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HM manual, Lab

Hospital Corpsman, NAVEDTRA 14295A, assignment 19

19-1. What is considered the preferred source for blood specimens obtained for clinical examination? Venipuncture
19-2. When performing a finger puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid which of the following conditions? Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids
19-3. How far above the intended phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed? 3-4 inches above the site
19-4. The correct needle position for venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and (b) with the bevel in what position? (a) 15-30 (b) up
19-5. A tourniquet is normally applied before to aid in the process of venipuncture. At what point in the venipuncture procedure should the tourniquet be removed? Once blood flows freely into tubes
19-6. When should specimens be labeled? Before leaving patient
19-7. Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests? Red top
19-8. Which color tube is the best choice for a CBC? Lavender top
19-9. The part of the microscope on which the prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the ________ . Mechanical stage
19-10. What objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears? Oil immersion
19-11. A Complete Blood Count includes which of the following? 1. Total RBC count 2. Hematocrit 3. Differential WBC count 4. All of the above All of the above
19-12. The function of hemoglobin in the body is to? Transport oxygen to the tissues
19-13. Which of the following factors affect the hemoglobin values? 1. Age 2. Sex 3. Altitude 4. All of the above All of the above
14. A low RBC count may indicate that the patient has which of the following listed conditions? 1. Leukopenia 2. Anemia 3. Dehydration 4. Uremia Anemia
19-15. The normal value for male hemoglobin is? 14-18
19-16. What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample? Hematocrit
19-17. Hematocrit for a normal, healthy female is within what range? 37-47 percent
19-18. What is the term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count. Leukocytosis
19-19. Which of the following conditions may cause leukopenia? 1. Radiation 2. Psittacosis 3. Anaphylactic shock 4. Each of the above Each of the above
19-20. Which study within a CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection? WBC differential
19-21. What is the function of leukocytes? To control various disease conditions
19-22. What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood? Neutrophil
19-23. Which leukocyte functions by ingesting invading bacteria? Monocyte
19-24. Which leukocyte helps respond to parasitic infections? Eosinophil
19-25. When performing a WBC differential, which cell has the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus? Basophils
19-26. Which leukocyte fights viral infection? Lymphocyte
19-27. The largest of the normal WBCs is the? Monocyte
19-28. What is the term used for bacteria that cause disease? Pathogen
19-29. The difference between anaerobes and aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to reproduce. (T/F) False
19-30. What is the term used to define bacteria that are round in shape? Cocci
19-31. In the Gram’s stain, what is the primary stain? Crystal violet
19-32. Gram positive bacteria stain what color? Deep blue or purple
19-33. Which bacteria causes strep throat? Streptococcus pyogenes
19-34. Which bacteria causes gonorrhea? Neisseria gonorrhoeae
19-35. Which bacteria causes tetanus? Clostridium tetani
19-36. What is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual’s body, is recognized as foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction? Antigen
19-37. The RPR is a specific test to diagnose syphilis. (T/F) False
19-38. The RPR test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen? Serum
19-39. If the monospot is negative, the patient does not have infectious mononucleosis. (T/F) True
19-40. Which of the following chemical preparations is frequently used to detect fungi? 1. Hydrogen sulfoxide 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Potassium hydroxide 4. Potassium sulfate Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
19-41. The best urine specimen for screening purposes is that taken during which of the following times? 1. First morning 2. Random 3. Fasting 4. 24 hour First morning
19-42. What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing? 12 ml
19-43. Which of the following colors would be considered abnormal in a urine sample? 1. Colorless 2. Amber 3. Straw 4. Red Red
19-44. Which urine color is most related with the presence of blood? Red
19-45. Which urine color is most related with the presence of bile? Yellow or brown
19-46. Which urine color is most related with a patient being treated with Pyridium®? Dark orange
19-47. A report on urine clarity is valid regardless of standing time. (T/F) False
19-48. The specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of ______ . Distilled water
19-49. Normal specific gravity for routine urinalysis is within what range? 1.015 - 1.030
19-50. The addition of one drop of 2 percent acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate which cell? Red blood cells
19-51. What cell is not normally found in urine? 1. White Blood Cell 2. Red Blood Cell 3. Epithelial Cell 4. All of the above Red Blood Cell
19-52. Which critical result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes? Glucose and ketones both present in urine
19-53. What operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay WBB (walking Blood Bank)
Created by: Nsikanete
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