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Final Exam Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the formed elements? Sodium and potassium Blood cells and platelets Bone marrow and the thymus Blood and lymph | Blood cells and platelets |
| What type of blood cell is biconcave and lacks a nucleus when they are mature? White blood cells Red blood cells Platelets Macrophages | Red blood cells |
| Which cell type is an agranulocyte? Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils Monocytes | Monocytes |
| Which statement describes platelets? Giant multinucleated cells Immature leukocytes Cytoplasmic fragments of cells Lymphoid cells | Cytoplasmic fragments of cells |
| What is the primary function of lymphocytes? To phagocytize damaged cells. To produce enzymes that dissolve blood clots. To release substances that initiate blood clots. To act against foreign substances. | To act against foreign substances. |
| Biliverdin and bilirubin are pigments that result from the breakdown of__________. leukocytes hemoglobin foreign pathogens erythropoietin | hemoglobin |
| What is the order of the breakdown products of hemoglobin? Hemoglobin → heme → biliverdin → bilirubin Hemoglobin → bilirubin → heme → biliverdin Hemoglobin → heme → bilirubin → biliverdin Hemoglobin → biliverdin → bilirubin → heme | Hemoglobin → heme → biliverdin → bilirubin |
| Which of the formed elements releases serotonin? Erythrocytes Platelets Neutrophils Basophils | Platelets |
| Which of the following functions as a phagocyte? Erythrocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils | Neutrophils |
| How does heparin prevent the clotting of blood? By binding to calcium ions By interfering with the formation of thrombin and fibrinogen By inhibiting the formation of prothrombin activator and the action of thrombin on fibrinogen By depleting the blood of platelets | By inhibiting the formation of prothrombin activator and the action of thrombin on fibrinogen |
| What type of white blood cell is important in immunity? Lymphocytes Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes | Lymphocytes |
| What is diapedesis? The formation of platelets from megakaryocytes. The filling of red blood cells with hemoglobin. The movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls. The squeezing of red blood cells through narrow capillaries. | The movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls. |
| The hormone__________ controls red blood cell production via a__________ feedback mechanism. erythropoietin; negative colony-stimulating factor; positive erythropoietin; positive colony-stimulating factor; negative | erythropoietin; negative |
| Creatinine is an example of what type of plasma component? Plasma proteins Formed elements Blood gases Nonprotein nitrogenous substances | Nonprotein nitrogenous substances |
| Plasma electrolytes include__________. bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils fibrinogen, globulins, and albumin creatinine, urea, and uric acid | bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions |
| What is the difference between serum and plasma? Plasma contains calcium; serum does not. Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does. Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not. Plasma contains albumin; serum does not. | Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not. |
| Prothrombin time is a blood test used to evaluate the__________. intravascular clotting mechanism fibrinolysis mechanism extrinsic clotting mechanism intrinsic clotting mechanism | extrinsic clotting mechanism |
| Thrombocytopenia is due to a deficiency of__________. vitamin K platelets leukocytes factor VII | platelets |
| What determines an individual's blood type? Proteins (antibodies) on the surface of red blood cells Proteins (antibodies) circulating in blood plasma Proteins (antigens) on the surface of white blood cells Proteins (antigens) on the surfaces of red blood cells | Proteins (antigens) on the surfaces of red blood cells |
| In what situation might erythroblastosis fetalis occur? A second Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman A first Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman A second Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman A first Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman | A second Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman |
| Which is true about an individual who is Rh-negative? Their plasma contains Rh antigens. Their red blood cells lack the Rh antigens. Their red blood cells lack the Rh antibodies. The Rh antigens are present in the plasma, but not on the red blood cells. | Their red blood cells lack the Rh antigens. |
| Which of the following describes leukemia? The blood has too many immature white blood cells. The red blood cell count is too low. The platelets are malformed and are low in number. The red blood cells are misshapen and become lodged in capillaries. | The blood has too many immature white blood cells. |
| What is the main function of plasma albumin? Acting as antibodies of immunity Transporting lipids and fat-soluble vitamins Serving as an energy source Helping to maintain colloid osmotic pressure | Helping to maintain colloid osmotic pressure |
| What element is part of a hemoglobin molecule? Cobalt Iron Copper Iodine | Iron |
| What is the normal pH of blood? 6.8 to 7.0 7.0 to 7.2 7.3 to 7.5 7.6 to 7.8 | 7.3 to 7.5 |
| What is a normal hematocrit? 25% 30% 45% 60% | 45% |
| Blood vessels called__________ carry blood toward the heart, and__________ carry blood away from the heart. veins; arteries arteries; veins capillaries; arteries veins; capillaries | veins; arteries |
| Why is the cardiovascular system vital to survival? It supplies oxygen and nutrients to cells. It ensures that the lungs fully inflate. It delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen. It delivers waste molecules to vital organs. | It supplies oxygen and nutrients to cells. |
| What is a function of the pulmonary circuit? It carries oxygen-poor blood to the heart. It carries oxygen-poor blood to the tissues. It carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. It carries oxygen-poor blood from the tissues. | It carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. |
| What is a function of the systemic circuit? It carries oxygen-rich blood to the tissues of the body It carries oxygen-poor blood to the tissues. It carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. It carries oxygen-poor blood to the heart. | It carries oxygen-rich blood to the tissues of the body |
| During ventricular contraction, what is the status of the atrioventricular valves? The mitral valve is opened and the tricuspid valve is closed. The tricuspid valve is open and the mitral valve is closed. The mitral and tricuspid valves both are closed. The mitral and tricuspid valves both are open. | The mitral and tricuspid valves both are closed. |
| Name the tough outermost layer of the sac that surrounds the heart. Fibrous pericardium Visceral pericardium Epicardium Endocardium | Fibrous pericardium |
| What forms the skeleton of the heart? Bone within the myocardium Bone within the interatrial septum Fibrous connective tissue in the endocardium Fibrous connective tissue around the valves | Fibrous connective tissue around the valves |
| What layer lines the chambers of the heart? Epicardium Myocardium Endocardium Pericardium | Endocardium |
| Name the layers of the the wall of the heart and surrounding structures from deep to superficial. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium | Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium |
| Blood entering the right atrium comes from what structure(s)? Pulmonary trunk Venae cavae and coronary sinus Pulmonary veins Right ventricle | Venae cavae and coronary sinus |
| What is the function of atrial natriuretic peptide? Stimulates release of adrenal cortical hormones, causing widespread vasoconstriction Increases excretion of sodium ions and water by kidneys, decreasing blood volume Inhibits excretion of sodium ions and water by kidneys, increasing blood pressure Stimulates myocardial contraction, increasing cardiac output | Increases excretion of sodium ions and water by kidneys, decreasing blood volume |
| The pain of angina pectoris results from a blockage in an artery that supplies what structure/area? Left arm and shoulder Neck and jaw Heart Brain | Heart |
| What chambers of the heart will contain oxygen-poor blood? Right atrium and right ventricle Right atrium and left atrium Left atrium and left ventricle Left atrium and right ventricle | Right atrium and right ventricle |
| Which valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle? Tricuspid valve Pulmonary valve Mitral valve Aortic valve | Mitral valve |
| Which ECG wave is correctly described? P wave: depolarization of atria QRS complex: repolarization of ventricles T wave: depolarization of ventricles QRS complex: depolarization of atria | P wave: depolarization of atria |
| What is the correct sequence of components of the cardiac conduction system? AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers→ AV bundle AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers → SA node SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → AV bundle SA node → AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers | SA node → AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers |
| What is the normal pacemaker of the heart? Purkinje fibers AV bundle Sinoatrial node Atrioventricular node | Sinoatrial node |
| What causes the P wave on an ECG? Repolarization of atrial myocardium Repolarization of ventricular myocardium Depolarization of atrial myocardium Depolarization of ventricular myocardium | Depolarization of atrial myocardium |
| What causes the T wave on an ECG? Repolarization of atrial myocardium Repolarization of ventricular myocardium Depolarization of atrial myocardium Depolarization of ventricular myocardium | Repolarization of ventricular myocardium |
| What term refers to an abnormally slow heart rate? Tachycardia Bradycardia Fibrillation Infarction | Bradycardia |
| The ventricular walls and the atrial walls each form a functional syncytium. What does this term mean? A mass of cells functioning as a unit A structure that contains blood A hollow structure lined by endothelium Tissue with a high rate of blood flow | A mass of cells functioning as a unit |
| How does potassium affect heart rate? It binds calcium, not allowing calcium to enter the sarcoplasm. It acts as a gate for sodium channels in cell membranes. It affects the electrical potential of the cell membranes. It binds to troponin, blocking calcium from binding to the site. | It affects the electrical potential of the cell membranes. |
| What is released by the endothelium? Nitric oxide Oxygen Nitrogen Methane | Nitric oxide |
| What is the effect of nitric oxide in blood vessels? Causes increased permeability and leakiness of capillary walls Causes vasoconstriction Causes vasodilation Causes decreased permeability and leakiness of capillary walls | Causes vasodilation |
| In capillary beds, the net inward pressure at the venular ends of the capillaries is less than the net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of the capillaries. What is the result of this difference in pressures? More fluid flows into the capillaries than moves out. Lymphatic vessels push fluid into the capillaries. Pressure in the venules increases. More fluid leaves the capillaries than returns. | More fluid leaves the capillaries than returns. |
| What blood vessels hold the greatest volume of blood? Arteries Arterioles Capillaries Veins | Veins |
| Why does fluid leave capillaries at their arteriolar end and enter at the venular end? Hydrostatic pressure is lower than osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end and higher at the venular end. Hydrostatic pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end and lower at the venular end. | Hydrostatic pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end and lower at the venular end. |
| What is described by the Frank-Starling law of the heart? That the SA node will act as the pacemaker That the quantity of blood that enters the heart equals the quantity that is pumped out That blood will only flow through the coronary circulation during diastole That cardiac output is equal to heart rate times stroke volume | That the quantity of blood that enters the heart equals the quantity that is pumped out |
| Which of the following is increased when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases? End-diastolic volume Stroke volume Venous return Total peripheral resistance | Stroke volume |
| What is preload? Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle during each cardiac cycle Amount of stretch of myocardial cells prior to contraction Pressure in arteries, against which the heart is pumping blood The amount of fluid leaking from capillaries, diminishing blood volume | Amount of stretch of myocardial cells prior to contraction |
| What is the effect of vasoconstriction? Peripheral resistance decreases Viscosity increases Heart rate decreases Blood pressure increases | Blood pressure increases |
| Plasma proteins contribute to the__________ pressure of the blood. osmotic filtration hydrostatic central venous | osmotic |
| When is blood pressure in the large systemic arteries the greatest? During atrial systole During ventricular systole During ventricular diastole During atrial diastole | During ventricular systole |
| Which of the following helps return blood to the heart? Positive pressure in thoracic cavity Valves in the arteries Contracting skeletal muscles End systolic volume | Contracting skeletal muscles |
| How is stroke volume calculated? SV = HR x BP SV = EDV - ESV SV = BP x PR SV = CO x PR | SV = EDV - ESV |
| How is pulse pressure calculated? PP = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure PP = systolic pressure x diastolic pressure PP = systolic pressure + diastolic pressure PP = systolic pressure / diastolic pressure | PP = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure |
| How does angiotensin II cause an increase in blood pressure? By increasing peripheral resistance By stimulating the release of renin By inhibiting the release of aldosterone By promoting the excretion of sodium | By increasing peripheral resistance |
| What structures contain chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide? Aortic bodies Aortic sinuses Aortic branches Aortic valves | Aortic bodies |
| The longest vein in the body is the__________. inferior vena cava great saphenous vein femoral vein hepatic portal vein | great saphenous vein |
| What is an example of a change due to aging of the cardiovascular system? The tunica interna of arteries thickens, decreasing arterial diameter. The direction of blood flow in some capillaries reverses, leading to more capillary filtration. Arteries become less rigid. Walls of veins lose collagen. | The tunica interna of arteries thickens, decreasing arterial diameter. |
| Valves help to ensure one-way blood flow in the__________. arteries and veins heart and veins heart and arteries capillaries | heart and veins |
| What is the function of the papillary muscles of the heart? To assist in the ejection of blood To help conduct cardiac impulses throughout the ventricular myocardium To prevent atrioventricular valves from prolapsing To hold the semilunar valves closed during ventricular diastole | To prevent atrioventricular valves from prolapsing |
| During the cardiac cycle, at the time of highest ventricular pressure, what is the status of the heart valves? Atrioventricular valves are closed; semilunar valves are open. Atrioventricular valves are open; semilunar valves are closed. Atrioventricular valves are open; semilunar valves are open. Atrioventricular valves are closed; semilunar valves are closed. | Atrioventricular valves are closed; semilunar valves are open. |
| What causes the first heart sound? When does this occur? Closure of the semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole Closure of the atrioventricular valves soon after the beginning of ventricular systole Closure of the semilunar valves soon after the beginning of ventricular systole Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole | Closure of the atrioventricular valves soon after the beginning of ventricular systole |
| What occurs in arteries that results in the disease called atherosclerosis? Holes slowly develop in the vessel walls. Sustained smooth muscle contraction causes reduced lumen size. Plaques containing cholesterol and other fats accumulate in the vessel walls. Valves become inflamed and eventually stiffen and become nonfunctional. | Plaques containing cholesterol and other fats accumulate in the vessel walls. |
| What type of capillary is "leakiest"? Continuous capillaries Fenestrated capillaries Sinusoidal capillaries | Sinusoidal capillaries |
| The__________ of the medulla oblongata send(s) sympathetic signals to arteriolar smooth muscle, helping to maintain peripheral resistance. baroreceptors vasomotor center cardiac center chemoreceptors | vasomotor center |
| Where would oxygen-poor blood be found? Pulmonary arteries and systemic veins Pulmonary veins and systemic arteries Pulmonary arteries and systemic arteries Pulmonary veins and systemic veins | Pulmonary arteries and systemic arteries |
| What happens that allows the SA nodal cells to spontaneously depolarize? Progressive increase in membrane permeability to calcium and sodium ions; decreasing permeability to potassium ions Progressive increase in membrane permeability to potassium and sodium ions; decreasing permeability to calcium ions Progressive increase in membrane permeability to calcium and potassium ions; decreasing permeability to sodium ions | Progressive increase in membrane permeability to calcium and sodium ions; decreasing permeability to potassium ions |
| How does the hepatic portal system differ from other parts of the circulation? Blood flows from capillaries to veins to a second set of capillaries and veins before returning to the heart. Blood flows directly from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillary beds. Blood flows through an extensive network of interconnecting arteries and arterioles before entering the capillary beds. Blood flows from veins into arteries then back to veins before returning to the heart. | Blood flows from capillaries to veins to a second set of capillaries and veins before returning to the heart. |
| What are pathogens? A type of antibody Agents that alter DNA base sequences Disease-causing agents Phagocytic leukocytes | Disease-causing agents |
| The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)__________. artery arteriole vein capillary | vein |
| From the collecting ducts, lymph enters__________ and becomes part of the__________. lymphatic trunks; interstital fluid capillaries; blood supply veins; plasma lymph nodes; tissue fluid | veins; plasma |
| How does lymph differ from plasma? Lymph has more protein than plasma. Lymph contains only white blood cells and plasma contains both red and white blood cells. Lymph is colorless and plasma is red. Lymph provides nutrients to tissues and plasma provides oxygen. | Lymph contains only white blood cells and plasma contains both red and white blood cells. |
| Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system? Returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream. Protecting the body against infection. Transporting oxygen-poor blood back to the venous system. Transporting the products of lipid digestion from the intestine to the liver. | Transporting oxygen-poor blood back to the venous system. |
| Tissue fluid is formed when fluid__________ and lymph is formed when fluid__________. is forced out of lymph vessels; enters lymph capillaries is forced out of blood plasma; enters blood capillaries is forced out of lymph capillaries; enters blood capillaries is forced out of blood plasma; enters lymph capillaries | is forced out of blood plasma; enters lymph capillaries |
| The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels and nerves pass is called the__________. sinus capsule nodule hilum | hilum |
| Cervical lymph nodes filter lymph draining from what region? Scalp and face Upper limb and mammary gland Thoracic viscera Abdominal viscera | Upper limb and mammary gland |
| Name the class of hormones that stimulate maturation of T lymphocytes. Insulins Gonadotropins Thyroid hormones Thymosins | Thymosins |
| How can the innate defenses be characterized? Fast and nonspecific Slow and nonspecific Fast and specific Slow and specific | Fast and nonspecific |
| How do viruses differ from other pathogens? They are larger than most other pathogens. They are more likely to cause life-threatening infections. They are not capable of reproducing outside a living cell. They are multicellular. | They are not capable of reproducing outside a living cell. |
| What cells make up the mononuclear phagocytic system? T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes Monocytes and macrophages Basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils Mast cells and megakaryocytes | Monocytes and macrophages |
| Virus-infected cells release__________ that function to protect nearby cells from becoming infected. complement interferons perforin exudate | interferons |
| What is the effect of interleukin-1 secretion? An allergic response An antibody response Fever Cytokine secretion | Fever |
| Mucus, tears, saliva, and hair are all examples of what type of defense against potential pathogens? Adaptive defenses Chemical barriers Mononuclear phagocytic system Mechanical barriers | Mechanical barriers |
| What defense mechanism responds to the presence of foreign antigens by initiating a cascade of reactions, resulting in inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis in the area? Adaptive defenses Interferon Complement system Natural killer cells | Complement system |
| What responses to a pathogen are slower but more specific? Innate defenses Adaptive defenses Nonspecific defenses Inborn defenses | Adaptive defenses |
| What type of immunoglobulins are involved in type I hypersensitivity? IgM IgA IgE IgD | IgE |
| What is the target of cytotoxic T cells? Anitgen-presenting cells Antigens in solution Cancer cells and virally infected cells Helper T cells | Cancer cells and virally infected cells |
| How do cytotoxic T cells destroy their targeted cells? They release perforin which puts holes in the cell membranes of the targeted cells. They produce antibodies that bind to and stimulate phagocytosis of the targeted cells. They cause helper T cells to directly attack the targeted cells, using cytokines as signals. They directly phagocytize the targeted cells, engulfing and destroying them. | They release perforin which puts holes in the cell membranes of the targeted cells. |
| What is the result of a cellular immune response? B cells produce antibodies that attack antigens. T cells produce antibodies that attack antigens. T cells attach directly to cells displaying foreign antigens and destroy them. B cells attach directly to cells displaying foreign antigens and destroy them. | T cells attach directly to cells displaying foreign antigens and destroy them. |
| How does a vaccine produce its effects? By directly binding to the antigens and neutralizing them. By using chemotaxis to attract antigens to areas where the vaccine can destroy them. By stimulating a primary immune response. By activating autoantibodies. | By stimulating a primary immune response. |
| What is a function of the digestive system? Ingests and breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and defecates the unabsorbed material. Mechanically and chemically assembles food from absorbed nutrients. Sends cellular debris to lysosomes. Absorbs nutrients in the mouth, pharynx, esophagus and stomach, and releases nutrients in the intestines. | Ingests and breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and defecates the unabsorbed material. |
| Where does peristalsis occur in the digestive tract? From the pharynx to the anus In the stomach and small intestine only In the small and large intestines only In the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine | From the pharynx to the anus |
| What is a function of saliva? Absorbing fat from ingested food Cleansing the esophagus Breaking food into smaller pieces Beginning the chemical digestion of carbohydrates | Beginning the chemical digestion of carbohydrates |
| What stimulates the secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall? Protein in the stomach Carbohydrates in the small intestine Fat in the stomach Protein and fat in the small intestine | Protein and fat in the small intestine |
| What regulates pancreatic secretion of digestive enzymes? Bile salts Cholesterol Cholecystokinin The amount of food eaten | Cholecystokinin |
| Which of the following is true about bile? Cholecystokinin stimulates its production. Secretin stimulates its release into the duodenum. It contains concentrated enzymes that digest carbohydrates. It is produced by the liver. | It is produced by the liver. |
| The mechanical breakup of food particles in the mouth is called__________. mastication salivation peristalsis absorption | mastication |
| What is secreted by the parietal cells of gastric glands? Mucus Pepsinogen Hydrochloric acid Pepsin | Hydrochloric acid |
| What is the action of the hormone secretin? Converts trypsinogen to trypsin Activates chymotrypsin Stimulates release of pancreatic juice Inhibits the action of pancreatic lipase | Stimulates release of pancreatic juice |
| Which of the following is not a function of the liver? Maintaining blood glucose concentration Formation of urea Secretion of bile Secretion of insulin | Secretion of insulin |
| Which constituent of bile has a digestive function? Bile salts Bile pigments Cholesterol Electrolytes | Bile salts |
| The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct unite to form the__________. common bile duct hepatic duct hepatopancreatic duct pancreatic duct | common bile duct |
| The major mixing movement in the small intestine is accomplished by__________. peristalsis churning segmentation mass movement | segmentation |
| Chylomicrons transport dietary fats to__________ through the blood. bones and cartilage neurons and neuroglia the liver and gallbladder muscle and adipose cells | muscle and adipose cells |
| What organ produces VLDL? Pancreas Liver Kidneys Stomach | Liver |
| What is one of the functions of the large intestine? To secrete digestive enzymes To absorb ingested water To regulate the release of bile To break down hemoglobin | To absorb ingested water |
| Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract? Esophagus Large intestine Oral cavity Liver | Liver |
| Where are nucleic acids chemically digested? In the mouth In the stomach In the small intestine In the large intestine | In the small intestine |
| What condition can result from excess calcium in the diet? Deposition of calcium in soft tissue Brittle teeth Cracked fingernails Stunted growth | Deposition of calcium in soft tissue |
| Why might Vitamin A deficiency take years to become noticeable? It is difficult to eat too many carrots. Most vitamin A leaves the body in urine. The liver stores it. The symptoms are mostly unnoticeable. | The liver stores it. |
| What is the condition that results from poor nutrition, lack of nutrients, or the failure to use them? Malnutrition Malabsorption Food intolerance Food allergy | Malnutrition |
| Treatment with antibiotic drugs is sometimes followed by a deficiency of vitamin__________. A C D K | K |
| Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are classified as__________. nanonutrients micronutrients macronutrients piconutrients | macronutrients |
| Cells of the__________ system require a continuous supply of glucose. muscular respiratory digestive nervous | nervous |
| What monosaccarides are part of RNA and DNA? Glucose and galactose Sucrose and fructose Ribose and deoxyribose Glucose and glycogen | Ribose and deoxyribose |
| Which of the following is high in monounsaturated fats? Olive oil Butter Palm oil Coconut oil | Olive oil |
| Which of the following provide(s) a source of complete proteins? Eggs Corn Rice Wheat | Eggs |
| How many essential amino acids are needed by adults? 2 4 6 8 | 8 |
| A large calorie (kilocalorie) equals the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a kilogram of water by__________ degree(s) Celsius. 0.1 1 10 100 | 1 |
| Which of the following vitamins can promote intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus? Vitamin A Vitamin K Niacin Vitamin D | Vitamin D |
| Intrinsic factor is important in the absorption of__________. biotin folacin vitamin B6 vitamin B12 | vitamin B12 |
| The vitamin that functions as part of coenzyme A is___________. pyridoxine pantothenic acid niacin riboflavin | pantothenic acid |
| Which of the following is a trace element? Magnesium Sulfur Iron Chlorine | Iron |
| What is a function of iron in the body? Needed for synthesis of hemoglobin Needed for blood clotting process Needed for synthesis of thyroid hormone Needed for activation of digestive enzymes | Needed for synthesis of hemoglobin |
| Which of the following respiratory volumes is the largest? Expiratory reserve volume Inspiratory reserve volume Residual volume Tidal volume | Inspiratory reserve volume |
| You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a high pitch. What must you do to reach these high notes? Change the force of the air passing over your vocal cords. Increase the tension of your vocal cords. Change the shape of your laryngeal cartilages. Constrict the airways of your upper respiratory tract. | Increase the tension of your vocal cords. |
| You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a louder, more intense sound. What must you do to produce a louder sound? Change the force of the air passing over your vocal cords. Increase the tension of your vocal cords. Constrict the airways of your upper respiratory tract. Change the shape of your laryngeal cartilages. | Change the force of the air passing over your vocal cords. |
| What is illuminated when a flashlight is placed just below the eyebrow in a darkened room? Frontal sinus Maxillary sinus Sphenoid sinus Ethmoid sinus | Frontal sinus |
| Laryngitis occurs when the larynx becomes irritated and inflamed from an infection, acid reflux, or strenuous use of the vocal cords. Which of the following symptoms would you directly associate with having laryngitis, considering the structures affected? Swollen tongue and tonsils Runny nose and painful sinuses Loss of voice or a quiet, raspy voice Chest pain | Loss of voice or a quiet, raspy voice |
| Why do premature newborns often develop respiratory distress syndrome? They do not have sufficient levels of surfactant. They lack a respiratory membrane. Their blood would have low oxygen concentrations. They are unable to contract their diaphragm in order to inspire. | They do not have sufficient levels of surfactant. |
| What would happen to partial pressures of gases in the blood if the breathing rate did not increase with physical exercise? They would remain unchanged. Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood would drop. Partial pressure of O2 in the blood would increase. Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood would increase. | Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood would increase. |
| "I'm going to hold my breath until I die and it will be all your fault!" shrieked 6-year-old Riley at her father. Why would she be unable to carry out her threat? The diaphragm will begin to fatigue and will not be able to hold its contracted position for more than a short period of time. Increased CO2 and hydrogen ion concentrations and decreased oxygen concentration stimulate her chemoreceptors, triggering inspiration. | Increased CO2 and hydrogen ion concentrations and decreased oxygen concentration stimulate her chemoreceptors, triggering inspiration. |
| A__________ is a condition in which air separates the visceral and parietal pleura in the chest, resulting in a collapsed lung. intrapleural pressure surfactant production serous fluid production pneumothorax | pneumothorax |
| What is the result of hyperventilation? Decreased PCO2 and decreased pH Decreased PCO2 and increased pH Increased PCO2 and decreased pH Increased PCO2 and increased pH | Decreased PCO2 and increased pH |
| Max works out about an hour every day using machines at his gym. What changes occur during his moderate physical exercise? Breathing rate increases, PO2 and PCO2 both increase. Breathing rate increases, and PO2 and PCO2 remain nearly unchanged. Breathing rate increases, PO2 decreases, and PCO2 increases. Breathing rate increases, PO2 increases, and PCO2 decreases. | Breathing rate increases, and PO2 and PCO2 remain nearly unchanged. |
| Police stop a very drunk Richard for driving erratically at 3 AM and give him a breathalyzer test, which he fails miserably. Why does he fail so badly? Alcohol molecules diffuse from his blood into the alveoli through the respiratory membrane, allowing them to become detectable by the machine. The thickness of his respiratory membranes prevent alcohol from evaporating out of his blood. | Alcohol molecules diffuse from his blood into the alveoli through the respiratory membrane, allowing them to become detectable by the machine. |
| A mother and two young children are found passed out in their apartment, where a space heater is on. Emergency medical technicians suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. Why is carbon monoxide dangerous? It drastically decreases the pH of the blood. It binds to the oxygen-binding site on hemoglobin, so the O2-carrying ability of the blood is reduced. It causes extreme depression of the respiratory rate. | It binds to the oxygen-binding site on hemoglobin, so the O2-carrying ability of the blood is reduced. |
| In October 2001 at the site of the World Trade Center in New York City, fires were still burning from the terrorist attacks that had brought down the buildings on September 11. What was the greatest danger for the respiratory systems of those people in the area? The odor Very small particles of airborne debris Large particles of airborne debris Falling material from damaged buildings | Very small particles of airborne debris |
| Instead of using pure oxygen in a clinical situation, carbon dioxide is typically part of the gas mixture used. What is the benefit of having carbon dioxide in this gas mixture? It will increase the rate and decrease the depth of breathing. It will increase the rate and depth of breathing. It will decrease the rate and increase the depth of breathing. It will decrease the rate and depth of breathing. | It will increase the rate and depth of breathing. |
| The process called__________ involves gas exchange between the atmosphere and the cells of the body and the resulting chemical reactions that provide the cells with energy to function. breathing oxidation respiration metabolism | respiration |
| Describe the process of ventilation. Delivery of oxygen to cells Forcible movement of oxygen molecules into the bloodstream Delivery of carbon dioxide to cells Movement of air into and out of lungs | Movement of air into and out of lungs |
| Where are the vocal cords located? In the pharynx In the larynx In the trachea In the oral cavity | In the larynx |
| What is the correct order of structures, from superior to inferior? Nasopharynx → oropharynx → laryngopharynx Oropharynx → laryngopharynx → nasopharynx Oropharynx → nasopharynx → laryngopharynx Laryngopharynx → oropharynx → nasopharynx | Nasopharynx → oropharynx → laryngopharynx |
| The nasal cavity is lined with__________ epithelium. pseudostratified ciliated stratified squamous simple columnar stratified columnar | pseudostratified ciliated |
| Which statement describes the trachea? It is lined with simple squamous epithelium. It is comprised of C-shaped cartilage rings. It is a passageway for food and for air. It contains no air-filtering mechanisms. | It is comprised of C-shaped cartilage rings. |
| The right lung has__________ lobes; the left lung has__________ lobes. three; two two; two three; three two; three | three; two |
| Following a normal inspiration, the volume of additional air that enters the lungs during forced maximal inspiration is called the__________. inspiratory reserve volume expiratory reserve volume vital capacity tidal volume | inspiratory reserve volume |
| Name the volume of air that is moved in (or out) during a single quiet respiratory cycle. Inspiratory reserve volume Vital capacity Tidal volume Expiratory reserve volume | Tidal volume |
| Where are the respiratory control areas located? Cerebral cortex Pons and medulla oblongata Alveoli Hypothalamus | Pons and medulla oblongata |
| Which of the following has an effect on the pH of blood? Oxygen Phosphate Carbon dioxide Nitrogen | Carbon dioxide |
| Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located? In the right and left atria In the medulla oblongata and pons In the aortic arch and carotid arteries In the right and left jugular veins | In the aortic arch and carotid arteries |
| What type of tissue forms the walls of the alveoli? Ciliated columnar epithelium Simple squamous epithelium Stratified squamous epithelium Areolar connective tissue | Simple squamous epithelium |
| The presense of__________ in the alveoli ensure that particles brought in with inhaled air are removed. surfactant antibodies macrophages lymphocytes | macrophages |
| What protein can transport some of the carbon dioxide in the blood? Hemoglobin Carbonic anhydrase Heme Albumin | Hemoglobin |
| What is globin? Another term for alveolus A carrier for carbon dioxide A molecule produced when CO2 combines with water The protein part of hemoglobin | The protein part of hemoglobin |
| What is atelectasis? Collapsed bronchial tube Deviated septum Collapse of a lung or a region of a lung Blockage of respiratory passages due to accumulation of mucus | Collapse of a lung or a region of a lung |
| How is oxygen transported in the blood? 98% bound to hemoglobin; 2% dissolved in plasma 95% bound to hemoglobin; 3% bound to albumin; 2% dissolved in plasma 90% bound to hemoglobin; 10% dissolved in plasma 100% bound to hemoglobin | 98% bound to hemoglobin; 2% dissolved in plasma |
| How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? 70% transported as HCO3-; 23% bound to hemoglobin; 7% dissolved in plasma 98% bound to hemoglobin; 2% transported as HCO3- 50% transported as HCO3-; 25% bound to hemoglobin; 25% dissolved in plasma 95% transported as HCO3-; 3% bound to hemoglobin; 2% dissolved in plasma | 70% transported as HCO3-; 23% bound to hemoglobin; 7% dissolved in plasma |
| What is included in the process of external respiration? Gas exchange at the tissues Gas exchange at the lungs Production of ATP by cells Transport of gases via the blood | Gas exchange at the lungs |
| Which of the following does not contain a paranasal sinus? maxilla frontal bone sphenoid bone zygomatic bone | zygomatic bone |
| Which of the following is not a function of the mucus-lined nasal passages? Warming inspired air Moistening inspired air Trapping small particles Cooling exhaled air | Cooling exhaled air |
| The pharynx functions as a passageway for__________, whereas the larynx functions as a passageway for__________. passageway for air and food; passageway for food only passageway for air only; passageway for air and food passageway for air and food; passageway for air only passageway for food only; passageway for air only | passageway for air and food; passageway for air only |
| What is a pneumothorax? Infection within the lung Air within the pleural space Abnormal constriction of the upper airways Loss of alveolar walls | Air within the pleural space |
| A__________ is a sudden inspiration caused by a spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm while the glottis is closed. yawn laugh sneeze hiccup | hiccup |
| What is typically the underlying cause of adult sleep apnea? Unresponsiveness of central chemoreceptors A deep sleep state in which respiration markedly slows Obstruction of upper airways Nasal congestion | Obstruction of upper airways |
| What is the correct sequence of renal tubule segments through which filtrate would flow? Proximal tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, distal tubule Distal tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, proximal tubule Proximal tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal tubule | Proximal tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal tubule |
| What is the sequence of blood flow through the kidneys? Renal artery, afferent arterioles, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, glomerular capillaries, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, efferent arterioles, renal vein Renal artery, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein | Renal artery, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein |
| Which of the following would increase the rate of glomerular filtration? Decreased blood pressure Increased blood pressure Constriction of the afferent arteriole Dilation of the efferent arteriole | Increased blood pressure |
| The efferent arteriole is stimulated to vasoconstrict. What effect will this have on glomerular filtration rate? Glomerular filtration rate will increase. Glomerular filtration rate will decrease. Glomerular filtration will stop. | Glomerular filtration rate will increase. |
| A decrease in the glomerular capsule hydrostatic pressure will__________ the rate of glomerular filtration. increase decrease not change have a variable effect on | increase |
| About how many liters of fluid will an average adult filter through both kidneys in two days? 180 250 360 540 | 360 |
| What are the organs of the urinary system? The renal cortex, renal pelvis, and renal medulla. The glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, the nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule, and the collecting duct. The major and minor calyces, renal pelvis, and renal sinus. The paired kidneys, paired ureters, a bladder and a urethra. | The paired kidneys, paired ureters, a bladder and a urethra. |
| The renal corpuscle includes what two structures? Glomerulus and glomerular capsule Glomerulus and renal tubule Glomerular capsule and renal tubule Renal tubule and collecting tubule | Glomerulus and glomerular capsule |
| A nephron consists of what structures? A renal corpuscle and a renal tubule An afferent and efferent arteriole A cortex and a medulla A bladder and a ureter | A renal corpuscle and a renal tubule |
| Podocytes and pedicels are associated with what structure? Collecting duct Distal tubule Glomerular capsule Peritubular capillaries | Glomerular capsule |
| The hormone ADH promotes water reabsorption through the wall(s) of the__________. distal tubule and collecting duct proximal tubule and collecting duct ascending limb of the nephron loop descending limb of the nephron loop | distal tubule and collecting duct |
| Which of the following is a normal constituent of urine? Glucose Creatinine Large proteins Blood | Creatinine |
| What is renal clearance? The rate at which water is excreted The rate at which ions are reabsorbed The rate at which substance are removed from the blood The rate at which substances are added to the blood | The rate at which substance are removed from the blood |
| What is an adaptation of the epithelial cells of the proximal tubule that enhances reabsorption? Thin walls Rugae folds Secrete enzymes that activate absorption of substances Microscopic projections called microvilli | Microscopic projections called microvilli |
| Glomerular filtration produces about__________ liters of fluid in twenty-four hours. 40 96 144 180 | 180 |
| Water channels in cell membranes formed by__________ are a result of ADH signaling in the kidneys. podocytes cytopores aquaporins pyrogens | aquaporins |
| What is a by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver? Uric acid Urea Hydrochloric acid Water | Urea |
| Up to__________ of urea in tubular fluid is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts, only to be secreted into the ascending limb. 33% 55% 80% 100% | 80% |
| Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy is used to treat__________. kidney failure a urinary tract infection kidney stones gout | kidney stones |
| The__________ is the tube that conveys urine outside the body. ureter urethra collecting duct nephron loop | urethra |
| Where is the micturition reflex center? In the sacral segments of the spinal cord In the medulla oblongata In the cerebrum In the hypothalamus | In the sacral segments of the spinal cord |
| What is a function of the kindeys? Synthesis of vitamin D Regulation of blood-glucose levels Excretion of carbon dioxide Regulation of lymphocyte production | Synthesis of vitamin D |
| Afferent arterioles are branches of the__________. renal arteries arcuate arteries cortical radiate arteries efferent arterioles | cortical radiate arteries |
| Blood flows from the efferent arterioles into the__________. renal arteries peritubular capillaries arcuate arteries glomerular capillaries | peritubular capillaries |
| Why are water balance and electrolyte balance considered to be interdependent? Because water dissolves in electrolytes Because water and electrolytes are both in an ionic state in the blood Because both form ions in blood Because electrolytes are dissolved in water | Because electrolytes are dissolved in water |
| Which of the following is a type of transcellular fluid? Cerebrospinal fluid Interstitial fluid Blood plasma Cytoplasm | Cerebrospinal fluid |
| Compared to the body of an average adult male, the body of an average adult female will have__________. more water and more adipose tissue more water and less adipose tissue less water and more adipose tissue less water and less adipose tissue | less water and more adipose tissue |
| In terms of electrolyte concentrations, how does extracellular fluid compare to intracellular fluid? ECF has higher sodium and lower potassium ion concentrations. ECF has higher sodium and higher potassium ion concentrations. ECF has lower sodium and lower potassium ion concentrations. ECF has lower sodium and higher potassium ion concentrations. | ECF has higher sodium and lower potassium ion concentrations. |
| High concentrations of__________ are found in intracellular fluid. chloride and potassium ions sodium and phosphate ions potassium and phosphate ions sodium and chloride ions | potassium and phosphate ions |
| What factors are most important in influencing the movement of fluid between compartments? Diffusion and osmosis Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure Pinocytosis and phagocytosis Active and passive transport | Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure |
| The body of an average adult male is about__________ water by weight. 35% 45% 55% 65% | 65% |
| What is the largest compartment of extracellular fluid? Plasma Lymph Interstitial fluid Transcellular fluid | Interstitial fluid |
| Since hydrostatic pressure in cells and in the surrounding interstitial fluid is typically equal, what is the cause of fluid movement between these two compartments? Active transport Osmotic pressure Filtration pressure Pinocytosis | Osmotic pressure |
| What is metabolic water? Water that a person drinks after exercising Water that is in food A by-product of the oxidative metabolism of nutrients Water consumed in beverages | A by-product of the oxidative metabolism of nutrients |
| The thirst center in the hypothalamus is stimulated by__________ of the extra cellular fluid, and is inhibited by__________. an increase in the osmotic pressure; distension of the stomach by water a decrease in the osmotic pressure; stimulation of osmoreceptors a decrease in sodium ions; an increase in sodium ions nerve impulses from the cerebrum; nerve impulses from the thalamus | an increase in the osmotic pressure; distension of the stomach by water |
| How does ADH in the blood influence water output? The glomerular filtration rate is altered. The amount of water reabsorbed at the nephron loops is altered. The amount of water reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is altered. The amount of sodium ions reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is altered. | The amount of water reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is altered. |
| A decrease in total body water of only__________ will trigger thirst. 1% 10% 25% 58% | 1% |
| By what route would a person in a moderate environment lose the greatest volume of water? Sweat Breathing Feces Urine | Urine |
| How does activation of the renin-angiotensin system affect electrolyte balance? It stimulates release of aldosterone, which alters the handling of sodium and potassium by the kidneys. It stimulates the release of antidiuretic hormone, which alters the handling of sodium and potassium by the kidneys. | It stimulates release of aldosterone, which alters the handling of sodium and potassium by the kidneys. |
| What is the action of the hormone aldosterone? Increased reabsorption of sodium ions from kidney tubules Increased secretion of calcium ions into kidney tubules Increased kidney tubule permeability to water Increased reabsorption of potassium from kidney tubules | Increased reabsorption of sodium ions from kidney tubules |
| What is a stimulus for release of aldosterone? Increasing potassium ion concentration Increasing blood osmolarity Increasing sodium ion concentration Increasing calcium ion concentration | Increasing potassium ion concentration |
| In response to the action of__________, sodium ions are conserved and potassium ions are excreted in the urine. atrial natriuretic peptide angiotensin aldosterone antidiuretic hormone | aldosterone |
| Which of the following would be most helpful in treating hypocalcemia? Removing the parathyroid glands Ingesting calcium salts and high doses of vitamin D Stimulating calcium excretion by the kidneys Avoiding foods that are high in calcium | Ingesting calcium salts and high doses of vitamin D |
| Which of the following processes releases hydrogen ions into body fluids? Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis Aerobic respiration of glucose Production of carbonic acid Conversion of monohydrogen phosphate ions to dihydrogen phosphate | Aerobic respiration of glucose |
| How do buffer systems minimize pH changes? By converting weak acids to strong acids By converting strong acids to weak acids By increasing breathing rate By promoting the excretion of hydrogen ions | By converting strong acids to weak acids |
| Increased carbon dioxide production is associated with a(n)__________ in fluid pH. decrease increase | decrease |
| Which of the following is a physiological buffer? Bicarbonate buffer Phosphate buffer Protein buffer Renal mechanism | Renal mechanism |
| What components of amino acids are important in the protein buffer system? Amino groups and R groups Amino and carboxyl groups Monocarbonate and bicarbonate groups Monohydrogen phosphate and dihydrogen phosphate groups | Amino and carboxyl groups |
| Which of the following will cause the respiratory center to increase the breathing rate? Decrease in plasma concentration of carbonic acid Decrease in plasma pH Increase in plasma osmolarity Increase in plasma concentration of bicarbonate ion | Decrease in plasma pH |
| Why are the chemical buffers considered the first line of defense against shifts in pH? They have fewer components than other regulators of pH. They are slow to react and have prolonged effects. They occur in everyone. They can rapidly correct pH change. | They can rapidly correct pH change. |
| How does the respiratory system function as a physiological buffer? By changing breathing rate, the PO2 of the blood is changed, which helps to reestablish a normal pH. By changing breathing rate, the PCO2 of the blood is changed, leading to a change in blood pH. By changing breathing rate, the amount of hydrogen ion expelled via the exhaled air can be changed. This will alter blood pH. | By changing breathing rate, the PCO2 of the blood is changed, leading to a change in blood pH. |
| What blood pH occurs with the condition called acidosis? above 7.45 7.35 to 7.45 below 7.35 | below 7.35 |
| What blood pH occurs with the condition called alkalosis? Above 7.45 7.35 to 7.45 Below 7.35 | Above 7.45 |
| How is a strong acid different from a weak acid? Strong acids ionize more completely than weak acids. Stong acids release hydrogen ions into solution; weak acids release hydroxide ions (OH-). Stong acids release hydroxide ions (OH-) into solution; weak acids release hydrogen ions. Strong acids partially ionize; weak acids ionize more completely. | Strong acids partially ionize; weak acids ionize more completely. |
| Prolonged vomiting of stomach contents can lead to__________. metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis | metabolic alkalosis |
| What acid-base imbalance results from hyperventilation? Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis | Respiratory alkalosis |
| What is meant by the phrase acid-base balance? Maintenance of the correct amount of bicarbonate ion in the blood Maintenance of the correct amount of carbonic acid in the blood Maintenance of the correct amount of hydrogen ion in the blood Maintenance of the correct amount of carbon dioxide in the blood | Maintenance of the correct amount of hydrogen ion in the blood |
| In the bicarbonate buffer system,__________ acts as a weak base. HCO3- CO2 H2CO3 H+ | HCO3- |
| What process can compensate for respiratory alkalosis? Increase in breathing rate Increase in secretion of bases by the kidneys Decrease in breathing rate Increase in secretion of hydrogen ion by the kidneys | Increase in secretion of bases by the kidneys |
| What is the function of a diuretic? To promote urine production To increase sodium reabsorption from the kidneys To increase glucose secretion into kidney tubules To increase potassium reabsorption from the kidneys | To promote urine production |
| A water imbalance called hypotonic hydration can lead to__________. hyponatremia diminished diuresis heatstroke excessive thirst | excessive thirst |
| Dehydration can be caused by__________. excessive water intake prolonged sleep deprivation prolonged vomiting or prolonged diarrhea obstruction of airways | prolonged vomiting or prolonged diarrhea |
| n the phosphate buffer system, which compound is the weak base? H+ HPO4-2 H2PO4- | HPO4-2 |
| What role can ammonia (NH3) play in acid-base balance? In renal tubules, it can buffer excess H+. In intracellular fluid, it can release H+ when pH gets too high. In the tissues, it can bind carbon dioxide so that CO2 is unable to undergo the bicarbonate reaction, lowering tissue pH. | In renal tubules, it can buffer excess H+. |
| What is edema? A response to dehydration Hyperproteinemia Abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid Decreased venous pressure | Abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid |
| Which of the following can result in hypernatremia? Hypothermia Insufficient ADH secretion Excessive fluid intake Excessive use of antacids | Insufficient ADH secretion |
| What is an effect of hypokalemia? Severe arrhythymias Acne Excessive sweating Diabetes insipidus | Severe arrhythymias |
| On average, an individual will drink enough fluids to take in__________ milliliters of water per day. 500 1,000 1,500 2,500 | 2,500 |
| Identify the correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I. Interphase → mitosis → meiosis Telophase I → anaphase I → metaphase I → prophase I 46 chromosomes → 23 chromosomes → 46 chromosomes Prophase I → metaphase I → anaphase I → telophase I | Prophase I → metaphase I → anaphase I → telophase I |
| How many chromosomes are present in each cell at the end of meiosis I? 12 chromosomes 23 chromosomes 46 chromosomes 68 chromosomes | 23 chromosomes |
| What structure does the sperm enter upon exiting the ductus deferens? Seminal vesicles Epididymis Ejaculatory duct Rete testis | Ejaculatory duct |
| What structure does the sperm enter upon exiting the epididymis? Penile urethra Rete testis Seminiferous tubules Ductus deferens | Ductus deferens |
| Describe the composition of semen. It contains 100 mature sperm. It is acidic. It includes prostaglandins and nutrients. It contains secretions from intersitial cells. | It includes prostaglandins and nutrients. |
| In the male, which of the following structures is unpaired? Seminal vesicle Ductus deferens Bulbourethral gland Prostate gland | Prostate gland |
| What is the structure of a testis? Composed of about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules. Composed of 1 to 4 lobules, each of which contains about 250 seminiferous tubules. Composed of very long, coiled seminiferous tubules and an epididymis. Composed of a single very long seminiferous tubule that winds through the structure. | Composed of about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules. |
| Which of the following correctly describes an erection? Smooth muscles of vascular spaces in the penis contract. Parasympathetic impulses constrict arteries leading to the penis. Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the penis. The spongy tissue in the penis fills with air. | Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the penis. |
| What is the function of the epididymis? Secretion of testosterone Secretion of mucus-like fluid Site of sperm maturation Ejaculation of sperm due to rhythmic contractions | Site of sperm maturation |
| Male reproductive functions are controlled mainly by hormones from the hypothalamus and what two structures? Posterior pituitary and adrenal glands Anterior pituitary and adrenal glands Posterior pituitary and testes Anterior pituitary and testes | Anterior pituitary and testes |
| The female structure that is analogous to the male penis is the_________. vagina clitoris vestibule labia minora | clitoris |
| In females, which structure is immediately anterior to the vagina? Uterus Urethra Rectum Pubis symphysis | Urethra |
| Menopause is due to aging of the________. ovaries vagina cervix uterine tube | ovaries |
| Why can undescended testes cause infertility? The testes are exposed to a higher internal body temperature, slowing sperm development. The testes secrete very little testosterone. The testes undergo apoptosis, and can no longer produce sperm. The testes become entangled in the seminiferous tubules, which then degenerate. | The testes are exposed to a higher internal body temperature, slowing sperm development. |
| A patient comes into the emergency room with a high fever. Blood testing reveals that their immune system is severely weakened, making them prone to infections. The patient also reports chronic weakness/fatigue. After discussing their problems with a doctor, they admit that they are a drug user and sometimes use dirty needles. Which of the following STIs is the patient most likely suffering from? Gonorrhea HIV infection Chlamydia Syphilis | HIV infection |
| A male patient comes into the clinic with his female partner. He complains of a painful burning sensation while urinating. He suspects an STI, but his partner has no symptoms to speak of. Which of the following STIs does he most likely have? Gonorrhea AIDs Chlamydia Syphilis | Gonorrhea |
| A female patient develops genital warts after recent sexual contact. What pathogen has she been exposed to? What complication can this pathogen produce if the infection advances? Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDs) Chlamydia trachomatis bacteria; pelvic inflammatory disease Human papilloma virus (HPV); risk of cervical cancer Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria; arthritis | Human papilloma virus (HPV); risk of cervical cancer |
| Arrange the following events in the correct sequence: ejaculation emission erection 1, 2, 3 3, 1, 2 3, 2, 1 2, 3, 1 | 3, 2, 1 |
| What occurs in the first step of oogenesis? Secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell. Primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body. Primary oocyte divides to form two secondary oocytes. Secondary oocyte divides to form two polar bodies. | Primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body. |
| In the reproductive cycle, estrogens__________, whereas progesterone__________. stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH | stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular |
| Where do sperm cells mature? In the ductus deferens In the ejaculatory duct In the epididymis In the seminal vesicle | In the epididymis |
| The first fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the__________. testes bulbourethral gland prostate gland seminal vesicles | bulbourethral gland |
| What hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics? LH FSH Testosterone GnRH | Testosterone |
| The interstitial cells of the testes produce_________. seminal fluid spermatogenic cells sperm cells androgens | androgens |
| A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the__________. urethra ovary cervix vagina | cervix |
| The uterine tube is located between what two structures? Uterus and the cervix Uterus and vagina Vagina and labia majora Ovary and uterus | Ovary and uterus |
| Fertilization normally occurs in the__________. ovary uterine tube uterus vagina | uterine tube |
| What female structure is a hairless fold that forms a hoodlike covering around the clitoris? Labia majora Mons pubis Crura Labia minora | Labia minora |
| The inner mucosal layer of the uterine wall is the_________. endometrium myometrium perimetrium epimetrium | endometrium |
| What hormone(s) is/are mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics? Estrogens Progesterone Androgens Luteinizing hormone | Estrogens |
| What are signs of menopause? Increased concentrations of estrogens Inexplicable euphoria, extra energy, weight loss Shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts Increased bone matrix | Shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts |
| What is a female secondary sex characteristic due to estrogens? Decrease in fat deposition in abdomen Development of breasts Increase in growth of body hair Enlargement of the vocal folds | Development of breasts |
| A woman going through menopause may take__________ to minimize the symptoms. gonadotropin-releasing hormone hormone replacement therapy follicle-stimulating hormone progesterone-releasing hormone | hormone replacement therapy |
| Which of the following is a chemical barrier type of contraceptive? Coitus interruptus Spermicidal cream Intrauterine device Diaphragm | Spermicidal cream |
| Which of the following provides mechanical contraception? The rhythm method The minipill Combined hormone contraceptives A male condom | A male condom |
| Name the secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female. Lactiferous sinuses Lactiferous ducts Alveolar glands Areolar glands | Alveolar glands |
| Final Review Anatomy 2 Study Material Jamie Garrison |
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