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lower extremity
bontrager
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the three groups of bones in the foot? | Phalanges, Metatarsals, Tarsals |
| How many phalanges are found in each foot? | 14 phalanges |
| What is the first digit of the foot commonly known as? | The large toe |
| How many phalanges does the first digit of the foot have? | Two phalanges (proximal and distal) |
| What are the names of the joints between the phalanges of the foot? | Interphalangeal (IP) joints, Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP) joints, Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) joints |
| What is the significance of the base of the fifth metatarsal? | It has a prominent rough tuberosity for tendon attachment and is a common trauma site. |
| What is the central ray (CR) location for foot projections? | The base of the third metatarsal or the third tarsometatarsal joint. |
| What are the two types of joints at the head and base of the metatarsals? | Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints at the head and Tarsometatarsal (TMT) joints at the base. |
| What are sesamoid bones? | Small, detached bones embedded in tendons, often found near joints. |
| Where is the largest sesamoid bone located? | The patella (kneecap). |
| What is the anatomical term for the ankle joint? | Ankle joint (talocrural joint). |
| What are the seven tarsal bones? | Talus, Calcaneus, Navicular, Cuboid, and three cuneiforms. |
| What is the articulation between the calcaneus and talus called? | Subtalar (talocalcaneal) joint. |
| What is the primary imaging consideration for the fifth metatarsal? | The proximal portion and tuberosity must be well visualized on radiographs. |
| What is the typical number of metatarsals in one foot? | Five metatarsals. |
| What is the function of the metatarsals? | They form the instep of the foot and provide support for weight-bearing. |
| What is the term for the joint between the proximal phalanx and the metatarsal? | Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. |
| What distinguishes the phalanges of the foot from those of the hand? | The phalanges of the foot are smaller and have more limited movement. |
| How are the digits of the foot numbered? | From 1 to 5, starting from the medial (big toe) side. |
| What is the anatomical position of the first digit's distal phalanx? | It is located at the tip of the large toe. |
| What are the common projections for foot radiography? | AP Projection, AP Oblique Projection, Lateral Projections. |
| What is the importance of identifying specific digits in foot anatomy? | It helps in accurately describing injuries or fractures. |
| What is the typical number of joints in digits 2 through 5? | Each has two joints: PIP and DIP. |
| What is the role of the sesamoid bones in the foot? | They provide mechanical advantage and reduce friction in tendons. |
| What is the significance of the plantar location of sesamoid bones? | Fractures can be painful and may cause discomfort when weight is placed on the foot. |
| What is the common imaging technique for sesamoid bone fractures? | Special tangential projections may be necessary. |
| What is the anatomical term for the joint between the distal and proximal phalanges of the first digit? | Interphalangeal (IP) joint. |
| What is the total number of bones in one foot? | 26 bones. |
| What are the three specific articular facets of the subtalar joint? | The larger posterior articular facet and the smaller anterior and middle articular facets. |
| What is the function of the sustentaculum tali? | It provides medial support for the weight-bearing joint. |
| What is the calcaneal sulcus? | The deep depression between the posterior and middle articular facets. |
| What does the sinus tarsi refer to? | The opening formed by the calcaneal sulcus and a similar groove of the talus. |
| What is the second largest tarsal bone? | The talus. |
| Which bones does the talus articulate with? | It articulates with the tibia, fibula, calcaneus, and navicular. |
| What is the alternative name for the calcaneus? | Os calcis. |
| What is the common name for the navicular bone? | Scaphoid (though the preferred term for the wrist bone is scaphoid). |
| What are the three cuneiforms named? | Medial (1st), intermediate (2nd), and lateral (3rd) cuneiforms. |
| Where is the cuboid located? | On the lateral aspect of the foot, distal to the calcaneus. |
| What is the primary function of the longitudinal arch of the foot? | To provide shock-absorbing support for the weight of the body. |
| What forms the transverse arch of the foot? | Primarily made up of the wedge-shaped cuneiforms and the cuboid. |
| What bones form the ankle joint? | The tibia, fibula, and talus. |
| What is the lateral malleolus? | The expanded distal end of the fibula that extends alongside the talus. |
| What is the medial malleolus? | The elongated process of the tibia that extends down alongside the medial talus. |
| What is the mortise in relation to the ankle joint? | A deep socket formed by the inferior portions of the tibia and fibula for the talus. |
| What is the anterior tubercle? | An expanded process at the distal anterior and lateral tibia that articulates with the talus. |
| What is the significance of the calcaneus in the foot? | It is the largest and strongest bone of the foot, often referred to as the heel bone. |
| What is the tuberosity of the calcaneus? | The most posterior-inferior part of the calcaneus, a common site for bone spurs. |
| What is the peroneal trochlea? | A ridge of bone on the lateral aspect of the calcaneus, also known as the trochlear process. |
| How many bones does the medial cuneiform articulate with? | It articulates with four bones: navicular, first metatarsal, second metatarsal, and intermediate cuneiform. |
| How many bones does the lateral cuneiform articulate with? | It articulates with six bones: navicular, second, third, and fourth metatarsals, intermediate cuneiform, and cuboid. |
| What is the role of the tarsal bones? | To provide a basis of support for the body in an erect position. |
| What mnemonic can help remember the tarsal bones? | Come to Colorado (the) next 3 Christmases. |
| What is the primary difference between tarsals and carpals? | Tarsals are larger and less mobile, providing support, while carpals are more mobile. |
| What is the function of the Achilles tendon? | It attaches to the tuberosity of the calcaneus, aiding in foot movement. |
| What is the distal tibial joint surface that forms the roof of the ankle mortise joint called? | Tibial plafond |
| In a true lateral view, how is the distal fibula positioned in relation to the distal tibia? | About 1 cm posterior |
| What type of joint is the ankle joint classified as? | A synovial joint of the saddle (sellar) type |
| What movements are allowed by the ankle joint? | Flexion and extension (dorsiflexion and plantar flexion) |
| What is the term for the positioning line that is 15° to 20° from the coronal plane? | Intermalleolar plane |
| What are the two long bones that form the ankle joint? | Tibia and fibula |
| What is the name of the tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula at the ankle joint? | Talus |
| What is the function of the collateral ligaments in the ankle joint? | To provide stability and support to the joint |
| What can result from lateral stress on the ankle joint? | A sprained ankle with stretched or torn collateral ligaments |
| What is the purpose of AP stress views of the ankle? | To evaluate the stability of the mortise joint space |
| What is the anatomical significance of the lateral malleolus? | It extends more distally than the medial malleolus |
| What bones articulate with the cuboid? | Calcaneus, lateral cuneiform, navicular, fourth and fifth metatarsals |
| What is the primary composition of the transverse arch? | Wedge-shaped cuneiforms and the cuboid |
| What is the expanded distal end of the fibula called? | Lateral malleolus |
| What is the broad articular surface of the tibia that articulates with the talus called? | Tibial plafond |
| What is the socket formed by the inferior portions of the tibia and fibula called? | Mortise |
| What is the role of the anterior tubercle of the tibia? | To articulate with the superolateral talus |
| What is the anatomical position of the medial malleolus? | It extends down alongside the medial talus |
| What is the relationship between the distal tibia and fibula in terms of their positioning? | The fibula is located posterior to the tibia |
| What type of fractures in children and youth involve the tibial plafond? | Certain types of ankle fractures |
| What is the main purpose of the ankle mortise? | To provide a stable socket for the talus |
| What is the significance of the 15° to 20° rotation of the lower leg and ankle? | To align the intermalleolar plane parallel to the coronal plane |
| What can be observed in a true lateral radiograph of the ankle? | The correct positioning of the lateral malleolus relative to the medial malleolus |
| What are the three common projections of the foot and ankle? | Lateral, oblique, and AP mortise views |
| What is the anatomical significance of the navicular bone? | It articulates with several tarsals including the talus and cuneiforms |
| What is the primary role of the arches of the foot? | To provide structural support and distribute weight |
| What is a common mistake when positioning a lateral ankle? | Rotating the ankle so that the medial and lateral malleoli are directly superimposed, resulting in a partially oblique ankle. |
| How should the lateral malleolus be positioned in a true lateral view? | The lateral malleolus should be about 1 cm posterior to the medial malleolus. |
| What is the relationship between the lateral and medial malleoli in terms of their distal positioning? | The lateral malleolus extends about 1 cm more distal than the medial malleolus. |
| What does the axial view of the ankle joint visualize? | An 'end-on' view of the ankle joint, showing the concave inferior surface of the tibia (tibial plafond) and the positions of the malleoli. |
| What is the intermalleolar plane? | A horizontal plane drawn through the midportions of the two malleoli, approximately 15° to 20° from the coronal plane. |
| What type of joint is the ankle joint? | A synovial joint of the saddle (sellar) type, allowing flexion and extension (dorsiflexion and plantar flexion) movements. |
| What are the collateral ligaments of the ankle joint? | Strong ligaments that extend from the medial and lateral malleoli to the calcaneus and talus. |
| What can lateral stress on the ankle joint cause? | A 'sprained' ankle with stretched or torn collateral ligaments and torn muscle tendons. |
| What is the significance of AP stress views of the ankle? | They evaluate the stability of the mortise joint space. |
| What are the three parts of the tibia? | The central body (shaft) and two extremities (proximal and distal). |
| What are the major processes of the proximal tibia? | The medial and lateral condyles. |
| What is the tibial plateau? | The upper articular surface of the condyles that includes two smooth concave articular facets. |
| What is the angle of the tibial plateau in relation to the long axis of the tibia? | The articular facets slope posteriorly from 10° to 20°. |
| What is Osgood-Schlatter disease? | A condition where the tibial tuberosity separates from the body of the tibia, often seen in young persons. |
| What is the anterior crest of the tibia? | A sharp ridge along the anterior surface of the body extending from the tibial tuberosity to the medial malleolus. |
| Where does the fibula articulate? | With the tibia proximally and the tibia and talus distally. |
| What is the head of the fibula? | The expanded proximal extremity of the fibula that articulates with the lateral aspect of the lateral condyle of the tibia. |
| What is the neck of the fibula? | The tapered area just below the head of the fibula. |
| What is the importance of the tibial tuberosity? | It is the distal attachment of the patellar tendon, connecting to the large muscle of the anterior thigh. |
| What anatomical feature is referred to as the 'shin bone'? | The anterior crest of the tibia. |
| What anatomical structures are involved in the ankle joint? | The tibia, fibula, calcaneus, and talus. |
| What is the significance of the tibial epiphyseal plate? | It is the site of epiphyseal fusion in the tibia. |
| What is the role of the tibial plafond? | It forms the concave inferior surface of the tibia that articulates with the talus. |
| What is the function of the patella? | To protect the anterior aspect of the knee joint and increase leverage of the quadriceps muscle. |
| What is the anatomical position of the patella in relation to the knee joint when the leg is extended? | The patella is superior or proximal to the knee joint by approximately 1/2 inch (1.25 cm). |
| What is the intercondylar fossa? | A deep notch between the medial and lateral condyles of the femur. |
| What angle is the femoral shaft from vertical in an average adult? | Approximately 10° from vertical. |
| What is the adductor tubercle? | A slightly raised area on the medial condyle that receives the tendon of an adductor muscle. |
| What is the significance of the medial and lateral epicondyles? | They are rough prominences for the attachment of the medial and lateral collateral ligaments. |
| What is the relationship of the patella to the patellar surface during knee flexion? | The patella moves distally and is drawn into the intercondylar groove. |
| What are the major ligaments associated with the knee joint? | The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial collateral ligament (MCL), and lateral collateral ligament (LCL). |
| How does the position of the patella change during leg flexion? | It moves distally over the patellar surface as the leg is flexed. |
| What is the patellar surface? | A smooth, shallow, triangular depression at the distal portion of the anterior femur. |
| What is the function of the fibular collateral ligament (LCL)? | To provide lateral stability to the knee joint. |
| What is the popliteal surface? | The posterior surface of the distal femur just proximal to the intercondylar fossa. |
| What is the anatomical position of the medial condyle compared to the lateral condyle? | The medial condyle extends lower or more distally than the lateral condyle. |
| What is the role of the quadriceps femoris muscle in relation to the patella? | The quadriceps muscle's tendon attaches to the tibial tuberosity and helps in knee extension. |
| What happens to the patella when the quadriceps muscles are relaxed? | The patella is loose and movable in its superior position. |
| What is the trochlear groove? | Another term for the patellar surface, referring to its pulley-shaped structure. |
| What is the significance of the knee joint's complex structure? | It allows for a wide range of motion while maintaining stability. |
| What is the function of the cruciate ligaments in the knee? | To provide stability and prevent excessive movement between the femur and tibia. |
| What is the relationship between the fibula and the knee joint? | The fibula does not articulate with the femur but does articulate with the lateral condyle of the tibia. |
| What anatomical feature helps determine knee rotation during imaging? | The adductor tubercle on the medial condyle. |
| What is the size of the patella? | Approximately 2 inches (5 cm) in diameter. |
| What is the anterior surface of the patella like? | Convex and rough. |
| What is the posterior surface of the patella like? | Smooth and oval-shaped for articulation with the femur. |
| What happens to the knee joint during flexion? | The patella moves downward and inward into the intercondylar groove. |
| What is the importance of the knee joint's ligaments? | They are crucial for maintaining joint stability during movement. |
| What anatomical position is the patella in when the leg is flexed at 90°? | The patella moves down farther over the distal portion of the femur. |
| What is the role of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)? | The ACL stabilizes the knee joint by preventing anterior movement of the tibia. |
| What is the function of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)? | The PCL stabilizes the knee joint by preventing posterior movement of the tibia. |
| What are the medial and lateral menisci? | Crescent-shaped fibrocartilage disks that act as shock absorbers between the tibia and femur. |
| What is the purpose of the patellar ligament? | It connects the patella to the tibial tuberosity and helps maintain knee joint integrity. |
| What type of joint is the knee classified as? | Synovial joint, specifically a diarthrodial joint allowing for free movement. |
| What is the role of the infrapatellar fat pad? | It protects the anterior aspect of the knee joint and provides cushioning. |
| What is the function of the articular capsule in the knee joint? | It encloses the joint and contains synovial fluid for lubrication. |
| What are the two collateral ligaments of the knee? | The fibular (lateral) collateral ligament (LCL) and the tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL). |
| What movements do the collateral ligaments prevent? | They prevent adduction and abduction movements at the knee. |
| What is the significance of the intercondylar fossa? | It is the notch between the femoral condyles where the cruciate ligaments attach. |
| What is the role of synovial fluid in the knee joint? | It lubricates the articulating surfaces and reduces friction during movement. |
| What is the function of the quadriceps femoris tendon? | It connects the quadriceps muscle to the patella and aids in knee extension. |
| What is the anatomical position of the patella? | It is located anteriorly in the knee joint, embedded within the quadriceps tendon. |
| What is the role of the bursa in the knee joint? | Bursae reduce friction between moving structures in the knee. |
| What is the anatomical term for the upper surface of the foot? | Dorsum pedis. |
| What is dorsiflexion? | The movement that decreases the angle between the dorsum pedis and the anterior leg. |
| What is plantar flexion? | The movement that increases the angle at the ankle joint, pointing the foot downward. |
| What injury is commonly associated with a tear of the MCL? | A tear of the ACL and the medial meniscus. |
| What is the function of the tibial tuberosity? | It serves as the attachment point for the patellar ligament. |
| What is the significance of the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur? | They serve as attachment points for ligaments and provide stability to the knee joint. |
| What is the role of the articular cartilage in the knee? | It covers the ends of the femur and tibia, providing a smooth surface for joint movement. |
| What is the common imaging technique used to visualize knee injuries? | Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). |
| What does the term 'patellofemoral joint' refer to? | The joint between the patella and the femur. |
| What is the anatomical term for the knee joint space filled with synovial fluid? | Articular cavity. |
| What is the role of the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia? | They articulate with the femur to form the knee joint. |
| What is the function of the suprapatellar bursa? | It is located above the patella and helps reduce friction in the knee joint. |
| What is the term for the fibrous tissue that connects bones at a joint? | Ligament. |
| What is the primary function of the knee joint? | To allow for flexion and extension of the leg. |
| What type of joints are most joints in the lower limb classified as? | Synovial joints |
| What is the exception to the classification of lower limb joints? | The distal tibiofibular joint, which is classified as a fibrous joint. |
| What type of mobility does the distal tibiofibular joint have? | Amphiarthrodial (slightly movable) |
| What is the primary function of synovial fluid in joints? | To lubricate the joint and reduce friction. |
| What type of joint is the proximal tibiofibular joint classified as? | Synovial joint |
| What movements are allowed by the intertarsal joints? | Gliding and rotation, resulting in inversion and eversion of the foot. |
| What is the main motion of the ankle joint? | Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. |
| What is the common minimum source-image receptor distance (SID) for lower limb radiographs? | 40 inches (100 cm) |
| Why is shielding important during lower limb radiographic examinations? | To protect radiation-sensitive regions such as red bone marrow and gonadal tissues. |
| What is the recommended technique for radiographing body parts greater than 4 inches? | Use of a grid. |
| What should be done to ensure accurate centering in radiographic examinations? | Align the body part parallel to the long axis of the IR and direct the CR perpendicularly to the correct centering point. |
| What is the recommended exposure factor range for lower limb radiographs? | Low-to-medium kVp (50-85) with short exposure times. |
| What is the significance of collimation in radiographic imaging? | It prevents unwanted exposure from scatter radiation and ensures essential anatomy is demonstrated. |
| What is the purpose of lead masking in radiographic imaging? | To protect parts of the IR not within the collimation field from unwanted exposure. |
| What special considerations should be taken for pediatric patients during radiography? | Use language they understand, involve parents for positioning, and provide appropriate shielding. |
| What is the primary challenge when radiographing geriatric patients? | Handling them carefully during positioning and movement. |
| What is the main function of the fibrous capsule in synovial joints? | To encapsulate the joint and contain synovial fluid. |
| What does inversion of the ankle refer to? | An inward turning or bending of the ankle and subtalar joints. |
| What does eversion of the ankle refer to? | An outward turning or bending of the ankle and subtalar joints. |
| What is the significance of the CR location in radiographic positioning? | It ensures that the image accurately represents the anatomy without distortion. |
| What is the role of immobilization in pediatric radiography? | To assist in holding the limb in the proper position during the examination. |
| What type of joint movement occurs at the saddle joint formed by the talus and malleoli? | Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. |
| What is the primary movement allowed by the bicondylar joint of the knee? | Flexion and extension. |
| What is the purpose of using a small focal spot in radiographic imaging? | To improve image resolution and detail. |
| What is the recommended approach for patients with severe trauma during radiography? | Radiograph them directly on the cart if they are difficult to move. |
| What is the effect of using a grid on radiographic images? | It reduces scatter radiation and improves image contrast. |
| What should be observed for when moving older patients during radiography? | Look for signs of hip fracture, such as foot in extreme external rotation. |
| Why might routine positioning maneuvers need adjustment for older patients? | Due to potential pathology and lack of joint flexibility. |
| What aids should be used to enhance comfort and immobilization for older patients? | Positioning aids and supports. |
| How should exposure factors be adjusted for older patients? | They may require adjustments due to conditions like osteoarthritis or osteoporosis. |
| What is the recommended exposure time and mA for older patients? | Shorter exposure time and higher mA to reduce motion. |
| What is a key consideration when dressing bariatric patients for radiographic exams? | Proper dressing is crucial to maintain radiographic quality. |
| What can tight-fitting clothing on bariatric patients cause during imaging? | It can interfere with radiographic quality and visualization of fractures. |
| How does the increased soft tissue in bariatric patients affect imaging? | It may require changes in exposure factors, such as increasing kVp. |
| What is the general minimum kVp used for larger body parts in radiography? | 50 kVp. |
| What should be checked on the final processed image in digital imaging? | The exposure indicator value to verify exposure factors. |
| What is the ALARA principle in radiography? | As Low As Reasonably Achievable, minimizing patient exposure. |
| What is the effect of a cast on exposure requirements during radiography? | An increase in exposure is required based on the cast thickness. |
| What is arthrography used for in radiography? | To image large diarthrodial joints like the knee using a contrast medium. |
| What are common pathologic indications related to the lower limb? | Bone cysts, chondromalacia patellae, chondrosarcomas, enchondromas, and Ewing sarcoma. |
| What is a bone cyst? | A benign, neoplastic bone lesion filled with clear fluid, often occurring near the knee joint. |
| What condition is known as runner's knee? | Chondromalacia patellae, which involves softening of the cartilage under the patella. |
| What is Ewing sarcoma? | A common primary malignant bone tumor arising from bone marrow in children and young adults. |
| What is the appearance of bone cysts on radiographs? | Lucent areas with a thin cortex and sharp boundaries. |
| How can chondrosarcomas be described? | Malignant tumors of cartilage typically occurring in the pelvis and long bones of men over 45. |
| What is an enchondroma? | A slow-growing benign cartilaginous tumor found in small bones of the hands and feet. |
| What is the significance of using a grid in radiography for bariatric patients? | To eliminate scatter radiation and improve image quality. |
| What adjustments might be needed for imaging the knee in bariatric patients? | An increased cephalad CR angle may be required to visualize the open joint space. |
| What are the imaging challenges with bariatric patients? | Modifications to conventional positions may be needed for patient comfort. |
| What is the recommended collimation practice in digital imaging? | Four-sided collimation to the area of interest. |
| What is the importance of accurate centering in radiography? | Ensures the body part and central ray are centered to the image receptor. |
| What should be done if the exposure indicator is outside the acceptable range? | Adjust the kVp or mAs accordingly for repeat exposures. |
| What are the symptoms of Ewing sarcoma? | Symptoms include low-grade fever and pain, with radiographs showing an 'onion peel' appearance due to new bone formation. |
| Where does Ewing sarcoma typically occur? | In the diaphysis of long bones. |
| What is the prognosis for Ewing sarcoma? | The prognosis is poor by the time it is evident on radiographs. |
| What is exostosis (osteochondroma)? | A benign bone lesion caused by overproduction of bone at a joint, usually the knee. |
| What happens to exostosis growth when epiphyseal plates close? | Tumor growth stops. |
| What are fractures? | Breaks in the structure of bone caused by a force, classified by extent, direction, alignment, and skin integrity. |
| What is gout? | A hereditary form of arthritis characterized by excessive uric acid in the blood, often affecting the first MTP joint. |
| What is a Lisfranc injury? | An injury to the Lisfranc ligament, often caused by stress injuries in the midfoot. |
| What characterizes a moderate sprain of the Lisfranc ligament? | An abnormal separation between the first and second metatarsals. |
| What is multiple myeloma? | The most common type of primary cancerous bone tumor, affecting individuals aged 40 to 70. |
| What is the typical radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma? | Multiple 'punched-out' osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the affected bones. |
| What is osteoarthritis? | A non-inflammatory joint disease characterized by the deterioration of articular cartilage and hypertrophic bone formation. |
| What are osteoclastomas? | Benign lesions typically occurring in long bones of young adults, appearing as large 'bubbles' on radiographs. |
| What are osteogenic sarcomas? | Highly malignant primary bone tumors occurring from childhood to young adulthood, usually in long bones. |
| What are osteoid osteomas? | Benign bone lesions in teenagers or young adults, causing localized pain that worsens at night. |
| What is osteomalacia? | A condition of bone softening due to a deficiency of calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D, known as rickets in children. |
| What is Paget disease (osteitis deformans)? | A non-neoplastic bone disease that disrupts new bone growth, resulting in overproduction of dense yet soft bone. |
| What is the typical radiographic appearance of osteoarthritis? | Narrowed, irregular joint spaces with sclerotic articular surfaces and spurs. |
| What are the common examination methods for gout? | AP (oblique) and lateral projections of the affected part, often initially in the MTP joint of the foot. |
| What is the significance of the Lisfranc ligament? | It spans the articulation of the medial cuneiform and the first and second metatarsal base, prone to injury. |
| What are the common radiographic findings in Ewing sarcoma? | Ill-defined areas of bone destruction with a surrounding 'onion peel' periosteal reaction. |
| What is the common age range for multiple myeloma diagnosis? | Typically affects persons aged 40 to 70 years. |
| What is the treatment for severe cases of Osgood-Schlatter disease? | May require immobilization by plaster cast. |
| What is the common cause of osteomalacia? | Deficiency of calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D in the diet or inability to absorb these minerals. |
| What is the typical age of onset for osteogenic sarcoma? | Peak age is around 20 years. |
| What are the common symptoms of osteoid osteoma? | Localized pain that worsens at night, relieved by anti-inflammatory medications. |
| What is the primary characteristic of the non-neoplastic bone disease described? | It disrupts new bone growth, resulting in overproduction of dense yet soft bone. |
| What radiographic appearance is often associated with this bone disease? | A characteristic appearance described as 'cotton wool'. |
| Which areas of the body are typically affected by this bone disease? | Skull, pelvis, femurs, tibias, vertebrae, clavicles, and ribs. |
| What happens to long bones due to this bone disease? | They generally bow or fracture because of softening of the bone. |
| What is the most common initial site of this bone disease? | The pelvis. |
| What are the characteristic symptoms of Reiter syndrome? | Arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. |
| What joints are affected by Reiter syndrome? | The sacroiliac joints and lower limbs. |
| What is the radiographic hallmark of Reiter syndrome? | A specific area of bony erosion at the Achilles tendon insertion on the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus. |
| What infections can cause Reiter syndrome? | A previous infection of the gastrointestinal tract, such as salmonella, or a sexually transmitted infection. |
| What is the purpose of the AP projection for toes? | To visualize fractures or dislocations of the phalanges and pathologies such as osteoarthritis and gouty arthritis. |
| What is the minimum SID for toe imaging? | 40 inches (100 cm). |
| What is the recommended field size for AP toe imaging? | 8 x 10 inches (18 x 24 cm), landscape. |
| What is the kVp range for AP toe imaging? | 50-65. |
| What is the patient position for AP projection of the toes? | Supine or seated on the table with the knee flexed and the plantar surface of the foot resting on the IR. |
| How should the CR be angled for AP projection of the toes? | 10° to 15° toward the calcaneus. |
| What should be included in the collimation for AP toe imaging? | Collimate on four sides to the area of interest, including at least part of one digit on each side. |
| What anatomy should be demonstrated in an AP projection of the toes? | Digits of interest and a minimum of the distal half of metatarsals. |
| What indicates correct positioning in an AP toe projection? | No overlapping of soft tissues and equal concavity on both sides of the phalanges. |
| What is the purpose of the AP oblique projection for toes? | To visualize fractures or dislocations of the phalanges and pathologies such as osteoarthritis and gouty arthritis. |
| What is the required rotation for the first three digits in an AP oblique projection? | 30° to 45° medially. |
| What is the CR direction for the AP oblique projection of the toes? | Perpendicular to the IR, directed to the MTP joint in question. |
| What should be included in the collimation for the AP oblique projection? | Include phalanges and a minimum of distal half of metatarsals. |
| What indicates correct obliquity in an AP oblique projection? | Increased concavity on one side of shafts and overlapping of soft tissues of digits. |
| What is the purpose of the lateral projection for toes? | To visualize phalanges of the digit in question in a lateral position free of superimposition. |
| What is the CR direction for the lateral projection of the toes? | Perpendicular to the IR, directed to the interphalangeal joint for the first digit and to the proximal interphalangeal joint for the second to fifth digits. |
| What should be done to prevent superimposition in a lateral projection? | Use tape, gauze, or a tongue blade to flex and separate unaffected toes. |
| What is the evaluation criteria for the lateral projection of the toes? | Phalanges should be seen in lateral position free of superimposition, with the long axis of the digit aligned to the long axis of the IR. |
| What is the purpose of optimal image receptor exposure in radiography? | To allow visualization of bony cortical margins, trabeculae, and soft tissue structures. |
| What indicates correct dorsiflexion of the foot in a radiographic projection? | Borders of the posterior margins of the first to third distal metatarsals are seen in profile. |
| What is the recommended minimum SID for foot radiography? | 40 inches (100 cm). |
| What is the kVp range for a tangential projection of the toes? | 50-60 kVp. |
| What is the positioning for a tangential projection of the first MTP joint? | The patient should be prone with the foot dorsiflexed to form a 15° to 20° angle from vertical. |
| What should be included in the collimation field for a tangential projection of the toes? | At least the first, second, and third distal metatarsals. |
| What is the evaluation criterion for a tangential projection of the sesamoids? | Sesamoids should be seen in profile free of superimposition. |
| What is the CR direction for a tangential projection of the first MTP joint? | Directed tangentially to the posterior aspect of the first MTP joint. |
| What is the clinical indication for an AP projection of the foot? | To assess the location and extent of fractures, joint space abnormalities, and soft tissue effusions. |
| What is the CR angle for an AP projection of the foot? | 10° posteriorly toward the heel. |
| What should be demonstrated in an AP projection of the foot? | Entire foot including all phalanges, metatarsals, and tarsals. |
| What is the recommended field size for an AP foot projection? | 10 x 12 inches (24 x 30 cm), portrait. |
| What is the purpose of a medial oblique projection of the foot? | To demonstrate the tarsals and proximal metatarsals free of superimposition. |
| What is the recommended obliquity for a medial oblique projection of the foot? | 30° to 40°. |
| What should be included in the collimation for a medial oblique projection? | Collimate to outer margins of the skin on four sides. |
| What is the purpose of using sandbags during foot radiography? | To prevent the IR from slipping and to stabilize the foot position. |
| What is the evaluation criterion for an AP oblique projection of the foot? | Third through fifth metatarsals should be free of superimposition. |
| What is the significance of the sesamoid bones in foot radiography? | They are evaluated for extent of injury, often visualized in a tangential projection. |
| What is the positioning for an AP projection of the foot? | The patient should be supine with the plantar surface flat on the IR. |
| What is the recommended kVp range for an AP oblique projection of the foot? | 60-70 kVp. |
| What is the primary goal of the dorsoplantar projection? | To visualize the entire foot including phalanges and metatarsals. |
| What should be avoided during foot positioning for radiography? | Rotation of the foot, evidenced by unequal distances between metatarsals. |
| What is the purpose of the lateral oblique projection of the foot? | To best demonstrate the space between the first and second metatarsals. |
| What should be ensured when performing a tangential projection? | That the patient is comfortable and not kept in an uncomfortable position longer than necessary. |
| How should the foot be positioned for an AP projection? | The plantar surface should be flat on the IR with the foot extended. |
| What should be the focus of the collimation in foot radiography? | The area of interest should be closely collated to avoid unnecessary exposure. |
| What indicates correct obliquity in foot imaging? | Third through fifth metatarsals are free of superimposition. |
| Which metatarsals should be free of superimposition except for the base area? | First and second metatarsals. |
| What anatomical feature is seen in profile in a correctly positioned foot? | Tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal. |
| What should be open and well demonstrated when the foot is positioned obliquely correctly? | Joint spaces around the cuboid and the sinus tarsi. |
| What is the recommended collimation for foot imaging? | Collimate to the area of interest. |
| What is the minimum SID for foot imaging? | 40 inches (100 cm). |
| What is the recommended field size for smaller feet in foot imaging? | 8 x 10 inches (18 x 24 cm). |
| What is the kVp range recommended for foot imaging? | 60-70 kVp. |
| What is the patient position for a mediolateral projection of the foot? | Lateral recumbent position with the knee flexed about 45°. |
| What should the CR be directed to in a mediolateral projection? | Medial cuneiform at the level of the base of the third metatarsal. |
| What should be demonstrated in a true lateral position of the foot? | The tibiotalar joint is open, and distal fibula is superimposed by the posterior tibia. |
| What is the evaluation criterion for the anatomy demonstrated in foot imaging? | Entire foot should be demonstrated with a minimum of 1 inch (2.5 cm) of distal tibia-fibula. |
| What is the purpose of AP weight-bearing projections of the foot? | To demonstrate the condition of the longitudinal arches under full body weight. |
| What is the CR angulation for AP weight-bearing projections? | 15° posteriorly to midpoint between feet. |
| What should be visualized in an AP projection of the feet? | Bilateral feet from soft tissue surrounding phalanges to distal portion of talus. |
| What is the purpose of the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus? | To visualize pathologies or fractures with medial or lateral displacement. |
| What is the CR direction for a plantodorsal projection? | Angle CR 40° cephalad from the long axis of the foot. |
| What should be demonstrated in the evaluation criteria for the calcaneus? | Entire calcaneus from tuberosity posteriorly to subtalar joint anteriorly. |
| What is the recommended field size for bilateral foot studies? | 14 x 17 inches (35 x 43 cm). |
| What is the evaluation criterion for optimal image receptor exposure in foot imaging? | Sharp bony margins and trabecular markings should be clearly visualized. |
| What is the purpose of lateral weight-bearing projections of the foot? | To demonstrate the bones of the feet under full weight and assess structural ligaments. |
| What should be included in the collimation for lateral projections? | Margins of the feet and surrounding soft tissue. |
| What is the evaluation criterion for the position in lateral foot imaging? | Distal fibula should be seen superimposed over the posterior half of the tibia. |
| What is the significance of the sustentaculum tali in calcaneus imaging? | It should appear in profile medially with no rotation. |
| What is the recommended patient position for lateral weight-bearing projections? | Patient stands erect with weight placed on the affected foot. |
| What should be demonstrated in the longitudinal arch in lateral foot imaging? | The entire longitudinal arch must be visualized. |
| What is the purpose of using a special wooden box for lateral foot imaging? | To elevate the IR for horizontal beam positioning. |
| What is the CR direction for a lateromedial projection? | Direct CR horizontally to the level of the base of the third metatarsal. |
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