does not concur with the ratings. |
| For CMSgt, the reverse side of the AF Form 911, Senior EPR (MSGT through CMSgt) is used to indicate an overall performance assessment and potentially make a recommendation for | Future assignments |
| The minimum number of days of supervision that a rater must have in order to submit a letter of evaluation is | 60 |
| Which of the following officers requires feedback sessions? | LT through Col |
| How many day before the selection board are promotion recommendation forms (PRF) for officers completed by the senior rater? | No earlier than 60 Days |
| The AF Form 709, PRF, recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key, performance factors from officers | Entire Career |
| AF Form 475 Education/Training Report, documents an officers attendance at all initial training in utilization fields except | Education and Technology (E&T) |
| Which of the following is not a mandatory comment area on an officers AF Form 475, Education/Training Report? | Civic involvement |
| When Ratees receive a referral memorandum due to a Performance report being considered a referral report, what actions must the ratee take? | Sign and date the memo in space provided; signature does not constitute concurrence with the report. |
| A Ratee's (Officer or AMN) comments to evaluator named in the referral letter must | not reflect on integrity of the evaluator. |
| Which form is submitted by members desiring to correct errors or statements in an EPR or OPR? | AF Form 948 |
| How are requests to correct AD members evaluation report processed by HQ AFPC? | Board member review applications and make independent recommendation to the board president; board president ultimately decides the appeal. |
| Who is authorized to administer the oath of Enlistment during a reenlistment? | A second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit |
| Which approved guarantee is not documented on an AF Form 901, Reenlistment eligibility Anne to DD form 4-1-2? | selection reenlistment bonus (SRB) |
| What is not a valid reason an airman who is ineligible to reenlist may submit a wavier to reenlist or extend? | Serving on the control roster |
| After disapproving a SSgt request for a wavier for reenlistment due to ineligibility, the unit CC ensures that the SSgt | Acknowledges receipt of the disapproval |
| Which example describe an allowable enlistment extension? | Career Amn who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months retainability for an overseas assignment |
| For what situation may the Amn's wing CC serve as the approval or disapproval authority regarding a request foe extension of enlistment? | Remaining on AD beyond age 55. |
| How does and extension of enlistment compare to reenlistment? | Once the extension has entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment. |
| First Term Amn who enlisted for six years will receive a career job reservation as early as the first day of the month during which they complete how many months on their current enlistment? | 59 |
| A Career Job reservation cancellation procedures apply only to | Approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs |
| A Career Job Reservation cannot be canceled when an Amn | is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation. |
| What activity can reinstate approved CJR for Amn rendered ineligible to reenlist due to reenlistment eligibility code 4K (Medical Disqualification)? | HQ AFPC |
| Which of the following is an eligibility condition that applies when requesting a wing on SR. host CC override in the CJR program? | Received STEP promotion |
| What must a member achieve in order to meet the basic eligibility for the Initial Enlistment bonus program | 3-level in the AFAC for which they were contracted to fill |
| For the first-term Amn serving in a selective Reenlistment Bonus skills, the AF form 545, Request for CJR/Selective Re enlistment Bonus authority, serves a dual purpose as both | A Request for CJR and a request for Selective Reenlistment bonus authorization. |
| Request for accelerated payment of a selective Reenlistment Bonus must include all of the following except | Evidence that the SRB will be terminated |
| A Recoupment action to recover a SRB is not initiated when | SSgt incapacitating injury is not the result of his or her own misconduct |
| Which of the following is an Achievement award that is giving to and enlisted personnel every 4 years of honorable service? | AF Longevity Service award |
| Who endorses an awards package sent through command channels when a MAJCOM, field operating agency, or direct reporting unit CC is not available? | Vice Commander |
| Who is not Eligible for consideration for a US Military Decoration? | Family members living on a military installation with no Military service |
| A reconsideration for a decoration that was lost or not processed due to admin error is contingent upon | The presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially place in military channels. |
| What activity does the survey control officer notify upon receipt of an unauthorized survey? | HQ AFPC |
| A Line of duty and misconduct determination is required when a member, weather hospitalized or not has a disease or injury that results in | The likelihood of permanent disability. |
| Who identifies cases requiring a line of duty determination when a non air force facility treats and injured AF Member first? | AF medical facility nearest the non AF facility that provided treatment. |
| Aside from the in the LOD determination, all of the following, LOD can be made except | Existed prior to service not due to own misconduct |
| Which officer normally serves as the appointing authority in processing a LOD determination? | Group commander in the Chain command over the immediate Commander. |
| What form is the source document for service dates and is prepared by the AFPC for all AD duty officers? | AF Form 1613, Statement of service |
| AFPC auto computes the TAFMSD and pay date for members, then AF form 1613 on enlisted personnel in all of the following categories except | Member with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared |
| Members are eligible for the Career Status Bonus program if they joined a Uniformed service on or after what date? | 1 Aug 86 |
| What are the primary reporting months for enlisted member whose overseas cycle is Oct, advertised in Nov, Assigned in Dec? | July/Aug/Sept |
| Overseas returnees are aligned into three groups within each grade an AFSC, Which of the following best describes group two? | Members returning from tours of 17 months or less, Family members are authorized, and the Amn selected an unaccompanied tour. |
| CMSgt and CMSgt Select volunteer for requirements listed on the enlisted Quarterly allocation listing-plus by | Contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs group |
| What is the primary factor used when selecting member for permanent change of station> | Qualifications to fill a valid manpower requirement. |
| Which of the following actions can an enlisted member take to make himself or herself ineligible for an assignment after assignment selection date as been established? | Request retirement under 7-day option provision. |
| What is the minimum retainability requirement for a CONUS to CONUS humanitarian PCS | 6 Months |
| When several individuals are reassigned to the same location with the same reporting month (unit move, how many preparation relocation folders are prepared | One per unit. |
| When AF Form 1466, Request for Family Members medical and education clearance travel, has been MTF, how does the military Personnel Element handle the original and a copy? | Files the original in the members ARMS and a copy in the member relocation folder. |
| How are port call established for members who must perform 30 days or more TDY at another location with its own MPE en route to their overseas reassignment ? | TDY unit obtains flight reservation |
| If a GSU has a personnel function and is authorized to publish orders who accomplishes the AD form 907 for members going PCS? | GSU |
| A GSU that has a personnel function and is authorized to publish orders must fully document the disposition of the completed AF Form 907 and all related documents in the | GSU and Military personnel Element support agreement |
| When does the personnel journeyman review the AF form 907 and the relocation preparation folder to make sure all required actions are are actually completed, including receipts of memos sent to agencies outside the MPE? | During the Final out processing of the appointment. |
| When is the personnel relocation's element authorized to publish PCS orders directing a member who is on leave or TDY to depart PCS before he or she returns to the current duty station? | After you confirmed that the member would not incur a personal financial loss. |
| To indicate that a PCS is a join-spouse assignment, information entered in block 14 of the PCS orders would include the spouse's | name, SSN and Pay grade |
| When can first time airman apply for a base preference assignment? | When selected under the selective reenlistment program. |
| How long must career Amn wait to reapply for a base of preference if their prior request is discovered? | They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations. |
| What is the minimum tour length for single/unaccompanied and accompanied member who wants a Conus-Isolated tour assignment to Boulder, Wyoming? | Single/Unaccompanied 15 months, Accompanied 24 Months |
| AF Members assigned to isolated locations may apply for reassignment no | Earlier than 11 months before their date of availability |
| Member's eligible to apply for home basing or follow -on assignment consideration must do so within 15days of the | Initial relocation briefing. |
| Which of the following conditions would cause cancellation of a members follow-on assignment? | Military couple relocated their dependents at gov expense to a location other than the follow-on location. |
| In addition to sustaining a humanitarian assignment is granted, all of the following basic conditions must be met except for the | Having a documented and substantiated long-term problem involving a family member |
| Members can apply for Exceptional Family Member program reassignment or deferment if they | Have contacted a EFMP officer for a complete evaluation, assessment and enrollment. |
| A request for a expanded permissive reassignment from one CONUS base to another will normally be approved when | The losing base manning level will not decrease below CONUS -wide level |
| What PCS cost identifier do you include on the special orders to indicate that the PCS is at not cost to the Gov? | M |
| Before Family members orders can be published, which agency must certify medical and educational clearance on the AF 1466, medical and education Clearance for dependents overseas travel? | Base Medical and treatment facility |
| The gaining MTF has determined the special educational needs cannot be met, and has sent a message to the losing facility and relocation's. The AF Form 1466 is annotated appropriately. What activity review the AF Form 1466 in this situation? | Maj Command surgeon general |
| HQ AFPC prepares all AF Forms 63 and faxes them to the PFE within how many duty days of the official assignment or training notification? | 5 |
| What activity updates the Mil PDS for all AD service commitment dates and reason codes(except for health profession and judge advocate officers)? | AFPC |
| What type of travel is the authority to move dependents at gov expense to an overseas area at the same time the member moves? | Concurrent travel |
| Under what circumstances is completion of the AF form 907, Relocation preparation checklist, not required for a TDY? | When TDY of less than 30 days unless the TDY is to a course of instruction. |
| Which of the following statements about fund citations is correct? | CONUS units are responsible for funding per Diem for personnel scheduled for training courses overseas. |
| When a member visits a particular site in order to perform operational or managerial activities, the purpose of the TDY is categorized as | Site Visit |
| Woman who have MOS and are otherwise qualified for transfer to the Reserve will be discharged if | The reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge. |
| Prior to ETS separation is a concern at all levels of responsibility. B/c any separation before the completion of an obligated period of service results in the loss of substantial investment in recruting, training, and equipping Amn and | Leads to a need for more accessions |
| When determining whether a member should be discharged, islated incidents and events that are remote in time | have littele value |
| Regular officers who desire discharge or release on completion of all AD service commitments may | tender their resignation |
| Regular officers who desire discharge or release on completion of all AD service commitments may | tender their resignation |
| What activity ensures the seperation relocation folder contains the documents required for seperation? | Personnel Relocations Element |
| All of the following documents are found in the seperation relocation folder except | PCS with PCS orders |
| The personnel Joourneyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation prepartion actions must do all of the following except | Arrang transportation for all household goods |
| When a member is seperating what must you annotate on the copy of the AF form 330 in the relocation folder? | Disposition of the VA forms and accompanying any health records group. |
| During final seperation out-processing, an individual in the Personnel Relocations Element ensures that all of the following occur except | Retrival of all inquires before the member leaves active service |
| The personnel Joourneyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation prepartion actions must do all of the following except | Arrang transportation for all household goods |
| Which of the following firts trem Amn would not be entitled to transportation on the AF form 100, Request and Authorization for seperation? | Involuntarily seperated for reasons of miscounduct, for service characterized as under other than honotable. |
| During final seperation out-processing, an individual in the Personnel Relocations Element ensures that all of the following occur except | Retrival of all inquires before the member leaves active service |
| Whicch of the following os not authorized to sign an AF form 100? | GS-4 |
| Which of the following firts trem Amn would not be entitled to transportation on the AF form 100, Request and Authorization for seperation? | Involuntarily seperated for reasons of miscounduct, for service characterized as under other than honotable. |
| An AF form 973, request and Authoriztion for change of Admin Orders is published as an amendment to the AF form 100, Request and Authorization for seperation, in order to | Change pertinent data that affects an entitlements |
| Whicch of the following os not authorized to sign an AF form 100? | GS-4 |
| To be able to submit a retirement application in advance of completing 20 years' TAFS, the member | Must be retirement eligible with 1 year |
| An AF form 973, request and Authoriztion for change of Admin Orders is published as an amendment to the AF form 100, Request and Authorization for seperation, in order to | Change pertinent data that affects an entitlements |
| Which of the following factors is not required on a member's request for a wavier of restrictions based on hardship? | How civilian employment or businss oppertunity would be alleviate hardship. |
| To be able to submit a retirement application in advance of completing 20 years' TAFS, the member | Must be retirement eligible with 1 year |
| members who want to take terminal leave should apply for retirement at least 120 days in advance of the requested plues the number | |
| Which of the following factors is not required on a member's request for a wavier of restrictions based on hardship? | How civilian employment or businss oppertunity would be alleviate hardship. |
| members who want to take terminal leave should apply for retirement at least 120 days in advance of the requested plus the number of days' leave desired | To allow enough time to process a retirement application and issue retirment orders. |
| Which of the following options does not not constitute use of a home of selection entitlement? | Shipment of houshold pets |
| Which of the following military decorations does not authomatically qualify an enlisted member for award of a 10 percent increase in retired pay based on extraordinary heroism? | Distinguished flying Cross |
| The personnel relocation element must maintain a retirment relocation preparation folders to ensure all actions required in processing a retirment have been finalized. which of the following is not included in the relocation folder? | DD Form 363AF Certificate of Retirement |
| The DD form 214, Certificate of release or discharge from AD, Serves all of the following purposes except | Providing prospective civilian employers with a members service characterization |
| What type discharge certificate is issued to a member whose service characterization is under honorable conditions | DD form 214 |
| Which discharge certificate is given to officers vacating their appoinment by acceptence of incompatible civil office ? | DD Form 214, Only |
| The AF Military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of function and requirments for all the following except | Personel Desires |
| What functional grouping does the AF use to combine AFS in to broader and more general functional caregories? | Career Fields |
| How does a "capper" AFSC differ form other AFSC's? | Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a 0 |
| When classifying a member into a specific AFSC which of the following factors is not taken into consideration in the Guaranteed Training Enlistment program (GTEP)? | Assignment Voulnteer status |
| Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Amn primary AFSC | Civic and Fraternal membership |
| A member serving in he grade of MAgt will normally not be used outside a CAFSC during a 12 month period | For a period not to exceed 130 days with out approval from the MPE |
| Which of the following media will the AF use to provide AFSC revisions and a detailed guidance as to what actions must be taken to MPE? | Change summary and conversion guide |
| If a SMSgt is demoted to a SSgt, what action must be taken on his or her primary AFSC skill level? | Down grade to a 7-Level |
| Reporting identifiers are important to the personnel employment element b/c they identify | Positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system. |
| What type of duty does reporting identifier 9T000 indicate | An AMN in Basic training |
| Special duty identifiers identify manpower positions and individuals p[erforming duties | unrelated to any specific career field |
| How are special duty identifiers designated in the individuals personnel records? | Awarded specialties |
| What action agency periodically review SEI to determine validity and usefulness? | AFPC |
| In concert with manpower mangement officels, who review manpower authorizations to determin if positions are coded with the pproiate SEI or if one is required? | AFSC functional manager |
| How often doen AFPC update the retraining advisory? | Continuously |
| In which of the following data bases is the retraining advisory located? | MIL PDS |
| How many months of retainability must a first time AMn have or be able to obtain if his or her Career Amn reenlistment Reservation system retaining is approved | 23 months beyond the normanial ETS |
| Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retaining | Most recent EPR is a 2 |
| Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application, must a personnel employment element process the application?> | 5 working days |
| When are retaining application submit using supplemental messages? | When no special process is required. |
| Why must an individual's behavior be constantly monitored even after the individuals has been judged reliable | To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur. |
| Which type of certification states that a member is quilified for a projected assignment requiring personnel reliability program duties? | Admin |
| Which of the following is not required for all personnel reliablity program certifications | An S-4 Pysical profile |
| Interim Cerification is authorized for individual in a critical position for up to | 180 Days in a controlled position for up to 90 days. |
| What personnel reliability code is updated for an member who is interim certified foe a critical psoition afterconfirming with DIS that the delay of the investigation is not the result of derogatory information | Code E |
| Which of the following is an action used to immediatley remove a member from personnel reliability program related duties with out decertification | Suspension |
| Which of the following is not a situation for which a member in the personnel reliability program must be permanent decertification? | When short-termimpairment exists and suspension is not approiate |
| What document is used for permanent dercertification of personnel relisanlity program member when the certifing offical must documents the specific circimstances surrounding the decisions of decertifu the individual? | AF Form 286A |
| Which of the following would be the overseas duty selection for a member who has never had an overseas assignment or TDY and who has a TAFMSD of 4 Feb 2000? | 4 feb 2000 |
| The Overseas slection date is used to align Amn in a priority sequence for long overseas tours selection and for short OS tours when Amn have | not completed a prior OS short tour |
| How is the short tour return date established for an Amn who came on AD on 2 Feb 2000 and has nenver served OS short tour? | Establish to the TAFMSD |
| Id an Amn xompletes an unaccompained tour of less than 18 months and no accompained tour was authorized, credit the member with a short tour and award a new | Both ODSD and STRD |
| If an overseas tour is certified and no entitlment to tour is credit accures, the overseas duty selection date or short tour return date is | Adjusted by the # of days served OS area |
| When an AMN's PCS orders show a member elected to serve an accopained, an intitial date eligible to return from overseas is established based on the | Accompained tour regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompained. |
| Which of the following action should be taken by the MPE when a member has an approved seperation date before their date eligible to return from overseas ( DEROS)? | Adjust the DEROS |
| Which of the following data elements must be included in a request to HQ AFPC to correct OS duty Histoy? | OS Tour length |
| How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a memeber selected fora a COT travel tot he CONUS before arriving at the new assignment? | The date the member arrived at the COMUS port |
| Which of the following actions does the personnel emplyment elemnet accomplished during in processing | Check records for AD service commitments when applicable. |
| Which of the following PCS departure certification statements as accomplished by gaining MPEis formatted correctley "I certify that i | certify that i departed (location) PCS at (time) on (date) and (member's Payroll Signature) |
| Which of the following PCS departure certification statments as accomplished by a gaining MPE is formatted correctly? | I certfiy that i departed MISAWA AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 Aug 2001 ( Member signature |
| In the event a PCS departure certification is missing when a member in process what agency is responisible for giving a new one | Gaining MPE |
| When information is enterned on the Initial duty assignment worksheet the approiate element must | Verifiy the data and corrinate on the worksheet |
| When does the NCOIC/assistantNCOIC, personnel employments )use to verify the data on the initial duty assignment | Initial duty assignment worksheet |
| Whast happen after updating an oficers projected duty once the effective date is equel to or less than current duty effective date? | The projected duty info will consummate |
| When reqesting a change in officer DAFSC, which of the following is not included for AFPC to make a decsion | Duty history report on individual (RIP) |
| After an officer has attended and completed training , what is the officers previous duty information effective date | One day after the class graducation date |
| A Speciality may be considered awarded of special duty assignment if it meets all of the following except | not demanding or higly responsible duties |
| An enlisted member is eligible to receive Special duty pay if he or she meets all of the following crteria except for | Serving in Pay grade E-2 or higher. |
| What specific activity must initiate the entitlement if a memeber qualifications and eligibilty for special duty assignment pay? | Unit commander |
| What happens to eligibility for duty if a member serving in a special designated for awas SDAP performs TDY and their skill do not merit SDAP | SDAP continues for up to 90 consecutive days of TDY |
| Which of the following mismatches is not displayed in not displayed in narrative form on the UMPER? | AMn DAFSC is differnt fron the Authorized SEI |
| What computer products lists unit Manpower requirement that are both funded and unfunded? | Unit manpower document (UDM |
| What activity uses the UDM to allocate resources and identify projected changes in manpower authorizations | MAJCOM |
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