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biliary tree and ugi
bontrager
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What organ manufactures bile? | The liver |
| What is the primary function of bile? | To aid in the digestion of fats by emulsifying fat globules. |
| Where is bile stored? | In the gallbladder |
| What are the three primary functions of the gallbladder? | 1) To store bile, 2) To concentrate bile, 3) To contract when stimulated. |
| What hormone stimulates the gallbladder to contract? | Cholecystokinin (CCK) |
| What is the average length of the common bile duct? | Approximately 3 inches (7.5 cm) |
| What is the function of the cystic duct? | To carry bile to and from the gallbladder. |
| What is the shape of the liver as viewed from the front? | Triangular |
| What protects the liver from injury? | The lower right rib cage |
| How much bile does the liver secrete daily? | About 1 quart (800 to 1000 mL) |
| What is the largest solid organ in the human body? | The liver |
| What are the two major lobes of the liver? | The right lobe and the left lobe |
| What ligament separates the right and left lobes of the liver? | The falciform ligament |
| What are the two minor lobes of the liver? | The quadrate lobe and the caudate lobe |
| What is the function of the hepatopancreatic sphincter? | To control the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum. |
| What is the common bile duct joined by at the hepatopancreatic sphincter? | The pancreatic duct |
| What condition can occur if too much water is absorbed in the gallbladder? | Gallstones (choleliths) may form. |
| What is the normal length of the gallbladder? | 2% to 4 inches (7 to 10 cm) |
| What is the average internal diameter of the common bile duct? | About the size of a drinking straw |
| What is the distal end of the gallbladder called? | The fundus |
| What is the main section of the gallbladder called? | The body |
| What is the narrow proximal end of the gallbladder called? | The neck |
| What is the role of bile salts in bile? | To make cholesterol soluble in bile. |
| What is the duodenal papilla? | The protrusion into the lumen of the duodenum where the common bile duct empties. |
| What can happen if gallstones impact the common bile duct? | It can lead to blockages and complications in digestion. |
| What is the average weight of the liver? | 3 to 4 lb (about 1.5 to 2 kg) |
| What part of the digestive system does the common bile duct empty into? | The duodenum |
| What is the role of the gallbladder in digestion? | To store and concentrate bile for fat digestion. |
| What is the anatomical position of the gallbladder in relation to the liver? | The gallbladder is anterior to the midcoronal plane of the liver. |
| What are the four major divisions of the gallbladder? | A. Cystic duct, B. Neck, C. Body, D. Fundus |
| What imaging modality is used to study the gallbladder and biliary ducts? | Sonography (ultrasound) |
| What are the advantages of using sonography for gallbladder examination? | 1. No ionizing radiation, 2. Detection of small calculi, 3. No contrast medium required, 4. Less patient preparation. |
| What is cholelithiasis? | The condition of having gallstones. |
| What are the two types of gallstones? | Cholesterol stones and pigment stones. |
| What percentage of gallstones are cholesterol stones? | Approximately 75%. |
| What are common symptoms of cholelithiasis? | Right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. |
| What is choledocholithiasis? | The presence of stones in the biliary ducts. |
| What is acute cholecystitis? | Inflammation of the gallbladder, often due to a blockage of the cystic duct. |
| What are the symptoms of acute cholecystitis? | Abdominal pain, tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and fever. |
| What is chronic cholecystitis associated with? | Gallstones, but may also result from pancreatitis or carcinoma of the gallbladder. |
| What are neoplasms in the context of the gallbladder? | New growths that may be benign or malignant. |
| What is the most common type of malignant tumor in the gallbladder? | Adenocarcinoma (85% of cases). |
| What is biliary stenosis? | A narrowing of one of the biliary ducts that restricts the flow of bile. |
| What can cause biliary stenosis? | Gallstones, which may prevent the passage of small gallstones into the duodenum. |
| What is the purpose of the hepatopancreatic sphincter? | It regulates the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum. |
| What is the role of the cystic duct? | It connects the gallbladder to the common bile duct. |
| What is the significance of the spiral valve in the cystic duct? | It helps to prevent the backflow of bile. |
| What is the common bile duct's function? | It carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum. |
| What is the clinical indication for gallbladder imaging? | Symptoms like nausea, heartburn, RUQ discomfort, and vomiting. |
| What is the recommended patient preparation for sonography? | The patient should be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours before the examination. |
| What is the term for the surgical removal of the gallbladder? | Cholecystectomy. |
| What is the condition of having gallstones called? | Cholelithiasis. |
| What can happen if there is a complete blockage of the biliary ducts? | The patient may develop jaundice. |
| What is the term for inflammation of the gallbladder? | Cholecystitis. |
| What is the primary composition of most gallstones? | Cholesterol. |
| What imaging modalities are best for demonstrating neoplasms of the gallbladder? | Sonography and CT. |
| What condition is indicated by stones in the biliary ducts? | Choledocholithiasis |
| What is the most common radiographic examination for gallbladder stones? | Sonography |
| What is the radiographic appearance of acute cholecystitis? | Thickened wall of gallbladder with ultrasound; failure to accumulate radionuclide within gallbladder |
| What does the alimentary canal consist of? | Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus |
| What are the accessory organs of digestion? | Salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder |
| What is the primary function of the digestive system related to food? | Intake or digestion of food, water, vitamins, and minerals |
| What is the second primary function of the digestive system? | Absorption of digested food particles into the blood or lymphatic capillaries |
| What is the third primary function of the digestive system? | Elimination of unused material in the form of semisolid waste products |
| What is esophagography? | Radiographic examination specifically of the pharynx and esophagus |
| What is the upper gastrointestinal series (UGI)? | A procedure designed to study the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum in one examination |
| What is the preferred contrast medium for the alimentary canal in radiographic procedures? | Barium sulfate mixed with water |
| What are the three pairs of salivary glands? | Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands |
| What is the composition of saliva? | 99.5% water and 0.5% solutes or salts and certain digestive enzymes |
| What is the function of amylase in saliva? | To break down starches |
| What is deglutition? | The act of swallowing |
| What is the length of the pharynx? | About 5 inches (12.5 cm) |
| What are the three parts of the pharynx? | Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx |
| What is the role of the epiglottis? | To cover the opening of the larynx during swallowing |
| What is the function of the uvula? | To help prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing |
| What is mastication? | The mechanical part of digestion involving chewing movements |
| What is the significance of the common bile duct in biliary stenosis? | It may show elongation, tapering, and narrowing |
| What is the radiographic appearance of chronic cholecystitis? | Calcified plaques or calcification of the wall of the gallbladder |
| What is the appearance of neoplasms in the gallbladder? | Mass seen within gallbladder, liver, or biliary ducts; extensive calcification of gallbladder wall |
| What is the primary role of the digestive system? | To process food for energy and nutrients |
| What is the primary examination for gallbladder disease? | Sonography |
| What is the term for the study of the form and function of the swallowing aspect of the pharynx and esophagus? | Esophagography |
| What does the term 'cholelithiasis' refer to? | The presence of stones in the gallbladder |
| What is the common exposure factor adjustment for biliary tract radiography? | None |
| What cavities communicate with the nasopharynx? | The two nasal cavities and the two tympanic cavities. |
| How do the tympanic cavities connect to the nasopharynx? | Via the auditory or eustachian tubes. |
| Which cavity connects posteriorly to the oropharynx? | The oral cavity (mouth). |
| What does the laryngopharynx connect to? | The openings of both the larynx and the esophagus. |
| What is the act of swallowing called? | Deglutition. |
| What prevents swallowed substances from entering the nose during swallowing? | The soft palate closes off the nasopharynx. |
| What role does the epiglottis play during swallowing? | It covers the laryngeal opening to prevent aspiration. |
| What is the length of the esophagus? | About 10 inches (25 cm). |
| What is the diameter of the esophagus? | About 1/2 inch (1 to 2 cm). |
| Where does the esophagus terminate? | At its connection to the stomach, at the level of the 11th thoracic vertebra (T11). |
| What is the spatial relationship of the esophagus to the trachea? | The esophagus is posterior to the trachea. |
| What is the narrowest part of the alimentary canal? | The esophagus. |
| Where does the esophagus pierce the diaphragm? | At the level of T10. |
| What are the two indentations present in the esophagus? | One at the aortic arch and one where it crosses the left primary bronchus. |
| What is the cardiac antrum? | The short abdominal portion of the esophagus below the diaphragm. |
| What is the esophagogastric junction? | The opening between the esophagus and the stomach, also known as the cardiac orifice. |
| What is the function of the cardiac sphincter? | It allows food and fluid to pass through the cardiac orifice. |
| What is the pyloric orifice? | The opening of the distal stomach into the duodenum. |
| What is peristalsis? | A wavelike series of involuntary muscular contractions that propel materials through the alimentary canal. |
| What type of muscle is found in the upper third of the esophagus? | Well-developed skeletal muscle layers. |
| What happens to the stomach when it is empty? | It tends to collapse. |
| What is the average shape and position of the stomach? | Highly variable, but it serves as a reservoir for swallowed food and fluid. |
| What is the cardiac notch? | A notch directly superior to the esophagogastric junction. |
| What occurs during the process of deglutition? | Food and fluid travel from the oral cavity to the esophagus. |
| What is the primary method for fluids to pass from the mouth to the stomach? | Primarily by gravity. |
| What is the role of the diaphragm in relation to the esophagus? | The esophagus passes through the diaphragm slightly to the left and posterior to its midpoint. |
| What is the relationship of the esophagus to the heart? | The esophagus is located immediately adjacent to the right and posterior heart borders. |
| What is the function of the pyloric sphincter? | It relaxes periodically during digestion to allow stomach contents to move into the duodenum. |
| What are the two curvatures of the stomach? | The lesser curvature and the greater curvature. |
| How does the length of the greater curvature compare to the lesser curvature? | The greater curvature is four to five times longer than the lesser curvature. |
| What are the three main subdivisions of the stomach? | The fundus, the body, and the pylorus. |
| What is the gastric bubble? | It is a bubble of swallowed air that fills the fundus when the stomach is in an upright position. |
| What is the angular notch? | It is the constricted area that separates the body from the pyloric portion of the stomach. |
| What are the two parts of the pyloric portion of the stomach? | The pyloric antrum and the pyloric canal. |
| What role do rugae play in the stomach? | Rugae are mucosal folds that assist with mechanical digestion of food. |
| What is the typical orientation of a partially filled stomach? | The fundus is located posterior to the body of the stomach. |
| How does body position affect the distribution of barium and air in the stomach? | In the supine position, barium settles in the fundus, while in the erect position, air fills the fundus. |
| What is the duodenum? | The duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine, commonly referred to as the small bowel. |
| How long is the duodenum? | About 7 to 9 inches (20 to 24 cm) long. |
| What shape does the duodenum resemble? | It is shaped like the letter C. |
| What is the duodenal bulb? | It is the first part of the superior portion of the duodenum and is a common site for ulcer disease. |
| What is the function of the duodenal papilla? | It is the opening for the common bile and pancreatic ducts into the duodenum. |
| What is the ligament of Treitz? | A fibrous muscular band that holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place. |
| What is the junction of the duodenum with the jejunum called? | The duodenojejunal flexure. |
| What characterizes the hypersthenic body type? | Broad and deep chest and abdomen, short lungs, high diaphragm, and high transverse colon. |
| Where is the gallbladder located in a hypersthenic patient? | High and almost transverse, well to the right of midline in the upper abdominal cavity. |
| What is the stomach's position in a hyposthenic/asthenic body type? | Slender, with long narrow lungs and a low diaphragm, causing the stomach to be J-shaped and low in the abdominal cavity. |
| What is the typical location of the gallbladder in a hyposthenic/asthenic body type? | Near the midline at the level of the iliac crest, approximately at L3 to L4. |
| How does the sthenic body type differ from the hypersthenic type? | The sthenic body type is a slender version of hypersthenic, with a lower stomach position extending from T11 to L2. |
| What factors can affect the position of the stomach? | Stomach contents, respiration, body position, previous abdominal surgeries, and age. |
| What is mechanical digestion? | The physical movements of the gastrointestinal tract, including chewing, swallowing, and peristalsis. |
| What is the process of peristalsis? | The wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the alimentary canal. |
| How long does it take for solid food to pass from the mouth to the stomach? | 4 to 8 seconds. |
| What is chyme? | A semifluid mass of mixed food and stomach fluids that is passed into the duodenum. |
| What is rhythmic segmentation? | A churning motion in the small intestine that mixes food with digestive juices. |
| What is chemical digestion? | The chemical changes that food undergoes as it travels through the alimentary canal. |
| What are the six classes of substances ingested for digestion? | Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, and water. |
| What are the end products of carbohydrate digestion? | Simple sugars. |
| What are the end products of protein digestion? | Amino acids. |
| Where does lipid digestion primarily occur? | In the small bowel. |
| What is the role of bile in digestion? | To emulsify fats, breaking down large fat droplets into smaller ones for easier digestion. |
| What are the end products of lipid digestion? | Fatty acids and glycerol. |
| Where does most absorption of digestive end products occur? | In the small intestine. |
| What substances are absorbed into the bloodstream from the small intestine? | Simple sugars, amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol, water, and most salts and vitamins. |
| What substances are primarily absorbed into the bloodstream through the small intestine? | Simple sugars, amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol, water, most salts, and vitamins. |
| What limited absorption occurs in the stomach? | Some water, alcohol, vitamins, and certain drugs, but no nutrients. |
| What is eliminated from the large bowel? | Residues of digestion or unabsorbed digestive products as feces. |
| What are the three primary functions of the digestive system? | Ingestion, absorption, and elimination. |
| What are the four general classes of body habitus? | Hypersthenic, Sthenic, Hyposthenic, and Asthenic. |
| What body type classification has the highest percentage of the population? | Sthenic (50%). |
| What is the main site for digestion of carbohydrates? | Mouth and stomach. |
| Where are proteins primarily digested into amino acids? | In the stomach and small bowel. |
| Which digestive substances are ingested but not digested? | Vitamins, minerals, and water. |
| What is the process of mastication? | Chewing food in the oral cavity. |
| How long does peristalsis take in the stomach? | 2-6 hours. |
| How long does peristalsis take in the small intestine? | 3-5 hours. |
| What is the primary function of the large intestine? | Elimination of unused or unnecessary solid material. |
| What is the purpose of contrast media in radiographic examinations of the gastrointestinal tract? | To visualize structures that blend in with surrounding tissues. |
| What is the initial stage of each radiographic examination of the alimentary canal? | Carried out with fluoroscopy. |
| What is the most common positive contrast medium used in GI imaging? | Barium sulfate (BaSO4). |
| What is a colloidal suspension? | A mixture where particles are suspended in water but do not dissolve. |
| What happens to barium sulfate after a radiographic procedure? | It is expelled rectally. |
| What is the significance of the gastric air bubble in radiography? | It helps identify the fundus of the stomach in the upright position. |
| What variations exist in the functional activity of the alimentary canal? | Differences considered within normal limits based on body habitus, age, and other factors. |
| What is the role of fluoroscopy in gastrointestinal examinations? | To observe the gastrointestinal tract in motion and produce radiographic images. |
| What is the relationship between body habitus and the location of gastrointestinal organs? | Body habitus affects the positioning of organs within the abdominal cavity. |
| What is the purpose of digital fluoroscopy? | To produce digital images during the fluoroscopy examination, reducing the need for additional radiographs. |
| What is the purpose of mixing barium sulfate with water? | To create a suspension for gastrointestinal imaging. |
| What ratio of barium sulfate to water is typically used? | 1 part barium sulfate to 1 part water. |
| What is the consistency of thin barium sulfate? | Similar to a thin milkshake. |
| What is the average weight-to-volume (w/v) percentage of thin barium sulfate? | 60% barium sulfate to water. |
| What factors affect the motility of barium sulfate through the gastrointestinal tract? | Suspending medium, additives, temperature, consistency, and patient condition. |
| What is the consistency of thick barium sulfate? | Similar to cooked cereal. |
| Why is thick barium better for esophageal studies? | It descends slowly and coats the mucosal lining effectively. |
| What are common flavors added to barium sulfate preparations? | Apple, chocolate, vanilla, lemon, lime, and strawberry. |
| What is a contraindication for using barium sulfate? | If there is a risk of the mixture escaping into the peritoneal cavity. |
| What can happen if barium sulfate escapes into the peritoneal cavity? | It can lead to intestinal infarcts or peritonitis. |
| What is an alternative to barium sulfate for patients at risk? | Water-soluble iodinated contrast media, such as Gastrografin. |
| What is a drawback of water-soluble iodinated contrast media? | It has a bitter taste. |
| What should be done if a patient is sensitive to iodine? | Water-soluble contrast agents should not be used. |
| What is a double-contrast technique? | A method that uses both radiolucent and radiopaque contrast media for better imaging. |
| What is the purpose of introducing room air or CO2 gas during a double-contrast procedure? | To create gas bubbles that enhance the coating of the stomach mucosa. |
| What are common forms of gas-producing crystals used in double-contrast procedures? | Calcium and magnesium citrate. |
| What is a potential benefit of double-contrast techniques? | Better demonstration of potential polyps, diverticula, and ulcers. |
| What should be done to help patients eliminate barium sulfate after a procedure? | Increase fluid or fiber intake, or use laxatives if not contraindicated. |
| What is the role of digital fluoroscopy in gastrointestinal procedures? | It provides versatile imaging capabilities during various procedures. |
| What is a digital radiography-fluoroscopy (R/F) system? | A system that combines digital fluoroscopy with conventional x-ray capabilities. |
| What technology is used in digital fluoroscopy to convert x-ray energy? | A thin film transistor. |
| What is the importance of mixing barium sulfate preparations thoroughly? | To ensure a uniform suspension before use. |
| What should patients be forewarned about regarding water-soluble contrast agents? | They may have a slightly bitter taste. |
| What happens to barium sulfate if it remains in the large intestine? | It may solidify and become difficult to evacuate. |
| What is the typical volume of barium sulfate used in procedures? | 120 mL, as shown in the example figures. |
| What is the significance of the chalky taste of barium preparations? | It can be less objectionable when the mixture is cold. |
| What is the role of a thin film transistor in digital fluoroscopy? | It converts x-ray energy into a digital signal. |
| Where is image information transferred after being converted in digital fluoroscopy? | To a computer for manipulation and storage. |
| What system is used for storing and retrieving medical images? | Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS). |
| What does digital fluoroscopy allow for gastrointestinal studies? | It allows studies to remain in a digital format that can be sent to various locations. |
| What is the significance of PACS in digital imaging? | It ties together all digital imaging modalities into a digital community for access by radiologists, technologists, and physicians. |
| What is the purpose of multiple frame formatting in digital fluoroscopy? | To format and print multiple images on one piece of laser film. |
| What is cine loop capability in digital fluoroscopy? | It allows individual images to be recorded in rapid succession and displayed as dynamic images. |
| What are some image enhancement features available in digital fluoroscopy? | Edge enhancement, window leveling, dynamic range control, and dual energy subtraction. |
| What are the cardinal principles of radiation protection during fluoroscopy? | Time, Shielding, and Distance. |
| How can fluoroscopy time be reduced to protect workers? | By using intermittent fluoroscopy and tracking the amount of time the fluoroscopy tube is energized. |
| What is the recommended distance to reduce radiation dose during fluoroscopy? | Increasing the distance between the x-ray tube and the technologist. |
| What protective equipment must be worn during fluoroscopy? | Protective aprons of 0.5-mm lead equivalency, lead glasses, and thyroid shields. |
| What should be done before a technologist places a hand into the fluoroscopy beam? | A leaded glove must be worn, and the beam must be attenuated by the patient's body. |
| What is the purpose of the lead drape shield in fluoroscopy? | To reduce scatter radiation from the fluoroscopy x-ray tube. |
| What happens if the bucky is not fully extended during fluoroscopy? | Leakage or scatter rays can escape through the bucky slot space. |
| What is the benefit of using the 'image freeze' function in digital fluoroscopy? | It allows the last energized image to remain visible on the monitor while the fluoroscopy tube is not activated. |
| What is the effect of doubling the distance from the x-ray tube on radiation dose? | It can reduce the dose by a factor of 4. |
| What is the importance of inspecting the lead drape shield regularly? | To ensure it is not damaged or improperly placed. |
| What should be done if fluoroscopy time becomes excessive? | The situation should be discussed with a supervisor. |
| What is the purpose of using compression paddles during fluoroscopy? | To compress the patient's abdomen for better imaging. |
| What is the significance of digital fluoroscopy in modern medical imaging? | It allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and manipulation of images, improving diagnostic capabilities. |
| What is the impact of digital fluoroscopy on the concept of the 'film room'? | The concept is becoming obsolete due to digital imaging capabilities. |
| What can be done if radiographs are lost or duplicates are needed? | Additional 'original' films can be reprinted at any time. |
| What is the role of the technologist in managing radiation exposure during fluoroscopy? | To apply radiation protection principles and ensure safety during procedures. |
| What is the benefit of using digital imaging networks like PACS? | They provide the ability to store, retrieve, manipulate, and print examinations at various locations. |
| What should be done to ensure the bucky slot shield is effective? | Ensure the bucky is all the way to the end of the table before starting a fluoroscopic procedure. |
| What are the benefits of using protective devices during fluoroscopy? | They greatly reduce exposure to fluoroscopy personnel, torso, hands, gonadal region, lenses of the eye, thyroid gland, and arms. |
| What is the minimum lead equivalence for a protective lead apron? | 0.5 mm Pb/Eq minimum. |
| What is achalasia? | A motor disorder of the esophagus where peristalsis is reduced, causing difficulty in swallowing. |
| What is the common age range for the occurrence of achalasia? | Most common between the ages of 20 and 40 years. |
| What is Barrett esophagus? | A condition where normal squamous epithelium is replaced with columnar-lined epithelium in the esophagus. |
| What is the primary imaging modality for detecting Barrett esophagus? | Nuclear medicine using technetium-99m pertechnetate. |
| What is dysphagia? | Difficulty swallowing, which may be due to various conditions including congenital issues or paralysis. |
| What are esophageal varices? | Dilation of veins in the distal esophagus, often associated with liver disease. |
| What is the appearance of advanced esophageal varices on an esophagogram? | Narrowing of the distal third of the esophagus with a 'wormlike' or 'cobblestone' appearance. |
| What is the purpose of using a compression paddle in fluoroscopy? | To reduce radiation exposure to the patient and improve image quality. |
| What is gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? | A condition where gastric contents enter the esophagus, causing irritation and heartburn. |
| What are common clinical indications for performing an esophagography? | Conditions such as achalasia, Barrett esophagus, carcinoma, dysphagia, and esophageal varices. |
| What is Zenker diverticulum? | A large outpouching of the esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter, causing dysphagia and regurgitation. |
| What is the minimum lead equivalence for protective eyewear? | 0.35 mm Pb/Eq minimum. |
| What is the role of digital fluoroscopy in esophagography? | It is used for functional studies and to diagnose conditions like achalasia and dysphagia. |
| What are the contraindications for esophagography? | Possible sensitivity to the contrast media used, such as barium sulfate. |
| What is the minimum lead equivalence for lead gloves? | 0.25 mm Pb/Eq minimum. |
| What is the purpose of a Bucky slot shield? | To protect the technologist from radiation exposure during fluoroscopy. |
| How does esophagography help in diagnosing carcinoma of the esophagus? | It can demonstrate atrophic changes in the mucosa and detect tumors. |
| What is the significance of using a thyroid shield during fluoroscopy? | To protect the thyroid gland from radiation exposure. |
| What is the typical appearance of the esophagus in patients with dysphagia during an esophagography? | Narrowing or an enlarged, flaccid appearance depending on the cause. |
| What is the lead equivalence for a fluoroscopy leaded tower drape? | 0.25 mm Pb/Eq minimum. |
| What is the common treatment for Zenker diverticulum? | Medication to reduce symptoms, but surgery may be required. |
| What is the role of a speech pathologist in esophagography? | To evaluate swallowing patterns during the examination. |
| What is the primary purpose of an esophagogram? | To evaluate the esophagus using fluoroscopy and contrast media. |
| What should patients remove before an esophagogram? | All clothing and anything metallic between the mouth and waist. |
| What type of contrast media is commonly used in esophagography? | Both thin and thick barium. |
| What is the first step in preparing for an esophagogram? | Taking a pertinent history and explaining the procedure to the patient. |
| What position is the patient typically in at the start of an esophagogram? | The upright or erect position. |
| What is the Valsalva maneuver used for during an esophagogram? | To increase intra-abdominal pressure and potentially demonstrate esophageal reflux. |
| How is the water test performed in the context of an esophagogram? | The patient swallows water while in a left posterior oblique position, and barium regurgitation is observed. |
| What does a positive water test indicate? | Significant amounts of barium regurgitate into the esophagus from the stomach. |
| What is the purpose of the compression paddle technique? | To apply pressure to the stomach region to help visualize the esophagogastric junction. |
| What does the toe-touch maneuver help to observe? | Possible regurgitation into the esophagus from the stomach. |
| What imaging technique is often used after fluoroscopy in an esophagogram? | Postfluoroscopy imaging to obtain radiographs of the barium-filled esophagus. |
| What is the gold standard for detecting gastric carcinoma? | The double-contrast upper GI series. |
| What condition is characterized by inflammation of the stomach lining? | Gastritis. |
| What are the symptoms of acute gastritis? | Severe pain and discomfort. |
| What is the difference between acute and chronic gastritis? | Acute gastritis has severe symptoms, while chronic gastritis is intermittent and may be triggered by diet or stress. |
| What is the primary focus of an upper GI series? | To study the form and function of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. |
| What should be done to ensure safety during fluoroscopy? | Proper radiation protection methods must be observed at all times. |
| What is the role of the technologist during the fluoroscopic examination? | To follow the radiologist's instructions and assist the patient as needed. |
| What is the significance of using both thin and thick barium during esophagography? | Thin barium allows for flow observation, while thick barium enhances visualization of mucosal patterns. |
| What is the purpose of performing spot images during fluoroscopy? | To study the pharynx and cervical esophagus in detail. |
| What is the expected outcome of the esophagogram procedure? | To detect any abnormalities in the esophagus and assess its function. |
| What is the role of the fluoroscopist during the esophagogram? | To observe the flow of barium and monitor for signs of reflux. |
| What is the purpose of the Mueller maneuver? | To increase intra-abdominal pressure and potentially demonstrate reflux. |
| What should be done with the examination room before the patient arrives? | Ensure it is clean, tidy, and stocked with necessary supplies. |
| What is the significance of the esophagogastric junction during the examination? | It is a critical area to observe for signs of reflux and other abnormalities. |
| What is the typical patient preparation for an esophagogram if an upper GI series follows? | Preparation for the upper GI series takes precedence over the esophagogram. |
| What is the importance of explaining the procedure to the patient? | To ensure they understand what to expect and to alleviate any anxiety. |
| What is the primary purpose of an upper GI series? | To study the form and function of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, and to detect abnormal conditions. |
| What are the contraindications for using barium sulfate in upper GI examinations? | A history of bowel perforation, laceration, or rupture of the viscus. |
| What alternative contrast medium can be used if barium sulfate is contraindicated? | An oral, water-soluble, iodinated contrast medium. |
| What is a bezoar? | A mass of undigested material that becomes trapped in the stomach, often made up of hair or vegetable fibers. |
| What are the specific types of bezoars? | Trichobezoar (made of ingested hair) and phytobezoar (made of ingested vegetable fiber or seeds). |
| How do diverticula appear on an upper GI series? | As pouch-like herniations of the mucosal wall, often appearing as outpouchings. |
| What percentage of gastric diverticula arise in the posterior aspect of the fundus? | 70% to 90%. |
| What is emesis? | The act of vomiting. |
| What does hematemesis indicate? | The presence of blood in vomit, which may suggest pathologic processes in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| What accounts for more than 70% of all stomach neoplasms? | Gastric carcinomas, with 95% being adenocarcinomas. |
| What are common radiographic signs of gastric carcinoma? | A large, irregular filling defect, marked or nodular edges of the stomach lining, and rigidity of the stomach. |
| How is gastritis best demonstrated? | With a double-contrast upper GI series. |
| What is a hiatal hernia? | A condition where a portion of the stomach herniates through the diaphragmatic opening. |
| What causes a sliding hiatal hernia? | Weakening of the esophageal sphincter muscle, allowing part of the stomach to herniate. |
| What is hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS)? | The most common type of gastric obstruction in infants, caused by hypertrophy of the antral muscle at the pylorus. |
| What are the symptoms of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? | Projectile vomiting after feedings, acute pain, and possible abdominal distention. |
| What is the recommended imaging technique for diagnosing HPS? | Sonography, as it measures the diameter and length of the antral muscle. |
| What is a peptic ulcer? | Ulceration of the mucous membrane of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum caused by acid gastric juice. |
| What are the types of ulcers mentioned? | Duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer, and perforating ulcer. |
| What is a perforating ulcer? | An ulcer that involves the entire thickness of the wall of the stomach or intestine, creating an opening on both surfaces. |
| What are the radiographic signs of a perforating ulcer? | Presence of free air under the diaphragm on an erect abdomen radiograph. |
| What is the goal of patient preparation for an upper GI series? | To ensure the patient arrives with a completely empty stomach. |
| How long should a patient be NPO before an upper GI examination? | At least 8 hours. |
| What precautions should be taken for pregnant women undergoing an upper GI series? | Radiographic examinations should only be done when absolutely necessary, preferably delaying until the third trimester. |
| What is the typical contrast medium used for an upper GI series? | Thin barium sulfate mixture. |
| What is the purpose of a double-contrast upper GI? | To enhance the visualization of tumors or diverticula. |
| What is the significance of the Schatzki ring? | It is a ring of mucosal tissue that protrudes into the lumen of the esophagus, often associated with sliding hiatal hernia. |
| What is the typical radiographic appearance of gastritis? | Absence of rugae, thin gastric wall, and a 'speckled' appearance of the mucosa. |
| What should be done if an upper GI series is to be followed by a small bowel series? | Patients should be informed about the time-consuming nature of the procedures. |
| What is the role of the esophageal sphincter? | To keep the cardiac portion of the stomach below the diaphragm and prevent esophageal reflux. |
| What is the typical radiographic appearance of a gastric ulcer? | A punctate barium collection that may appear surrounded by a lucent halo. |
| What is the importance of room preparation for an upper GI series? | To ensure the room is clean, tidy, and ready for the fluoroscopy procedure. |
| What is the significance of the term 'NPO'? | It stands for 'nil per os', meaning nothing by mouth, indicating that the patient should not eat or drink. |
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