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NSF RFO Questions 1

Questions from the NSF RFO test

QuestionAnswer
What are the hazards associated with the colors of the NFPA 704 diagram (the colored diamond)? (4.B. RM3) Blue: Health Hazard; Red: Fire Hazard; Yellow: Reactivity Hazard; White: Specific Hazard
Which instrument is required to be used in a SMART in-situ burn operation? (3.L. RM4) DataRAM
What temporary storage device in the NSF inventory has a liquid capacity of 10,000 gallons? (3.E. RM2) Canflex Sea Slug FCB-100
Which of the following types of radiation is the most penetrating type of radiation and represents the highest external hazard? (4.P. RM1) Alpha, Beta, GAMMA, or Ionizing
Which of the following is not a type of damming technique? (3.I. RM1) Underflow, overflow, ROUNDABOUT, or Diversion?
What is the purpose of a chain of custody? (4.L. RM 3) b. It documents sample possession and custody transfer c. Is essential in any sampling event which may lead to litigation
What is the purpose of the Chlorine Institute Emergency Kit“C”? (2.E. RM2) Rail cars and tank trucks
What level of PPE requires the use of a positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus SCBA? (4.E. RM1) Level A and B
What is the precedence when measuring an unknown atmosphere with instruments? (4.M. RM3) O2, % LEL, H2S (toxic chemicals)
Which of the following are developed by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists as guidelines to assist in the control of health hazards? (4.M. RM1) TLV
A 3,500 gallon oil spill in the Coastal Zone is considered to be what size of spill per the NCP? (1.B. RM7) Minor
Define the term “lightering” as per 33 CFR 156. (2.A. RM2) The transfer of a cargo of oil or hazardous materials in bulk from one vessel to another.
Which of the following is enforceable by law? (4.M. RM1) PEL
How many gallons are in a US Barrel? (3.A. RM1) 42
What is the level of concern for a flammable atmosphere? (4.M. RM2) 10%
The ability of an instrument to detect a substance based on a particular calibration gas is known as: (4.N. RM1) Relative response
Which of the following is not an element of a Permit Required Confine Space? (1.I. RM1) 1) Sloping walls 2) Engulfment 3) Entrapment 4) Slips, trips and falls
Who does the Safety Officer report to under the Incident Command System? (ICS 300 Prereq) Incident Commander
An exothermic reaction is defined as? (4.B. RM1) A reaction giving off heat
Which piece of NSF equipment is designed to enhance communications interoperability? ACU-T
Which of the following CG vessels is not in the NSF inventory? (1.N. RM1) UTB
What ALARA practices are to be followed during a radiological incident? (4.P. RM3) Time, Distance, Shielding
What are the NSF levels of concern for O2? (4.M. RM2) Below 19.5% and above 22% (shipboard), above 23.5% (shore)
Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of controls, from initial to final? (1.H. RM10) Engineering, Administrative, PPE
Which of the following is not one of the Four Phases of an Oil Spill as per the NCP? (1.B. RM6) 1) Documentation and Cost Recovery 2) Discovery and Notification 3) Site Remediation 4) Preliminary assessment and Initiation of Action
Which of the following is not used to detect biological agents? (4.O. RM3) A) APD2000 B) BTA Smart Tickets C) Anthrax Hazcat D) M256 Kit E) Both A & D
Which of the following is not part of an oil containment boom? (3.F. RM2) A) Flounder Plate B) Tension member C) Ballast member D) Skirt
Which is not a booming technique? (3.F. RM3) A) Diversion B) Entrainment C) Exclusion D) Containment
Define the term “permeation” as it relates to PPE. (4.E. RM5) The diffusion of a chemical on a molecular basis through the protective material.
What are the basic DECON types? (4.K. RM4) Dry, wet, neutralization
Which of the following is not a plugging/patching kit in the NSF inventory? (2.E. RM1) A) Vetter’s kit B) Chlorine Kit C) Drum Kit D) Hazcat Kit
What does the NIMS acronym “ICP” stand for? (1.D. RM1) Incident Command Post
Which of the following is not a submersible pump? (2.C. RM1) Peristaltic
Which listed below is not a DOT hazard class? (4.B. RM2) A) Flammable liquid B) Flammable solid C) Corrosive D) Irritant
What is the function of the hydraulic prime mover? (2.C. RM4) A) To pump hydraulic fluid B) To be used as an external energy source for a hydraulic pump C) To be used as an external energy source for a trash pump D) Both A and B
What are the three zone boundaries? (1.H. RM6) Support, Contamination Reduction, Exclusion
What is the support equipment for the Wildens pump? (2.D. RM2) Ingersoll-Rand
Which one is funded through the Stafford Act? (1.G. RM1) DPN
Which of the following is not a Command Staff Position? (ICS 300 Prereq) Operations Officer
What does the blue colored diamond represent in the NFPA 704 Hazard Rating System Diagram? (4.B. RM3) Health
What is the factor that does not affect the performance of chemical protective clothing? (4.E. RM5) A) Deflagration B) Permeation C) Degradation D) Penetration
Per the definition of IDLH, how long does someone in no PPE have to escape a hazardous environment with no long term, adverse effects? (4.B. RM1) 30 minutes
Which listed below is not a NSF Prime Mover? (2.C. RM6) A) Yanmar B) Duetz C) HVPU (Highstar) D) Multi-quip
What is the definition of bonding? (2.A. RM2) Connecting two or more conductive objects in order to equalize the potential charge between them. AND Connecting various parts of equipment and containers that are electrically separated.
What are the TSD’s in the NSF inventory? (3.E. RM1) Lancer Barge and FCB SeaSlug
What system was designed to improve the capability to lighter grounded vessels laden with viscous product? (2.C. RM3) VOPS
Which is not a hydraulic prime mover in the NSF inventory? (2.C. RM6) Ingersoll-Rand
Which of the following is not found in the NSF plugging and patching kits? (2.E. RM1) A) Oakum B) Wedges C) Synthoglass D) Super glue
Which of the following cannot detect radiation? (4.P. RM5) A) Ludlums B) GammaRAE II C) Draeger CMS D) Identifinder-U
Which of the following does not detect CWA? (4.O. RM3) A) APD 2000 B) M256A1 C) Draeger Civil Defense Kits D) Identifinder-U
Which of the following is the NSF level of concern for a radiological incident? (4.M. RM2) A) Anything above background B) 1 mRem C) 5 Rem D) 1 Rem
What level of ppe can the NSF rebreathers be worn in? (4.J. RM2) Level A and Level B
What piece of equipment is used for isotope identification? (4.P. RM4) Identifinder
What zone is the area immediately around the incident where contamination exists? (1.H. RM6) Exclusion zone
Which is not part of the definition for a confined space? (1.I. RM1) D) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere
What type of skimmer allows oil to flow over a lip where the oil is collected in a sump? (1.F. RM6) Weir
What does CERCLA stand for? (1.B. RM1) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
What is the purpose of the case drain? (2.C. RM8) Is connected to the submersible pump to relieve pressure in the pump housing.
Which Chlorine Institute Emergency Kit is used to stop leaks in 150lb cylinders? (2.E. RM2) Chlorine Kit A
What is the transfer of product from a space on a vessel with the use of pumps and hoses through a butterworth or other tank opening to a receiving vessel, tank, or facility? (2.A. RM2) Over the Top Transfer
Which is not one of the four basic booming techniques? (3.F. RM4) A) Cascade B) Containment C) Exclusion D) Overflow
How much foam filled boom is contained in each DRAT pre-positioned boom box? (3.H. RM1) 500 feet
Which definition is the resistance of flow due to internal friction in a fluid? (3.A. RM1) Viscosity
Which is not a form of weathering processes for oil in the environment? (3.A. RM2) A) Evaporation B) Dispersion C) Emulsification D) Regeneration
What type dam would be used if you had oil with a specific gravity of 2? (3.I. RM1) Overflow dam
The assigned protection factor for an SCBA is? (4.F. RM2) 10,000
Which type of radiation can be blocked by a sheet of aluminum foil? (4.P. RM1) Alpha and Beta
Which is not a Level of Concern as per the NSF SOP? (4.M. RM2) zero exposure
The two processes of the ORM that the NSF uses are the GAR and the _____ Model. (1.H. RM19) SPE
The hierarchy of Hazard control includes all but one of the following. (1.H. RM10) Common Sense
What non-submersible pump uses the Ingersoll-rand as a prime mover? (2.D. RM1) M-15
What is the strain inflicted on a vessel that causes the bow and stern to be lower than the amidships section. (2.A. RM1) Sagging
Both the Terminator and the Desmi are examples of this type of skimmer. (3.B. RM1) Weir
For an oil with a specific gravity of 0.98 you would construct which of the following dams. (3.I. RM1) Underflow dam
Which is NOT a way to protect against radiation? (4.P. RM3) A) increase PPE B) Decrease time in zone C)Increase distance from source D) Add shielding
When a chemical migrates through a filter it is called? (4.F. RM1) Breakthrough
What level of protection uses an APR? (4.E. RM1) Level C
The red section of the NFPA 704 symbol identifies? (4.B. RM3) Flammability
What are the two type of cargo nets used on an A/C Pallet? (1.J. RM5) Top and Side
Which one is a submersible pump in our inventory? (2.C. RM1) A) Peristaltic B) Highstar C) DOP D) Multiquip
The Large Pump Load has how many CCN-150-5c? (2.C. RM2) 3
The prime mover for the M8 is ____________? (2.D. RM2) Ingersoll Rand
How many different types of hydraulic prime movers do we have in inventory? (2.C. RM6) 3
What is connected to the submersible pump to relieve pressure in the pump housing? (2.C. RM8) The case drain.
The Vetters kit is a _________? (2.E. RM1) a plugging and patching kit
Syntho-glass is found in. (2.E. RM1) The plugging and patching kit.
The largest boat in the NSF inventory is how many feet long? (1.N. RM 1) 26
HAZARD Class 3 is what? (4.B. RM2) Flammable liquids
Cradle to Grave is a term commonly associated with? (4.C. RM1) RCRA
The FCB-100 Sea Slug is a TSD in the NSF inventory and is capable of holding? (3.E. RM2) 10,000 gallons
A Flourometer is used for what? (3.L. RM4) Determining if dispersants are working
The M-256 Kit is used for? (4.O. RM3) WMD
Turnbuckles, Shackles, Thimbles, and Bridles are all used in ___________? (2.F. RM2) Rigging
With a leaking one ton cylinder of Chlorine you would use __________? (2.E. RM2) The yellow one ton kit (Chlorine B Kit)
A term used meaning “Oil Liking” quite often used with Skimmers. (3.A. RM1) Oleophilic
Boom failure includes all the following except? (3.F. RM6) A) Entrainment B) Splash-over C) Submergance D) Adsorption
How many phases of an oil spill are there as defined in the NCP? (1.B. RM6) 4
A pH of a 1 indicates ____________? (4.N. RM1) it is a strong acid
The Canflex Sea Slug FCB-100 holds? (3.E. RM2) 10,000 gallons
What does the yellow colored diamond represent in the NFPA 704 Hazard Rating System Diagram? (4.B. RM3) Reactivity
What is defined by section 101(22) of CERCLA, and means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment? (1.B. RM2) Release
...waters of the Great Lakes, specified ports and harbors on inland rivers, waters of the contiguous zone, other waters of the high seas subject to the NCP, and the land surface or land substrata, ground waters, and ambient air proximal to those waters. Coastal Zone
Which is not one of the four general priorities of the NCP? (1.B. RM3) A) Safety of human life B) Stabilizing the situation to preclude the event from worsening C) Minimizes adverse impact to the environment D) Personal gain
What portion of a response is performed after an immediate threat of a release has been stabilized or eliminated and clean-up of the site has begun. (1.C. RM1) Post-Emergency Response
What is not one of the minimum elements of a Site Safety Plan? (1.H. RM2) A) Safety and health risk or hazard analysis B) PPE C) Decontamination D) Local Agency Contact List
What is not a major component on the HMRT? (1.K. RM4) A) Air Compressor B) Water Tank C) Generator D) VHF Antenna
What is the vertical distance in feet between the pump centerline and the point of free discharge or surface of the liquid in the discharge tank? (2.A. RM1) Discharge Head
What is the vertical distance in feet from the centerline of the pump to the free level of the liquid to be pumped? (2.A. RM1) Suction Lift
What is the sum of discharge head, suction lift, and friction losses? (2.A. RM1) Total head
What is an external energy source for a hydraulic pump? (2.C. RM4) Prime Mover
Which is not a non-submersible pump in the NSF inventory? (2.D. RM1) A) Wildens M-8 B) Multiquip C) Peristaltic Hose Pump D) DOP160
What is the angle of a vessel from side to side that usually is caused by improper ballast, loading and/or flooding? (2.B. RM1) List
What is the fore and aft inclination of a vessel? (2.B. RM1) Trim
Who can certify a space to be gas free, safe for entry, and safe for hot work? (2.B. RM3) Marine Chemist
What is a measure of how easily an oil flows; a fluid’s resistance to flow due to its internal friction? (3.A. RM1) Viscosity
What is the temperature below which a substance will not flow? (3.A. RM1) pour point
What is the property of an oil collection device which collects oil with a surface upon which oil product accumulates? (3.A. RM1) adsorbent
What is the property of an oil collection device which incorporates oil product into its construction make-up? (3.A. RM1) Absorbent
When hydrocarbons in oil react with oxygen to form water-soluble compounds of persistent tars with enhanced emulsification is? (3.A. RM2) Oxidation
What is the decomposing of oil by naturally present microorganisms? (3.A. RM2) Biodegradation
What is the break-down of oil into tiny droplets due to wave action? (3.A. RM2) Dispersion
What shoreline cleanup technique is used to enhance the rate of degradation by breaking up oily sediments and surface oil deposits, increasing the surface area, and mixing deep subsurface oil layers to the surface? (3.J. RM4) Sediment reworking
What shoreline cleanup technique is used to remove heavy oil from solid substrates or man-made structures? (3.J. RM4) Sand blasting
Who is authorized to sign a hazardous waste manifest? (4.C. RM3) Federal On-Scene Coordinator/Rep
What level of PPE requires the use of a air purifying respirator? (4.E. RM1) Level C
What is the lowest concentration that can be detected by the sense of smell? (4.F. RM1) Odor threshold
What is the workplace level of respiratory protection that a respirator or class of respirators is expected to provide to employees? (4.F. RM1) Assigned protection factor
What is the period of time that a respirator, filter, or sorbent or other respiratory equipment provides adequate protection to the wearer? (4.F. RM1) Service life
What is the assigned protection factor for a full facepiece Air-purifying respirator? (4.F. RM2) 50
What are tiny droplets of liquid suspended in the air? (4.F. RM1) Mist
What are solid particles that are formed when a metal or other solid vaporizes and the molecules condense in cool air? (4.F. RM1) Fume
What are the gaseous form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature or pressure? (4.F. RM1) Vapors
What is referred to airborne concentrations of chemical substances and represent conditions under which it is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed, day after day, over a working lifetime, without adverse health effects? (4.M. RM1) Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
A pH of a 12 indicates ____________? (4.N. RM1) it is a strong base
Which is not a direct reading instrument in the NSF inventory? (4.N. RM3) A) MultiRAE B) AreaRAE C) Drager Tubes D) Identifinder-U
What type of radiation has large particles that only travel a couple of inches in air? (4.P. RM1) Alpha
What type of radiation has relatively small particles, can travel several feet to several yards in air, and can be shielded by thick clothing? (4.P. RM1) Beta
What type of radiation has high-energy electromagnetic waves generated in ht nucleus of an atom, has strong penetrating power but can be shielded by lead or concrete? (4.P. RM1) Gamma
What Federal agency has jurisdiction to provide OSCs for discharges or releases into or threatening the inland zone? (1.B. RM4) EPA
What ICS form would you use to log your daily operations? (1.D. RM2) ICS-214
What type of equipment is an organic/inorganic vapor monitor equipped with a PID/FID? (4.N. RM2) Toxic Vapor Analyzer
What instrument is used to determine wind speed and direction, temperature, and wind stability class? (4.N. RM2) Weather Station
Which instrument is a multi gas meter that is used to detect O2, H2S, CO, and LEL? (4.N. RM2) Combustible Gas Indicator
What instrument measures the concentration of hydrocarbons in the water column? (4.N. RM2) Fluorometer
Which one is funded through the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund? (1.G. RM1) FPN
Which one is funded through the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act? (1.G. RM1) CPN
Which one provides the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants? (1.B. RM1) National Contingency Plan (NCP)
Created by: 735753590