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3S371 Vol 3 2011

3S371 Manpower Self-Test Volume 3 (2011)

(401) Which entity is not part of the wartime planning process? Air Force Manpower Readiness Flight (AFMRF).
(401) Which office or agency provides the ultimate decision of national policy and overall strategic direction of the US armed forces? President and Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
(401) What type of planning is directed toward assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives in times of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW)? Mobilization.
(401) What type of planning prescribes how to apply force to attain specified military objectives? Employment.
(401) Which approach is the primary formal means by which the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) for strategic planning and providing military advice to the president and Secretary of Defense (SecDef)? Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
(401) Which document is used to provide the required strategic direction to coordinate the planning efforts of the combatant commanders in pursuit of national strategic objectives? Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).
(402) What system is used to translate policy decisions into operation plans (OPLAN) and operation orders (OPORD) in support of national security objectives? Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
(402) What is the principle system within the Department of Defense (DOD) to translate policy decisions into the joint combatant commander’s air, land, and sea operations? Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
(403) In the deliberate planning process, when does Headquarters USAF advise component Air Force commanders, by way of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), of the resources available to support joint requirements? Phase I–Initiation.
(403) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are the strategic concepts of the commanders of the unified commands developed? Phase II–Concept development.
(403) Approval of the joint operation plan during the final plan review (phase IV) depends on? adequacy and feasibility.
(404) Which type of Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) order initiates development of a course of action (COA)? Warning.
(404) Who may issue a planning order instead of a warning order based on the urgency of the situation? Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).
(404) What order is used when the urgency of the situation requires the order process to be accelerated? Planning.
(404) What order incorporates the president and Secretary of Defense’s (SecDef) approval of the course of action (COA) derived from the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consultations? Alert.
(404) Which order refines the estimated C-day and L-hour and confirms lift allocations for the deploying forces? Alert.
(404) What order is required to authorize the actual movement of forces to proceed on C-day? Execute.
(404) Which agency or office is responsible for planning and executing air and space expeditionary force (AEF) experiments that address AEF doctrine, equipment, and other areas that improve force management and presentation? Air Force Experimentation Office (AFEO).
(405) Which plan establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces? War and Mobilization.
(405) How often is the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) revised? Annually.
(406) Which part of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), volume 3, Combat and Support Forces, is a listing of all Air Force unit type codes (UTC) approved for planning? Part 3.
(406) A unit type code (UTC) becomes a standard when it is registered in the? manpower and equipment force packaging system (MEFPAK).
(407) Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume is the most valuable source document used in base support planning? Volume 4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.
(407) Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume reflects the joint Headquarters USAF and MAJCOM position on the use of bases in wartime? Volume 4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.
(407) Which reference consists of parts 1 through 3 within volume 4 of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) and identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operation out of it during wartime? Wartime aircraft activity (WAA).
(408) Which AF WMP volume has the basic planning factors/data the AF approves for expenditure of all war consumables that support wartime flying activities, except munitions, fuel tanks, launchers, racks, adapters, and pylons? Volume 5, Planning Factors and Data.
(408) Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume contains the wartime sortie and attrition rates including sortie duration? Volume 5, Planning Factors and Data.
(409) Which statement does not apply to a standard unit type code (UTC)? Contains only the manpower detail.
(409) How often after unit type code (UTC) data is developed does the responsible command review and update UTC packages? Annually.
(410) Manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) is a subsystem of? MEFPAK and DCAPES.
(410) War planners use unit type codes (UTC) to document requirements for? deliberate and execution planning.
(410) Which statement is not a valid reason for requesting a new unit type code (UTC)? When minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
(411) The timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is the primary concern and central foundation for? force planning, logistics planning, movement scheduling, and plan execution.
(411) What is the name of the type of timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) associated with the total force assessment (TFA)? Requirements.
(412) Timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) maintenance focuses on changes that occurred to? deployment data since refinement.
(413) Which is not a modular element of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)? Rotate hourly shifts.
(413) When used in concert, force modules provide capabilities to open, establish, and operate an? air expeditionary wing (AEW).
(413) When do forces to open the airbase normally arrive and assess the airbase for establishment? First.
(413) What module contains capabilities designed to support missions or weapon systems? Establish the airbase.
(413) What force module (FM) is considered part of the baseline structure for the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)? Robust the airbase.
(414) The Air Force planning and execution community supports Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) by feeding Air Force unique data through? Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
(414) Who does not use data in Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) to prepare resources for movement to deployment locations? Medical personnel.
(414) What agency approves requests to incorporate unique systems into Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)? AF/A5XW.
(415) Total wartime manpower requirements are composed of the? in-place sustaining and deployment requirements.
(415) Which program uses total force assessment (TFA) results to fill shortfalls in critical areas? Individual mobilization augmentees (IMA).
(416) What reference encompasses several programs that assist the installation commanders in meeting their deployment commitment and still maintaining the infrastructure of the base? Base-level planning process (BLPP).
(416) What programs are used by installation commanders to alleviate shortfalls? Augmentation duty and emergency essential (EE) programs.
(417) What organization is established on a geographical or functional basis for a mission with a specific, limited objective and dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer needed? Joint Task Force (JTF).
(417) A military service includes all of the following except? Department of Defense civil personnel.
(418) Which command authority has full authority over assigned forces and cannot be delegated or transferred? Combatant command (COCOM).
(418) Which command authority over military capability or forces that are limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary for mission accomplishment? Tactical control (TACON).
(419) Forces are assigned to the combatant commanders (COCOM) by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) through the Service secretaries from what agencies recommendations? Global force management board (GFMB).
(419) Who is tasked by the Joint Staff to develop recommended global sourcing solutions? Joint Force commander (JFCOM).
(420) Which is not accomplished by adaptive planning? Allocates budget funds for next fiscal year.
(420) Which is not a stage of adaptive planning? Evaluation.
(421) When do parent commands review designed operational capability (DOC) statements? Annually prior to statement anniversary.
(421) Which resource is not measured in a Status of Forces and Training System (SORTS) report? Mode of transportation.
(422) What capability level (C-level) indicates that a unit requires additional resources or training to undertake its wartime mission but may be directed to undertake portions of its wartime mission with resources on hand? C4.
(423) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) schedule operates on a life cycle of how many month? 24.
(423) What compliments the readiness data reported in Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)? Air and space expeditionary force unit type code status reporting tool (ART).
(423) What is the basis for both Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS) and air and space expeditionary force unit type code status reporting tool (ART)? Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) TPFDD library.
(423) Who has authority to designate appropriate resources for reporting in air and space expeditionary force unit type code status reporting tool (ART)? Major command (MAJCOM).
(424) Who is the base focal point for all plans actions? Installation deployment officer (IDO).
(424) Who is the Air Force specialty (AFS) representative in the readiness community? Functional area manager (FAM).
(425) In a deployed environment, who is the approval authority for an authorization change request? Combatant commanders (COCOM).
(425) What classification must be assigned to all provisional organizations established for contingency operations? Secret.
(426) Once the manpower and organization (MO) office is established at a deployed location, what is the purpose of a mission briefing? To provide key personnel a clear understanding of the responsibilities, capabilities, and services provided by the MO office.
Created by: charles.barnes
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