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3S371 Vol 1 2011

3S371 Manpower Self-Test Volume 1 (2011)

Name the four core competencies or manpower programs for which the MO community is responsible? Program allocation and control, Requirements determination, Organization structure, Performance management.
In which core competency is the IDEA Program included? Performance Management.
Which publication gives the duties and responsibilities of both the manpower officer and NCO? AFI 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted).
What office approves AFMSs and variances? HQ USAF/A1M.
What agency reviews and processes changes to AFMSs? AFMA.
Identify the office and manager that reviews the functional accuracy and recommends approval of manpower standards and variances? HQ USAF or command functional manager.
Who is responsible for assisting and advising local commanders on manpower resource management? Wing-level or equivalent MO office.
What mainly drives the need to actively recruit people in the manpower career field? Normal attrition due to retirements and separations
Who recruits potential retrainees for manpower and organization? The recruitment of people rests with each one of us.
What is the best recruitment tool to attract interested and qualified personnel? Daily contacts and discussions.
What is a benefit of close coordination with your formal training section at the FSS? You can often receive advance notice of important changes in the training advisory, such as notices of career field deletions that require mandatory retraining.
What is the purpose of the skill level? To indicate the amount of MO task experience and knowledge you possess.
List the items must you complete before upgrade to the Manpower Craftsman skill level? (1) Be certified as proficient on core and current duty position tasks identified in the CFETP. (2) Successfully complete the manpower craftsman course.
In addition to meeting knowledge requirements, what course must SMSgts complete before they are eligible for the 9-skill level? SNCO Academy.
For what MO award is a wing-level MO office with 12 manpower authorizations eligible? Large MO Office of the Year.
Who reviews and scores each nomination package submitted by the MAJCOMs, FOAs, DRUs,and unified commands? A panel made up of MO staff personnel.
Why should Organizations with like responsibilities have similar organizational structures? Standardization.
What principle states that organizations should be capable of adapting rapidly to changing external circumstances? Flexibility.
What principle states that organizational structure should provide a clear chain-of command running from the president to the most junior Airman? Unambiguous command.
Organizations designed so lower echelons can achieve objectives without the need of continuous control from above are considered? Decentralization.
Organizations that have a reason to exist and designed to achieve the outcome defined in the applicable mission directive is concidered? Mission orientation.
Organizations structured so personnel can recognize problems, find solutions, make decisions, and implement them quickly are considered to embody which principle? Agility.
What principle states that organizational structure should be as plain and straightforward as possible because complexity often inhibits rather than facilitates organizational effectiveness? Simplicity.
What principle encourages rapid decision making? Lean organizational structure.
What constitutes a complete entity, using closely related parts? Functional grouping.
What principle mirrors peacetime and wartime operations so little time is lost in transition? Emphasis on wartime tasks.
What is established at the lowest level required to successfully accomplish the primary mission? Standard levels.
Tactical echelons are designed to increased operational effectiveness rather than review and transmit paperwork, this is also called? Skip-echelon structure.
What agency is the approval authority for deviations from a standard structure? HQ USAF/A1M.
What is constituted by directives issued by HQ USAF? Unit.
What is a temporary unit organized to perform a specific task? Provisional unit.
What consists of a headquarters unit and its subordinate units? Establishment.
Who directly administers units, detachments, or operating locations assigned to it? Parent unit.
What identifies Air Force personnel on duty with organizations outside the Air Force? Air Force element.
What is a unit called that is separated geographically from its parent unit, and doesn’t have nonjudical punishment authority? Operating locations.
What unit is considered separated geopgraphically from its parent unit, and has nonjudicial punishment authority? Detachment.
What is the organizational entity whose legal authority for existence is withdrawn? Disbanded unit.
What are the two major entities in HQ USAF? (1) The Secretariat (including the Secretary of the Air Force and the Secretary’s principal staff). (2) The Air Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff.
What is a subdivision of the Air Force that reports directly to the chief of staff, United States Air Force? DRU
What is a subdivision of the Air Force that reports directly to a HQ USAF functional manager? FOA
What level of organization should not exceed 99 manpower authorizations without an approved waiver? NAF
What is the name for a wing that performs a support rather than an operational mission? Air Base Wing
What level of organization has the same functions and responsibilities as a wing but does not warrant wing-level designation? Independent Group
What is the lowest level unit in the Air Force? Numbered/Named Flight
Host unit commanders? Installation commander.
Designation used at group level? Deputy commander.
Staff element of HQ USAF or MAJCOM level? Directorate.
Designation used at MAJCOM through wing level only? Vice commander.
Occupies a position of command pursuant to orders of appointment? Commander.
Supervises the acitivities of directorates and FOAs? Deputy chief of staff
Organizations that hold squadron status in the wing structure and can be aligned to this type of element when the head of organization is a civilian? Division.
What is a staff element reporting directly to a MAJCOM vice commander and oversees executive services? DS
What function is structured to perform an operational or war-fighting mission, often oriented to a specific geographic region? Standard NAF
Generally what levels of organization report to a wing commander? The wing staff, the four group commanders (operations, logistics, support, and medical), and the comptroller.
What office provides commanders and staff with research services? History.
Which office administers support agreements and evaluates exercises? Plans.
Which office provides consultant services and facilitates process improvement? MO office.
Who implements emergency action and quick reaction checklist procedures? Command post.
Who represents Air Force interests in environmental, civilian labor and utility rate matters? Staff judge advocate.
Who issues and manages programs to help preserve vital resources and enhance mission capability? Safety.
Who provides advice to commanders and staff on religious, ethical, moral, morale and quality of life matters? Chaplain.
Who implements the Air Force’s Inspection System; Complaints Program; and Fraud, Waste and Abuse Programs? Inspector General.
Which office administers complaint program and human relations program; conducts human relations climate assessment? MEO.
Who advises and counsels commanders in communicating Air Force messages to the military and public communities? Public affairs.
What function is aligned as a squadron or flight reporting directly to the wing commander? FM
What organizational action renews legal authorization of a disband unit? Reconstitute.
What organizational action changes the name or number of an organization? Redesignate.
What organizational action places a unit with an existing military organization? Assign.
What do you call support that is provided by one organization to another, enabling that organization to carry out operations? Logistic support.
What is automatically created when its headquarters unit is activated, but personnel are not assigned to it? Establishment.
What is document(s) reflect the effective date of an organization action? The DAF/A1M or orders issued by the MAJCOM.
How often are detachment and operating locations reviewed to validate the continuing requirement for the activity? Annually
How are detachment numbered? Detachments are numbered in sequence, beginning with 1.
What are the characteristics of a provisional unit? They are temporary in nature and personnel are attached rather than assigned.
What type of unit will be created when a specific organization is required and no organization exists to attach personnel? Provisional unit.
What agency’s approval is required to activate, inactivate, or redesignate a unit in a MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, or for one of their subordinate units? HQ USAF/A1M.
What is used to request an organization action such as unit activation? Organizational change request.
How many days before the proposed start of the test organization should a test plan be submitted for approval? At least 120 calendar days.
Who is responsible for publishing the legal and authoritative documents needed to implement organization actions? HQ USAF, MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU MO functions.
Describe the actions G-Series orders direct? To activate, inactivate, redesignate, assign, and reassign units and detachments subordinate to a MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU; and to attach one unit to another.
What is the effective date of the action described in the G-Series order? The date of the order, unless a different effective date is specified
What agency maintains organization charts depicting major Air Force units? HQ USAF/A1MO
What is used to establish, maintain, and revise the FYDP? The PPBES.
What does the Air Force use to track its portion of the FYDP? The F&FP.
How long does each PPBE cycle last? Two years.
What initiates the DOD planning phase? The JSR.
What document contains guidance from the SECDEF and is considered to be the link between planning and programming? The DPG.
What initiates the AF planning phase? The SECDEFs completion of the DPG.
What gap does programming bridge? The gap between planning and programming.
What key AF programming document links the AFSP to programming? The APPG.
During the planning phase, what document is sent to the SECDEF and reflects the AF program requirements for the FYDP? The POM.
What does budgeting begins with? The IBR.
What is one of the key purposes of IBR adjustments? To protect AF TOA.
When does the budget review begin? When the PBR is submitted to OSD.
The FYDP is a detailed compilation of what? Total resources (forces, manpower, and TOA) programmed for DOD and updated throughout the PPBES cycle.
How many MFPs are contained in the FYDP? Eleven.
What is the basic building block of the FYDP? PE.
What are the categories by which Congress funds the PB? Appropriation codes.
How does USAF adjust command manpower in the FYDP? By way of programmatic decisions made through the AF corporate process, SEC/DEF decisions, PDMs, and PBDs.
What database provides considerable expansion of details over the FYDP for Air Force programs? USAF F&FP.
What do USAF program documents contain? A projection of objectives, assumptions, and guidance for program development.
How often are USAF program documents normally published? Annually after submission of the PB.
What are FEEs especially useful for during the programming phase of the PPBES? Projecting manpower requirements for the FYDP.
What are the variables for FEEs called? PEF.
What is used to break a functional group’s total manpower requirement into various PECs? Percentage factors.
What type of missions requires the use of military personnel? Combat and direct combat support.
What type of manpower resource is used when the work must be accomplished by a government employee, but does not require performance by military personnel? In-service civilians.
For what type of work does the Air Force use contract service? Work that is neither military essential nor required to be done in-house.
What sources does HQ USAF/A1M use to program manpower resources? The FYDP and the F&FP.
When HQ USAF/A1M allocates manpower resources to the MAJCOMs, how much manpower is held in reserve? None.
What is the effective date when adding military authorizations or making changes that could cause a personnel action? The effective date should be after the current fiscal quarter plus two succeeding fiscal quarters.
What type of grades is determined by manpower standards or other manpower requirement tools? Required grades.
What type of grades is used by the personnel assignment system? Authorized grades.
Who has the final approval authority for all fixed grades? HQ USAF/A1M.
What do MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs use to determine allowed grade distribution? Command grade factors.
What percentage of the total force does the law allow for SMSgt and CMSgt manpower authorizations? Three percent.
What office is responsible for validating colonel positions to commands? HQ USAF/A1M.
What form is used to document new colonel position requirements? AF Form 81, Colonel Position Description.
Why are officer aircrew positions carefully managed? Because of the high cost of training and the critical functions of rated officers.
List three drawbacks of improperly assigning API codes to manpower authorizations? (1) Loss of pay. (2) Loss of security clearance. (3) Disqualification of aviation service.
What API applies to rated staff or supervisory positions at wing level and below with responsibilities and duties requiring the incumbents to fly? Six.
What office submits changes to the MPES after MAJCOM approval is received? The local MO office.
What office evaluates requests for new 0–6 rated staff authorizations? HQ USAF/A1MR.
What form is required for all rated or supervisory staff positions not covered by an approved manpower standard? AF Form 480, Aircrew AFSC Justification.
What agency is responsible for determining ARC mobilization manpower requirements to augment the active force? Gaining command.
What shortfall do commands use to determine IMA needs? Shortfall between wartime requirements and peacetime authorizations.
Where are IMAs with AFSCs in the chaplain, medical, and legal career fields centrally managed? ARPC
What must the civilian position description accurately state? The duties and responsibilities assigned to the position incumbent by the supervisor.
What office reviews new or revised civilian position descriptions? MO.
When are deputy and assistant positions authorized? Only when they are determined to be essential requirements.
What office is responsible for evaluating and grading the civilian position descriptions? The civilian personnel flight, classification section.
Which pay system classification is exempt from the GS if its primary duty involves the performance of physical work which requires knowledge or experience of a trade, craft, or annual-labor nature? Federal Wage.
As a good management practice, what effective period should be used when establishing temporary overhires? 90 days.
What refers to the method of presenting data contained in a table using rows to represent records and columns to represent the fields containing the attributes? Datasheet format.
What makes a relational database different from other database systems? The establishment of relationships between the tables contained in the database.
If you are having trouble with MPES rejecting an attribute value you are trying to input, what could be the cause? A referential integrity rule.
What is the key to understanding the MPES? Understanding the attributes (data elements) and structure of MPES.
How do analysts at various levels in the MO community access MPES? Through web browsers from desktop computers.
What are two main systems with which MPES interfaces? The military and civilian personnel data systems.
Which interfaces will allow MPES to receive Unit Authorization Data and In-place wartime requirement data needed to analyze unclassified wartime tasking and utilization data? DCAPES interfaces.
What code identifies the function to which a manpower requirement belongs? FAC.
What code identifies a manpower requirement as wartime execution, authorization, peacetime, wartime plan, or contract man-year equivalent (CME)? MNT.
What code identifies the organization to which a manpower requirement belongs? PAS.
What MPES tab do you use to view manpower data or produce the UMD? Live UMD tab.
What function under the Projects tab in MPES do you use to create a manpower project to add, change, and delete manpower requirements? Project build function.
What function under the Projects tab do you use to query and view past change notices? Project history function.
What are four uses for the UMD? (1) To create projects in MPES. (2) To evaluate organizational changes. (3) To apply manpower standards. (4) To compare sourced and unsourced manpower requirements.
How do military and civilian personnel flights use the UMD? To compare authorized/assigned data and for making personnel assignments.
In what two sequences can you request the UMD to be produced? (1) FAC. (2) OSC.
Why would a commander choose to submit an ACR? Move positions within their unit from one work center to another, change AFSCs, or transfer funding to unfunded positions.
Evaluating an ACR is the most critical step. As you evaluate the ACR, why do you check the ACR against the UMD? To ensure all the manpower position data elements are correct and in agreement with the UMD
Why do you coordinate ACR actions involving civilian positions with the servicing CPO? To avoid an adverse impact to the incumbent.
After you have conducted your ACR evaluation, made a recommendation to your customer, and documented proposed changes by creating a manpower project in MPES, why do submit the manpower project to your MAJCOM MO? Because MAJCOM MO is responsible for approval consideration and implementation of the manpower project after they conduct a similar evaluation process.
Created by: charles.barnes
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