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Worsham Anatomy Q1

QuestionAnswer
The study of the structure of the human body Anatomy
Physiology The study of body function
What we can view with the eye Gross anatomy
microscopic anatomy requires a microscope
Cytology The study of the cells
The study of tissues Histology
systemic anatomy When all the organs with related functions are studied together
Regional anatomy When all the organs in an area are studied together reguardless of function
Pathological anatomy Involves structural changes in cells, tissues, and organs caused by disease. Structural changes can result in change in function.
Topographical anatomy Study of shapes and markings on the surface of the body that reveal underlying organs.
superior towards the head
inferior towards the feet
anterior (ventral) towards the front
posterior (dorsal) towards the back
medial the middle of the body
latheral a side or away from the middle
intermediate between the middle and side/between two other points of referance
proximal closer to the point of attachment
distal farther from the point of attachment
superficial towards or at the surface
deep away from the surface
peripheral outer edges of a region or structure
central center of a region or structure
bilateral symmetry on both sides
Axial The main axis of the body such as the head neck and trunk
appendicular the limbs
cervical neck
acromial point of shoulder
antecubital front of elbow
antebrachial forearm
pollex thumb
patellar anterior knee
tarsal ankle & foot
orbital eyes
buccal check
mental chin
sternal breast bone
thoracic chest
umbilical navel
inguinal groin
femoral thigh
halluxd great toe
vertebral spinal column
olecranal back of elbow
sacral between hips
popliteal back of knee
calcaneal heel
plantar sole
frontal (coronal) plane vertical division of the body front and back
transverse (cross) horizontal division of the body top and bottom
sagittal vertical division of the body left and right sides
medsagittal (median) vertical division of the body down the middle in left and right sides, only one
dorsal body cavity is composed of crainal cavity and vertebral cavity
the brain is housed in the cranial cavity
the spinal cord is housed in the vertebral cavity
the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity make up the ventral body cavity
the thoracic cavity containes the lungs, esospagus, trachea, and the heart
the abdominopelvic cavity is divided in ____ cavities two, abdominal and pelvic cavities
the liver, stomach, and kidneys are located in the abdominal cavity
the pelvic cavity contains bladder, rectum and some reproductive organs
The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are divided by the diaphram
The lungs are each contained in pleural cavities, which are serous cavities
the esophagus and trachea are contained in the mediastinum
the heart is contained in pericardial cavity, which is a serous cavity
the _______ serous cavity surrounds some of the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity peritoneal
perietal serosa the out most layer of the serous cavities
visceral serosa the inner most layer of the serous cavities that lays directly on top of the organ
serous fluid the liquid between the perietal and vesceral layers than fills the cavity to provide lubrication for smooth movement
structural changes can result in change in function
amino acids are the building blocks of proteins
lipids are fats
nucleic acids contain DNA & RNA
retro-parietal behind or outside the parietal cavity
there are ____ abdominal regions or ____ abdominal quadrants nine, four
when the abdomen is divided into regions where are the sagittal planes just medial to each nipple
when the abdomen is divided into regions where do the transverse planes run superior transverse runs at the bottom of the rib cage and anterior tranverse cuts at the top of the hip bones
when dividing the abdomen into quadrants where do the sagittal and transverse planes meet at the umbillicus
name the center regions Epigastric region, Unbilical region and hypogastric region
what are the six outer regions right/left hypochondriac regions, right/left lumbar regions, and right/left iliac (inguinal) regions
smallest living unit in your body cell
tissue groups of cells similar is size, shape & function
what is the function of the plasma membrane degines the extent of the cell and protects it by determining which substances enter or leave the cell
endocytosis moving of substains into the cell
exocytosis moving of substains out of the cell
mitochondria "powerhouse" for the cell, generates of the cells energy, it is the most complex organelle
storage form of energy produced by the cell is ATP
ribosomes constructed of proteins & ribosomal RNA (rRNA) it is the site of potein synthesis
endoplasmic reticulum "network within the cytoplasm"
rough ER ribosomes stud the external surfaces, the cells membrane factory, secretory proteins, and digestive enzymes
smooth ER consists of tubules in a branching network, not ribosomes attached, lipid metabolism, stores ionic calcium
what does ionic calcium do acts as a signal for the beginning of many cellular events
golgi apparatus a stack of 3 to 10 disk-shaped envelopes that sort products of rough ER & sends them to the proper destination, AKA the post office
nucleus control center of the cell, where the DNA is, surrounded by a nuclear membrane AKA a nuclear envelope
epithelium tissue is for covering and lining
connective tissue is for support
muscle tissue is for movement
nervous tissue is for control/communication
what are the different types of epithelium tissues simple and stratified
simple epithelium tissues have 1 layer
stratified epithelium tissues have more then 1 layer
shape of the epithelium cells is determinded by the apical (outer layer of tissue)
squamous cells are wider than tall (plate-like)
cuboidal cells are as wide as tall, like cubes
columnar cells are taller then they are wide, like columns
exocrine gland 1 or more ducts that carry products to the epithelial surface or into a body cavity
mucus-secreting glands, sweat & oil glands, salivary glands, the liver and pancreas are examples of exocrine glands
endocrine gland ductless gland, secretes substances directly into the bloodstream and produce molecules (hormones)
heterocrine gland functions as both exocrine and endocrine glands
the pancreas is an example of a heterocrine
epidermis superficial stratified squamous epithelial tissue, supported by the dermis
dermis deep connective tissue with 2 layers that supports epidermis
keratinocytes most abundant, produces the protein keratin
keratin tough fibrous protein, gives the epidermis its protective properties
Merkel cells sensory nerve endings and receptors for touch
melanocytes produce melanin (skin pigment)
Langerhans cells part of the immune system; use endocytosis to take up foreign proteins (antigens)or invaders
hypodermis lies deep to the dermis and is NOT considered part of the skin.
superficial fascia and subcutaneous layer are other names for hypodermis
what type of tissue does the hypodermis have areolar and adipose connective tissues, mostly adipose tissue
what is the function of the hypodermis stores fats, anchor the skin to underlying strutures, and insulates the body
sebaceous glands are ______ glands, that produce _____ which is an oily substance and also a holocrine secretion. exocrine, sebum
holocrine secretion entire cell breaks up to form product
sudoriferous glands are ______ that produce _____ exocrine, sweat
eccrine glands the most numberous of sweat glands and products true sweat, 99% water
apocrine glands are located axillary, anal & genital areas
apocrine glands open into a hair follicle and produces sweat with fatty substances, proteins, with bacteria and causes body odor
which is larger, eccrine glands or apocrine glands apocrine glands
nails are made from hard keratin
hair is made of hard keratin
where is a nails root and shaft? root is imbedded in the skin and the shaft projects above the skin's surface
how many total cassified bones are in the human body 206
how many bones are in the axial skeleton 80
name the crainal bones and are they paired or unpaired temporal-2, parietal-2, fontal-1, occipital-1, ethmoind-1, spheniod-1
name the facial bones and are they paired or unpaired maxillary-2, zygomatic-2, lacrimal-2, nasal-2, palatine-2, inferiornasal conchae-2, mandible-1, vomer-1
name the six ear ossicles malleus-2, incus-2, stapes-2
what does the hyoid bone articulate with nothing, it is the only bone that does not directly articulate with any other bones
what are the 5 sections of the vertibrae and how many bones are in each cervical-7, thoracic-12, lumbar-5, sacrum-1, coccyx-1
how are the ribs written in shorthand cervical C1-C7, thoracic T1-T12, lumbar L1-L5
how many true ribs are there, how many false, of the false how many are floating 14 true, 10 false, 4 floating
the ribs articulate with the sternum
how many regions does the sternum have and name them 3-manubrium, body, xiphiod process
how many bones are in the appendicular skeleton 126
the pectoral girdle is made up of what bones and how many of each are there clavical-2 and scapula-2
how many arm bones are there and name it/them 2-humerus
name the bones of the forearm and how many of each ulna-2, radius-2
name the carpals and how many scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate-2 of each
how many metacarpals are there and how are they named there are 10, numbered 1-5 from pollex to pinky
how many phalanges are in the hands, how are they identified 28-numbered 1-5 from pollex to pinky, each has a proxmial, middle & distal segment except the pollex which only has a proximal and distal segment
what is the pelvic girdle made up of 2-os coxae
name the thigh bones 2-femur
what is the knee cap called patella
how many tarsals are there and name them 14-talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, lateral cuneiform
how many metatarsals are there and how are they named 10-numbered 1-5 from hallux to baby toe
how many phalanges are in the feet and how are they identified 28-number 1-5 from hallux to baby toe, each has a proximal, middle, distal segment except the hallux which only has a proximal and distal segment
what are the 3 types of cartilage hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage
which is the most abundant, glass-like cartilage hyaline
where is hyaline cartilage found ends of long bones, costal (ribcage), between the vertabrae
which cartilage contains many elastic fibers and is able to tolerate repeated bending elastic cartilage
where is elastic cartilage found ear and eppiglotus
which cartilage resist strong compression and strong tension. fibrocartilage
where is fibrocartilage found intervert. discs, pubic symphysis & menicus (knee)
what are the classifications of bones flat, long, short, irregular
describe flat bones, give examples thin & flattened & usually curved, such as sternum, crainal bones, ribs & scapula
describe long bones, give examples longer then wide with a shaft & ends, such as arms, legs, fingers, toes
describe short bones, give examples roughly cube-shaped, such as carpals, tarsals, patella (which is also a sesamoid bone)
describe irregular bones, give examples various shapes that do not fit into other categories, such as vertebrae, hip bones, ethmiod
compact bone dense out layer
spongy bone (cancellous/trabecular) inernal network of bone
osteocytes mature bone cells; spider-shaped
lucanae small cavities in the solid matrix occupied by osteocytes
canaliculi thin tubes occupied by the "spider legs" of the osteocytes
diaphysis shaft of a bone
epiphysis ends of a bone
epiphyseal line hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis at each end of a long bone
medually cavity hollow cavity in the shaft of the bone filled with yellow marrow
periosteum fibrous membrane that covers the external surfaces of bones except at their articular surfaces
endosteum membrane lining the medually cavity of bone & other inner bone surfaces
osteon (Haversian system) microscopic bone unit of compact bone, consisting of Haversian canals & the surrounding lamellae; long cylindrical structures oriented parallel to the long axis of the bone
Haversian canal (central canal) runs through the core of each osteon; is lined by endosteum; contains blood vessels which provide nutrients to the bone cells & nerve fibers
Volkmann's canals (perforating canals) lie at a right angle to the central canals & connect the blood and nerve supply of the periosteum to that of the central canals & the marrow cavity
lemella a layer of bone matrix in which the collagen fibers & mineral crystals align & run in a single direction, fibers & crystals of adjacent lamellae alway run in roughly opposite directions
what is the site of blood cell formatin red marrow (hematopoiesis)
hematopoiesis site in red bone marrow where blood cells are formed
what sutures border the parietal bones coronal, squamous, sagittal, lambdoid
what is the squamous region of the temporal bones plate-shaped region that abuts the squamous suture
what is the zygomatic process of the temporal bones bar-like projection that projects anteriorly from the temperal bone to meet the zygomatic bone of the face
what is the mandibular fossa of the temporal bones located on the inferior surgace of the zyugomatic process and receives the mandible
what is the tympanic region of the temporal bones surrounds the external auditory meatus
what is the external auditory meatus of the temporal bones external ear canal where sound enters the ear
what is the styloid process of the temporal bones projects inferiorly from the tympanic region
what is the mastoid region of the temporal bones breast-shaped region located just posterior to the tympanic region
what is the projection located in the mastoid region called mastoid process
what are mastoid air cells (sinuses) of the temporal bones air sinuses which lie just posterior to the middle ear cavity
what is the petrous region of the temporal bones projects medially and contributes to the crainal base; bony wedge between the occipiatl bone posteriorly & sphenoid bone anteriorly
what is the carotid canal and where is it found internal carotid artery passes through this opening on the temporal bones
what is the jugular foramen and where is it found internal jugular vein passes through this opening on the temporal bones
what bone forms the forehead & roofs of the orbits frontal bone
what is the supraorbital margin sperior margin of each orbit
what is the superciliary arch formed by the supraorbital margin and is located just deep to our eyebrows, more dominate in men then women
what is the glabella smooth part of the frontal bone between the superciliary arches in the midline
what is the frontal eminence 2 rounded prominecnes one on each side of the frontal bone; where the forehead turns backward to become the anterior portion of the crown of the head. Widest measurement of the anterior part of the skull
what is the frontal sinus regions of the frontal bone lateral to the glabella containing the air-filled frontal sinuses (part of the paranasal sinuses)
what bone forms the posterior portion of the cranium and cranial base occipital bone
what are the occipital condyles the part of the occipital bone that articulates with the atlas and enables us to shake our head "yes"
what is the formanen magnum large hole in the base of the occipital bone where the inferior part of the brain connects with the spinal cord
what are the external occipital portaberance a knob in the midline of the occipiatl bone at the junction of the base & posterior wall of the skull
where is the sphenoid bone facial bone that is the width of the crainal floor, resembles a butterfly or bat
what is the sella turcica on the sphenoid bone saddle-shaped pominence on the superior surface of the body; seat of the saddle is called the hypohyphseal fossa which holds the pituitary gland
where are the sphenoid sinuses located within the sphenoid body; paired sinuses-part of the paranasal sinuses
where si the ethmoid bone lies between the nasal & sphenoid bones, forms most of the medial bony regin between the nasal cavity & orbits
what and where is the cribriform plate superior surface f the ethmoid bone is formed by paired, horizontal cribriform plates, they contribute to the roof of the nasal cavity & floor of the anterior cranial fossa; tiny filaments of crainial nerve & oflactory nerve pass through
what is the crista galli between the 2 bribriform plates, in the midline, helps to secure the brain within the cranial cavity
what is the perpendicular plate projects inferiorly in the median plane; forms the superior part of the nasal septum
ethmoid sinuses part of the paranasal sinuses
what are the superior nasal conchae and the middle nasal conchae extend medially form the lateral masses & protrude into the nasal cavity
what is the largest and strongest facial bone mandible
the ramii and body are the parts of the mandible
what is the mandibular angle angle formed by the junction of the inferior edge of the body and the posterior edge of the ramus
what is the mental protuberance or eminence tip of the chin
what is the alveolar porcess (margin) superior border of the body of the mandible and the maxillary bones; tooth sockets/alveoli
what are the maxillary bones makes up the middle of the face & articulates with all other facial bones except the mandible
what is the palatine process projects medially form the alveolar process to form the anterior region of the hard palate
what are the maxillary sinuses largest paranasal sinuses
what are the zygomatic bones form the lateral walls of the orbits and the cheecks
what is the temporal process extends back to meet the zygomatic arch
what are the frontal processes extends up to meet the frontal bone on either side of the nasal cavity
the bridge of the nose is formed by the nasal bones
what is the bone located in the medial orbital walls lacrimal bone
complete the posterior part of teh hard palate palatine bones
forms the inferior part of the nasal septum vomer
inferior nasal conchae thin, curved bones that project medially to form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity
what is C1 atlas
what is C2 axis
where do the atlas and axis articulate the dens (odontoid process)
where are the dens located on the superior side of teh axis on the anterior side
all the ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae
which section of the vertebrae support the majority of the body weight lumbar
what forms the posterior wall of the pelvis and is formed by 5 fused vertebrae sacrum
what is the tailbone that is formed by 3-5 fused vertebrae coccyx
cervical curvature concave
thoracic curvature convex
lumbar curvature concave
sacral curvature convex
which end of the clavicles articulate with the sternum sternal ends
which end of the clavicles articulate with the scapula acromial ends
what is the glenoid cavity where the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula
what is the coracoid process bony projection of the scapula that functions as an attachment for muscles that move the arm
what is the bony ridge on the posterior side of the scapula that is an attachment for muscles spinous process
trochlea at the distal end of the humerus, it's the medial condyle that articulates with the ulna
capitulum at the distal end of the humerus, lateral condyle that articulates with the radius
olecranon fossa at the distal end on the posterior side of the humerus, receives the olecranon process of the ulna when the forearm is fully flexed
cornoid fossa at the distal end on the anerior side of the humerus, recieves the cornoid process of the ulna when the forearm is flexed
what are the radioulnar joints joints at the proximal and distial ends of the ulna and radius, where they articulate at the radial notch
smooth depression of the lateral side of the proximal end of the ulna, where it articulates with the head of the radius radial notch
what is the deep cup that holds the head of the femur acetabulum
what are the large flaring bones of the hips ileum
what is the strongest part of the hip bones that bears most of our weight when sitting ischeum
obturator foramen large hole between the pubis and ischeum
pubic symphysis fibrocartilage at the midline where the 2 public bones joins
pubic arch the arch inferior to the pubic symphysis
articulates with the patella at the distal end of the femur patellar surface
artticulates with the medial side of the tibia medial condyle
articualtes with the lateral side of the tibia lateral condyle
patella short bone (sesamoid bone) that is enclosed in a tendon
what forms the medial bulge of the ankle medial malleolus
what contributes to the stability of the ankle joint lateral malleolus
Created by: 1157564676