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ivu & urinary system
bontrager
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the main components of the urinary system? | Two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder, and one urethra. |
| Where are the kidneys located? | In the retroperitoneal space, posterior to the vertebral column. |
| What is the function of the ureters? | To transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. |
| What is the role of the urinary bladder? | To serve as a reservoir that stores urine until elimination. |
| What is the Latin term for kidney? | Ren/o. |
| What is the Greek term for kidney? | Nephr/o. |
| How does the right kidney's position differ from the left? | The right kidney is generally lower due to the presence of the liver. |
| What is the average weight of an adult kidney? | About 5.4 oz (150 g). |
| What is the typical length of an adult kidney? | 4 to 5 inches (10 to 12 cm). |
| What is the orientation angle of the kidneys in a supine individual? | About 20° with the midsagittal plane. |
| What causes the backward rotation of the kidneys? | The large psoas major muscles on either side of the vertebral column. |
| What is the significance of the adipose capsule surrounding the kidneys? | It allows for radiographic visualization of the kidneys on abdominal radiographs. |
| What is the function of the urethra? | To connect the bladder to the exterior for urine elimination. |
| What is the anatomical position of the ureters relative to the kidneys? | Most of each ureter lies anterior to its respective kidney. |
| What structures are typically visible in a CT axial section of the kidneys? | Pancreas, gallbladder, liver, kidneys, diaphragm, erector spinae muscles, and abdominal aorta. |
| What is the relationship between the kidneys and the peritoneum? | The kidneys and ureters are retroperitoneal; the bladder and urethra are infraperitoneal. |
| What is the procedure for venipuncture? | Involves selecting a vein, preparing the site, and inserting a needle to draw blood. |
| What are the common veins used for venipuncture? | Median cubital vein, cephalic vein, and basilic vein. |
| What is the purpose of patient preparation for venipuncture? | To ensure comfort and reduce anxiety, and to minimize complications. |
| What should be done before administering contrast agents? | Patient preparation and assessment of allergies to contrast media. |
| What is the typical position for performing a nephrogram? | AP projection in a supine position. |
| What is the purpose of excretory urography? | To visualize the urinary system and assess kidney function. |
| What is retrograde urography? | A procedure that involves injecting contrast media into the urinary tract via the urethra. |
| What is voiding cystourethrography? | A radiographic procedure to visualize the bladder and urethra during urination. |
| What is nephrogram? | A radiographic image of the kidney after contrast media administration. |
| What are common reactions to contrast media? | Allergic reactions, nausea, and renal impairment. |
| What is the significance of the renal pelvis? | It is the area where urine collects before entering the ureter. |
| What is the anatomical relationship of the kidneys to the abdominal aorta? | The aorta runs anterior to the kidneys. |
| Where are the kidneys located in the abdominal cavity? | The kidneys lie slightly higher in the abdominal cavity, about halfway between the xiphoid process and the iliac crest. |
| Which kidney is typically positioned higher? | The left kidney is normally about 1 cm more superior than the right kidney. |
| At what vertebral level is the top of the left kidney located? | The top of the left kidney is usually at the level of the T11-T12 interspace. |
| At what vertebral level is the bottom of the right kidney located? | The bottom of the right kidney is most often level with the superior endplate of L3. |
| What is nephroptosis? | Nephroptosis is a condition where the kidneys drop farther than normal, potentially ending up within the pelvis. |
| What is the primary function of the urinary system? | The primary function of the urinary system is the production of urine and its elimination from the body. |
| What are the main functions of the kidneys during urine production? | The kidneys remove nitrogenous wastes, regulate water levels, and maintain acid-base balance and electrolyte levels in the blood. |
| What condition results from the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood? | Uremia, which may indicate renal dysfunction. |
| What percentage of blood pumped from the heart passes through the kidneys at rest? | About 25% of the blood pumped from the heart passes through the kidneys. |
| How much blood flows through the kidneys every 60 seconds? | More than 1 L of blood flows through the kidneys every 60 seconds. |
| How much filtrate is removed from the blood by the kidneys every 24 hours? | About 180 L of filtrate is removed from the blood every 24 hours. |
| What percentage of the filtrate volume is reabsorbed by the kidneys? | More than 99% of the filtrate volume is reabsorbed by the kidneys. |
| What is the average urine output for humans in a 24-hour period? | Approximately 1.5 L (1500 mL) of urine is formed. |
| What are the main structural components of the kidney? | The outer covering is the renal capsule, with the cortex and medulla underneath. |
| What is the renal hilum? | The hilum is a centrally located fissure that transmits the renal artery, renal vein, lymphatics, nerves, and ureter. |
| What is the structural and functional unit of the kidney? | The nephron. |
| How many nephrons are typically found in each kidney? | Approximately 1 million nephrons exist within each kidney. |
| What is the role of glomeruli in the kidneys? | Glomeruli are tiny capillary tufts where blood is initially filtered. |
| What is the function of the Bowman capsule? | The Bowman capsule surrounds each glomerulus and collects the filtrate. |
| What is the pathway of filtrate from the glomerular capsule to the minor calyx? | Filtrate travels from the glomerular capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and then to the collecting tubule before reaching the minor calyx. |
| What are renal pyramids? | Renal pyramids are conical masses located in the medulla of the kidney, primarily composed of tubules. |
| What do major calyces unite to form? | Major calyces unite to form the renal pelvis. |
| What is the renal parenchyma? | The renal parenchyma refers to the total functional portions of the kidneys. |
| What happens to the kidneys during deep inhalation? | The kidneys normally drop about 1 inch (2.5 cm) during deep inhalation. |
| What happens to the kidneys when a person stands upright? | The kidneys normally drop about one lumbar vertebra, or 2 inches (5 cm), when standing upright. |
| What is the renal capsule? | The renal capsule is the outer covering of the kidney. |
| What is the average water intake for humans in a 24-hour period? | Approximately 2.5 L (2500 mL) of water. |
| What are the two types of arterioles associated with glomeruli? | Afferent arterioles supply blood to the glomeruli, while efferent arterioles take blood away. |
| What is the role of the ureters? | The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. |
| What is the primary function of the ureters? | To transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. |
| How do urine and gravity assist in the movement through the ureters? | Slow peristaltic waves and gravity force urine down the ureters into the bladder. |
| What is the average length of the ureters? | About 11 to 13 inches (28 to 34 cm). |
| Where do the ureters enter the urinary bladder? | In the posterolateral portion of each side of the bladder. |
| What are the three constricted points along each ureter? | 1. Ureteropelvic junction (UP), 2. Near the brim of the pelvis, 3. Ureterovesical junction (UV). |
| What is the function of the urinary bladder? | To serve as a reservoir for urine. |
| What shape does the bladder assume when it is empty? | Somewhat flattened. |
| What is the trigone of the bladder? | The triangular muscular area formed by the entrance of the two ureters and the exit site of the urethra. |
| What is the role of the prostate gland in males? | It produces a fluid that improves the motility of sperm during reproduction. |
| What is the capacity range of the urinary bladder? | 350 to 500 mL. |
| What triggers the desire to void urine? | When the amount of urine in the bladder reaches about 250 mL. |
| What are the two types of urethral sphincters in the bladder? | Internal urethral sphincter (IUS) and external urethral sphincter (EUS). |
| What happens if the internal bladder pressure rises too high? | Involuntary urination occurs. |
| What is urinary incontinence? | Involuntary urination due to weakening or damage to the external urethral sphincter. |
| How does the position of the bladder change during pregnancy? | The fetus exerts downward pressure on the bladder. |
| What is the length of the female urethra? | About 1½ inches (4 cm) long. |
| What is the primary function of the female urethra? | To pass urine to the exterior. |
| What are the components of the female reproductive organs? | Paired ovaries, uterine tubes, and vagina. |
| What distinguishes retroperitoneal organs from infraperitoneal organs? | Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneal cavity, while infraperitoneal organs are located inferior to it. |
| What is the average length of the male urethra? | 6½ to 7½ inches (17.5 to 20 cm). |
| What dual functions does the male urethra serve? | To eliminate urine stored in the bladder and to serve as a passageway for semen. |
| What anatomical relationship exists between the urethra and vagina in females? | The urethra is embedded in the anterior wall of the vagina. |
| What happens to the bladder's position when the rectum contains fecal matter? | The bladder is pushed upward and forward. |
| What is the significance of the three external openings in females? | The anal opening is most posterior, the urethral opening is most anterior, and the vaginal opening is in between. |
| What is the role of rugae in the bladder? | They are folds in the inner mucosa of the bladder that allow for expansion as it fills. |
| What is the relationship between the kidneys and ureters? | Both are retroperitoneal organs located posterior to the peritoneal cavity. |
| What is cystography? | The radiographic study of the bladder. |
| What is the definition of venipuncture? | Venipuncture is the percutaneous puncture of a vein for withdrawal of blood or injection of a solution. |
| What are the common veins used for venipuncture in IV urograms? | The median cubital, cephalic, and basilic veins. |
| What is a bolus injection? | A bolus injection is when the entire volume of contrast medium is injected into the venous system at one time. |
| What is drip infusion? | Drip infusion is a method where contrast medium is introduced into the venous system via tubing attached to the IV site. |
| What type of contrast medium is commonly used for radiographic examinations of the urinary system? | Water-soluble, iodinated contrast medium. |
| What must be confirmed before administering contrast medium? | The correct contents of the container, route of administration, amount to be administered, and expiration date. |
| What are the potential risks associated with venipuncture? | Complications such as adverse reactions to the contrast medium. |
| What is the purpose of an informed consent form in venipuncture? | To ensure the patient is fully aware of the potential risks before the procedure. |
| What should be assessed regarding a patient's mental and emotional status before venipuncture? | The patient's comfort level, especially if syncope is a concern. |
| What are the signs of a suitable vein for injection? | The vein should not be pulsatile, hardened, tortuous, or overused. |
| What gauge needle is generally used for bolus injections of 50 to 100 mL of contrast medium in adults? | An 18- to 22-gauge needle. |
| What is the purpose of using a tourniquet during venipuncture? | To engorge the vein and make it easier to locate and puncture. |
| What supplies are needed for performing venipuncture? | Sharps container, tourniquets, alcohol wipes, catheters, syringes, IV tubing, gauze, tape, gloves, and contrast medium. |
| What is the role of a power injector in bolus injection? | To control the rate of bolus injection of the contrast medium. |
| What is the significance of the retrograde pyelogram? | It is a procedure where contrast medium is injected retrograde through the urethra, bladder, and ureter to visualize the renal pelvis. |
| What structures are identified in a voiding cystourethrogram? | Distal ureters, urinary bladder, trigone area of bladder, prostate gland, and urethra. |
| What is the function of the peritoneal cavity in relation to the urinary system? | It houses the urinary bladder and other pelvic organs. |
| What anatomical structures are visible in a CT axial section of the abdomen? | Liver, gallbladder, small intestine, spleen, kidneys, abdominal aorta, and psoas muscle. |
| What is the purpose of using a sharps container? | To safely dispose of needles and other sharp instruments used during venipuncture. |
| What is vesicoureteral reflux? | A condition where urine flows backward from the bladder into the ureters. |
| What is the role of the guardian during a child's venipuncture? | To help keep the child calm and immobilize the limb if necessary. |
| What should a technologist do if the antecubital fossa veins are damaged or inaccessible? | Investigate other common IV access sites such as the cephalic vein of the lateral wrist. |
| What is the importance of ensuring the vessel is a vein and not an artery? | To avoid complications associated with injecting into an artery, which can be pulsatile and deeper. |
| What is the purpose of using gloves during venipuncture? | To maintain hygiene and prevent contamination during the procedure. |
| What type of needle do some technologists prefer for greater control during venipuncture? | The butterfly needle. |
| What is the recommended needle size for pediatric patients? | A smaller 23- to 25-gauge needle. |
| What is the first step in the venipuncture procedure? | Wash hands and put on gloves. |
| How should the selected injection site be cleansed? | With an alcohol (70% isopropyl) wipe in a circular motion from the center outward for a minimum of 30 seconds. |
| What angle should the needle be inserted into the vein? | Between 20° and 45°. |
| What should be done if extravasation occurs during venipuncture? | Withdraw the needle or catheter, apply light pressure on the site, and follow department policy. |
| What is the purpose of applying a tourniquet during venipuncture? | To dilate the veins for easier access. |
| What should be done after inserting the needle and obtaining venous access? | Secure access by taping the needle in place and observe for blood flashback. |
| What is the recommended action if the initial puncture is unsuccessful? | Use a new butterfly or over-the-needle catheter for the second attempt. |
| What should be documented in the patient's chart after the venipuncture procedure? | Starting time of injection, type and amount of contrast medium injected, and patient's tolerance to procedure. |
| What should be done if the patient is on blood thinning medication after venipuncture? | Expect that it will take longer to stop the bleeding. |
| What should be done to the affected extremity if extravasation of contrast medium occurs? | Elevate the extremity and provide a cold compress for approximately 20 minutes, followed by a warm compress. |
| What is the purpose of using a cold compress after extravasation? | To cause vasoconstriction and minimize bleeding and damage to tissues. |
| What should be done if no blood is seen in the tubing after inserting a butterfly needle? | Make slight adjustments to the needle position until blood flashback is seen. |
| What safety precautions should be followed during the venipuncture procedure? | Wear nonsterile gloves, follow OSHA Standard Precautions, and dispose of materials properly. |
| What is the maximum depth a needle may vary for venipuncture? | Between 1 and 1/2 inches (2.5 to 3.75 cm). |
| What should be done to secure the catheter after insertion? | Tape the catheter in place and attach IV tubing or a PRN adaptor. |
| What is the purpose of flushing the IV catheter with saline before attaching the contrast medium? | To test the stability of the vein. |
| What should be done immediately after removing the IV catheter? | Press firmly over the injection site with gauze or a cotton ball until bleeding stops. |
| What is the recommended action if the same vein is used for subsequent attempts? | Subsequent attempts must occur proximal to the site of the initial attempt. |
| What should be done if the patient has a latex allergy? | Avoid using latex gloves during the procedure. |
| What is the importance of maintaining IV access until the imaging procedure is completed? | In case treatment for an adverse contrast reaction becomes necessary. |
| What is the recommended method for cleaning the venipuncture site? | Using a circular motion from the center outward for a minimum of 30 seconds. |
| What should be done if the needle goes through both walls of the vein? | Care should be taken to avoid this; if it happens, withdraw and attempt again. |
| What is the purpose of checking for the radial artery pulse when applying a tourniquet? | To ensure the tourniquet is tight enough to compress veins but still allows blood flow. |
| What is intravenous urography (IVU)? | A radiographic procedure in which contrast medium is injected intravenously to visualize the urinary system. |
| What is the purpose of using contrast medium in urography? | To enhance the visibility of the internal, fluid-filled portions of the urinary system. |
| What element is primarily used in iodinated contrast media for urography? | Iodine |
| What is the structure of iodinated contrast agents derived from? | A six-sided benzene model containing three iodine atoms, known as tri-iodinated contrast agents. |
| What are the two types of iodinated contrast agents? | Monomer and dimer. |
| What characterizes ionic iodinated contrast agents? | They contain a positively charged cation, usually a salt, that increases solubility. |
| What is a common side effect of high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)? | Vein spasm, pain at the injection site, and fluid retention. |
| What theory explains the adverse reactions to contrast media? | The chemotoxic theory, which states that any disruption to homeostasis may lead to an adverse reaction. |
| What are nonionic contrast agents? | Contrast agents that do not contain positively charged cations and remain intact when injected. |
| What is the difference between high-osmolar and low-osmolar contrast media? | High-osmolar contrast media (HOCM) significantly increases plasma osmolality, while low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM) does not. |
| What is the recommended contrast agent for intravenous injections today? | Low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM). |
| What are common side effects after an IV injection of iodinated contrast medium? | Temporary hot flash and metallic taste in the mouth. |
| What should be checked in a patient's history before administering contrast media? | Allergies, previous reactions to contrast media, and current medications. |
| What laboratory tests should be conducted before a urinary system study? | Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and/or estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). |
| What does an elevated creatinine or BUN level indicate? | Possible acute or chronic renal failure or other urinary system conditions. |
| What is the normal range for creatinine levels in adults? | 0.6 to 1.5 mg/dL. |
| What is the normal BUN level range? | 8 to 25 mg/100 mL. |
| What is the normal eGFR for adults? | 60 mL/min or greater. |
| What is Metformin used for? | Management of non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. |
| When can patients taking Metformin receive iodinated contrast media? | Only if their kidney function levels are within normal limits. |
| What is the effect of ionic contrast agents on blood plasma osmolality? | They create a hypertonic condition by increasing the number of dissolved particles. |
| What is the significance of the tri-iodinated structure in contrast media? | It allows for better visualization of the urinary system due to increased attenuation. |
| What happens to the cation in ionic contrast agents once injected? | It disassociates from the parent compound, creating two separate particles in the blood. |
| What is the main advantage of using low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM)? | Patients are less likely to experience adverse reactions compared to high-osmolar contrast media. |
| What is the role of the anion in ionic contrast agents? | It helps stabilize the contrast medium. |
| What is the primary concern with high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)? | Increased probability of contrast medium reactions due to elevated osmolality. |
| What type of contrast media was common in the 1950s? | High-osmolar contrast media (HOCM). |
| What is the benefit of using dimer agents in contrast media? | They have twice the iodine concentration and remain nearly isotonic. |
| What is the risk associated with combining iodinated contrast medium and metformin? | Increased risk for contrast medium-induced acute renal failure and/or lactic acidosis. |
| What is the recommendation for patients with eGFR of 30 mL or greater regarding metformin? | There is no need to discontinue metformin use before or following injection. |
| What should be done if a patient has an AKI or eGFR below 30 mL? | Metformin should be withheld before injection and for 48 hours after the injection. |
| What should a technologist do before injecting contrast agents? | Review the patient's chart and ask if the patient is taking metformin. |
| What are some trade names of medications that contain metformin? | Glucophage, Glucophage XR, Fortamet, Glumetza, Riomet. |
| What is essential to have available during an IV injection of contrast medium? | A fully stocked emergency response cart. |
| What common emergency drug should be available during contrast medium procedures? | Epinephrine. |
| What is the purpose of premedication before iodinated contrast medium procedures? | To reduce the severity of contrast medium reactions. |
| What are the two categories of contrast medium reactions? | Local and systemic reactions. |
| What is extravasation in the context of contrast medium injection? | Leakage of iodinated contrast medium outside the vessel and into surrounding soft tissues. |
| What are the signs of phlebitis? | Pain, redness, and possibly swelling surrounding the venous access site. |
| What are the three general categories of systemic reactions to contrast media? | Mild, moderate, and severe reactions. |
| What symptoms characterize a mild reaction to contrast media? | Anxiety, lightheadedness, nausea, vomiting, metallic taste, mild erythema, warm sensation, itching, and mild hives. |
| What symptoms indicate a moderate reaction to contrast media? | Urticaria, possible laryngeal swelling, facial edema, bronchospasm, angioedema, hypotension, tachycardia, or bradycardia. |
| What should be done if a patient experiences a mild reaction? | Reassure the patient, provide a cool washcloth, and continue to observe. |
| What is the recommended action for a moderate reaction? | Provide medical assistance immediately. |
| What should be documented in the patient's chart regarding contrast medium reactions? | All symptoms experienced by the patient. |
| What is the purpose of maintaining sterility when drawing contrast medium into a syringe? | To prevent contamination of the medium, syringe, and needle. |
| What should be done with the empty contrast container after use? | Keep it in the examination room until the procedure is complete. |
| What is the common protocol for treating extravasation? | Notify the nurse/physician, elevate the extremity, and apply cold followed by warm compresses. |
| What is the potential consequence of extravasation of high-osmolality contrast agents? | Toxicity to surrounding tissues, leading to inflammation and possible necrosis. |
| What should be done if signs of phlebitis are noted? | Discontinue venous access at the site and locate an alternative site. |
| What is the importance of verifying the status of emergency equipment before a contrast medium procedure? | To ensure readiness in case of a reaction. |
| What are some common premedication medications used before contrast procedures? | Antihistamines and prednisone. |
| Who should be notified if a patient has a history of allergies before a contrast procedure? | The attending nurse and/or physician. |
| What is the significance of documenting the lot number of the contrast container? | It may be required as part of the patient file. |
| What is facial edema without dyspnea a symptom of? | It can be a symptom of an allergic reaction to contrast medium. |
| What is bronchospasm? | A contraction of the bronchial muscles that can lead to difficulty breathing. |
| Define angioedema. | Swelling of the deeper layers of the skin, often caused by an allergic reaction. |
| What are the vital signs indicating tachycardia? | A heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. |
| What are the vital signs indicating bradycardia? | A heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. |
| What is a severe reaction to contrast medium? | A life-threatening condition that may include symptoms like hypotension and tachycardia. |
| What triggers a vasovagal reaction during contrast medium administration? | The introduction of iodinated contrast agents stimulating the vagus nerve. |
| What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock? | Hypotension and tachycardia. |
| What is laryngeal edema? | Swelling of the larynx that can lead to stridor and/or hypoxia. |
| What is the first step in managing a severe reaction to contrast medium? | Call for medical assistance immediately. |
| What are the symptoms of a mild reaction to contrast medium? | Anxiety, lightheadedness, warm sensation, metallic taste, nausea, vomiting, mild urticaria. |
| What are the symptoms of a moderate reaction to contrast medium? | Moderate to severe urticaria, laryngeal swelling, hypotension, tachycardia, bradycardia. |
| What is the purpose of an Excretory Urography (IVU)? | To visualize the collecting portion of the urinary system and assess kidney function. |
| What are the contraindications for IVU? | Hypersensitivity to iodinated contrast media, anuria, multiple myeloma, diabetes, severe hepatic or renal disease. |
| What is the significance of hydration therapy before IVU? | It may reduce the risk of adverse reactions in high-risk patients. |
| What is the recommended action if a patient has a history of multiple myeloma before undergoing IVU? | Consider hydration therapy and possible premedication. |
| What are the potential complications of a severe reaction to contrast medium? | Cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest, renal failure, and seizures. |
| What should be documented after a contrast medium injection? | All reactions experienced by the patient. |
| What should be done if a patient shows signs of pulmonary edema? | Notify the physician immediately. |
| What is the role of the technologist during a contrast medium reaction? | To monitor the patient and document all reactions. |
| What is anuria? | The absence of urine excretion. |
| What is the risk associated with patients taking Metformin during IVU? | Increased risk of renal complications. |
| What is the purpose of IVU in assessing kidney function? | To evaluate the kidneys' ability to excrete contrast medium. |
| What is the significance of documenting vital signs during a contrast medium reaction? | To monitor the patient's condition and respond appropriately. |
| What is the recommended follow-up for outpatients after contrast medium administration? | They should be instructed to report any unusual symptoms or difficulty in producing urine. |
| What are the symptoms of a severe reaction to contrast medium? | Hypotension, bradycardia, no detectable pulse, laryngeal swelling, convulsions. |
| What is the role of epinephrine in severe contrast reactions? | It is an emergency drug used to treat severe allergic reactions. |
| What is acute kidney injury (AKI)? | Formerly known as acute renal failure (ARF); it is sudden kidney failure. |
| What causes angioedema? | It is caused by an allergic reaction to food or drugs, resulting in subcutaneous swelling. |
| What does anuria refer to? | Complete cessation of urinary secretion by the kidneys, also known as anuresis. |
| What is bacteriuria? | The presence of bacteria in the urine. |
| Define bradycardia. | Slowness of heartbeat, usually less than 60 beats per minute. |
| What is the function of a diuretic? | An agent that increases the excretion of urine. |
| What does fecaluria indicate? | The presence of fecal matter in the urine. |
| What is glucosuria? | The presence of glucose in the urine. |
| What does hematuria mean? | Blood in the urine. |
| Define hypotension. | Below normal arterial blood pressure. |
| What is laryngospasm? | Closure of the glottic aperture within the glottic opening of the larynx. |
| What is Lasix? | A brand name for a diuretic. |
| What is lithotripsy? | A therapeutic technique that uses acoustic waves to shatter large kidney stones into smaller particles. |
| What does micturition refer to? | The act of voiding or urination. |
| Define oliguria. | Excretion of a diminished amount of urine, usually defined as less than 400 mL/24 hr. |
| What does pneumouria indicate? | The presence of gas in the urine, usually due to a fistula between the bladder and the intestine. |
| What is polyuria? | Passage of a large volume of urine in relation to fluid intake, commonly a symptom of diabetes. |
| What does proteinuria mean? | The presence of excessive serum protein levels in the urine; also termed albuminuria. |
| What is renal agenesis? | Absence of formation of a kidney. |
| Define renal failure. | The inability of a kidney to excrete metabolites at normal plasma levels or retain electrolytes under normal intake. |
| What does urinary reflux refer to? | Backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. |
| What is a urinary tract infection (UTI)? | An infection caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, commonly due to vesicoureteral reflux. |
| What does urticaria refer to? | An eruption of wheals (hives) often caused by hypersensitivity to food or drugs. |
| What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? | An enlargement of the prostate that may cause urethral compression and obstruction. |
| What are bladder calculi? | Stones that form in the urinary bladder, which can be radiolucent or radiopaque. |
| What is bladder carcinoma? | A tumor in the bladder that is more common in males, usually diagnosed after age 50. |
| What does ectopic kidney mean? | A normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen and remains in the pelvis. |
| What is the condition characterized by a shorter than normal ureter? | Ectopic kidney |
| What imaging technique confirms the location of an ectopic kidney? | Intravenous Urogram (IVU) |
| What is horseshoe kidney? | A condition where the kidneys fuse during fetal development, usually at the lower poles. |
| What is the typical location of horseshoe kidneys? | Lower abdomen-upper pelvis |
| What is malrotation of the kidney? | An abnormal rotation of the kidney where the renal pelvis is turned from a medial to anterior or posterior direction. |
| What condition describes inflammation of the urinary bladder? | Cystitis |
| Why is cystitis more common in females? | Due to the shorter urethra, which allows easier bacterial entry into the bladder. |
| What imaging technique is used for BPH? | IVU - erect postvoid or recumbent bladder, cystography |
| What is glomerulonephritis? | An inflammation of the capillary loops of the glomeruli of the kidneys. |
| What are the forms of glomerulonephritis? | Acute, subacute, and chronic. |
| What imaging modality is preferred for acute glomerulonephritis? | Diagnostic Medical Sonography (DMS) |
| What is hydronephrosis? | Distention of the renal pelvis and calyces due to obstruction of the ureters or renal pelvis. |
| What is polycystic kidney disease? | A disorder marked by cysts throughout one or both kidneys, leading to enlargement. |
| What are the three major types of polycystic kidney disease? | Infantile, childhood, and adult. |
| What is the most common malignancy in males over 50? | Prostate carcinoma |
| What is pyelonephritis? | An inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis caused by pyogenic bacteria. |
| What imaging sign is associated with chronic pyelonephritis? | Patchy and blunted or rounded calyces. |
| What are renal calculi? | Calcifications that occur in the urinary tract, often leading to obstruction. |
| What is a staghorn calculus? | A large stone that fills the renal pelvis completely, blocking urine flow. |
| What is renal cell carcinoma? | The most frequent type of malignant tumor of the kidney, often presenting with flank pain and hematuria. |
| What causes renal hypertension? | Increased blood pressure to the kidney due to atherosclerosis. |
| What can renal obstruction lead to? | Renal damage and functional injury. |
| What imaging sign indicates acute renal obstruction? | Reduced perfusion of contrast medium through the kidney. |
| What are the symptoms of adult polycystic kidney disease? | Renal hypertension, proteinuria, and signs of chronic renal failure. |
| What is the role of nuclear medicine in kidney conditions? | To demonstrate functional changes within the nephron caused by infection or blood flow restriction. |
| What is the purpose of delayed films in IVU? | To assess the collecting system after contrast injection. |
| What condition may show enlargement and hydronephrosis during IVU? | Chronic or partial obstruction. |
| What is a vesicorectal fistula? | An artificial opening between the urinary bladder and rectum or colon. |
| What is the most common cause of vesicorectal fistulas? | Diverticulosis, accounting for approximately 60% of cases. |
| What symptoms are associated with a fistula? | Pneumaturia and fecaluria. |
| Which imaging technique is recommended to visualize a fistula? | CT (Computed Tomography). |
| What is ureteric compression used for in IVU? | To enhance filling of the pelvicalyceal system and proximal ureters. |
| What is the contraindication for ureteric compression? | Possible ureteric stones, abdominal mass, abdominal aortic aneurysm, recent abdominal surgery, severe abdominal pain, and acute abdominal trauma. |
| What is the recommended patient preparation for IVU? | Light evening meal, bowel-cleansing laxative, NPO after midnight, and enema on the morning of the examination. |
| Why should the patient void before an IVU examination? | To prevent bladder rupture and to avoid diluting the contrast medium. |
| What imaging modality is preferred for kidney disease in pregnant patients? | Diagnostic medical sonography. |
| What should be done if an IVU is necessary for a pregnant patient? | Consult with the radiologist to possibly reduce the number of radiographs taken. |
| What is the Trendelenburg position? | A position where the head end of the table is lowered about 15 inches, used as an alternative to ureteric compression. |
| What is the purpose of the scout image in IVU? | To verify patient preparation, exposure factors, positioning, and detect abnormal calcifications. |
| What should be noted during the injection of contrast medium? | The exact start time and duration of the injection. |
| When do most reactions to contrast medium occur? | Within the first 5 minutes following injection. |
| What is the typical duration for the injection of contrast medium? | 30 to 60 seconds. |
| What is the basic imaging routine for IVU? | A series of radiographs taken at specific time intervals after contrast injection. |
| What items should be prepared before a patient is escorted to the radiography room? | Sharps container, emesis basin, lead markers, emergency cart, and oxygen/suction devices. |
| What is the role of the ureteric compression device? | To maintain contrast medium in the renal collecting system longer for a more complete study. |
| What should be done if a patient has a urinary catheter during IVU? | The catheter should be clamped before injection. |
| What is the significance of marking each image with a lead number? | To indicate the time interval when the radiograph was taken. |
| What are the potential risks of performing an IVU on a pregnant patient? | Irradiation of early pregnancy can be hazardous. |
| What is the purpose of using a higher kV with lower mAs exposure factors? | To reduce patient exposure during imaging. |
| What should be done if a patient is experiencing severe abdominal pain before an IVU? | Ureteric compression should be contraindicated. |
| What is the purpose of the barium enema in relation to IVU? | To ensure the intestinal tract is free of gas and fecal material before examinations. |
| What is the role of the inflatable paddles in ureteric compression? | To exert pressure on the ureters to enhance contrast retention. |
| What is the importance of patient history before IVU? | To inform the radiologist and ensure safe and effective imaging. |
| What is a nephrogram? | A radiograph taken immediately after the injection of contrast medium to capture early stages of entry into the collecting system. |
| What is the preferred position for a 5-minute KUB image? | Supine position (anteroposterior [AP]). |
| What is the purpose of a postvoid radiograph? | To capture images after the patient has voided, typically in prone or erect positions. |
| What is the typical timing for a nephrogram? | Usually obtained at 1 minute after the start of contrast injection. |
| What is ureteric compression used for? | To prolong the nephron phase and enhance imaging of the kidneys. |
| What is the purpose of retrograde urography? | To determine the location of urinary calculi or obstructions in the urinary system. |
| What position is commonly used for retrograde urethrography? | 30° right posterior oblique position. |
| What is the procedure for retrograde cystography? | Instillation of iodinated contrast medium via a urethral catheter to evaluate the urinary bladder. |
| What is voiding cystourethrography (VCU)? | A functional study of the bladder and urethra that evaluates the patient's ability to urinate. |
| What are common clinical indications for a VCU examination? | Trauma, posterior urethral valves, and incontinence. |
| What is the significance of the nephrogram phase? | It shows the dispersion of contrast medium throughout the renal parenchyma before it enters the collecting tubules. |
| What is the recommended volume of contrast medium for bladder filling in cystography? | 150 to 500 mL. |
| What is the purpose of the postrelease or 'spill' procedure? | To assess renal function and obtain a full-size radiograph after ureteric compression is released. |
| What is the role of the Brodney clamp in retrograde urethrography? | To facilitate the injection of contrast material into the distal urethra. |
| What is the typical patient position for a voiding phase examination? | Upright position is preferred for easier voiding. |
| What is the importance of timing in nephrography? | Timing is critical; exposure must be made exactly 60 seconds after the start of the injection. |
| What is the purpose of a scout radiograph? | To assess the initial state of the urinary system before contrast injection. |
| What should be done before catheterization for retrograde cystography? | The patient should empty the bladder of any residual urine. |
| What are the clinical indications for performing retrograde urethrography? | To demonstrate the full length of the urethra in male patients. |
| What is the typical imaging routine for an IVU? | Includes 1-minute nephrogram, 5-minute AP supine, 10- to 15-minute AP supine, 20-minute posterior obliques, and postvoid images. |
| What is the significance of using fluoroscopy in voiding cystourethrography? | It allows for real-time imaging of the urethra during the voiding process. |
| What is the main difference between retrograde urography and IVU? | Retrograde urography is a nonfunctional examination, while IVU involves the patient's normal physiological processes. |
| What is the purpose of using a 15° caudad angle in cystography? | To optimize the imaging of the bladder and surrounding structures. |
| What is the role of the radiologist during cystography? | To take fluoroscopic spot radiographs or oversee the imaging process. |
| What should be monitored carefully in pediatric patients undergoing IVU? | Fluid intake and the presence of iodinated contrast media. |
| What is the main focus of nephrography? | To visualize the kidneys and assess their function. |
| What is the typical imaging position for a postvoid radiograph? | Prone or upright position. |
| What is the purpose of the 20-minute oblique images in KUB imaging? | To provide a different perspective of the kidneys and project the ureters away from the spine. |
| What is the significance of the collecting system in nephrograms? | It is where the contrast medium enters after dispersing through the nephrons. |
| What is the typical patient preparation for retrograde cystography? | No specific preparation is required, but the bladder should be emptied before catheterization. |
| What is the purpose of capturing images at different time intervals during IVU? | To assess the progression of contrast medium through the urinary system. |
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