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Anatomy PracticeExam

QuestionAnswer
Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of: molecules. cytoplasm. organelles. plasma membranes. organelles.
An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which must be included? R hypochondriac, epigastric, and L hypochondriac R hypochondriac, R lumbar, and R iliac R iliac, hypogastric, and L iliac R lumbar, umbilical, and L lumbar Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac
An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is called a(n): tissue. organism. system. organ. tissue.
Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? Head pointing forward Body standing erect Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up All of the above describe the body in the anatomical position. Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up
Molecules are: atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates. electrons orbiting nuclei. a complex of electrons arranged in concentric shells. composed of cellular organelles. atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates.
A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know to find it in the _____ region. right lumbar right hypochondriac hypogastric umbilical right hypochondriac
A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is: sagittal. median. coronal. transverse. coronal.
The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane. sagittal frontal transverse superficial transverse
The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: stomach. pancreas. heart. reproductive organs. heart.
Two major cavities of the human body are: ventral/dorsal. inferior/superior. visceral/parietal. axial/appendicular. ventral/dorsal.
An ionic bond is formed by: two or more positive ions combining. two or more negative ions combining. a positive and a negative ion attracting each other. sharing of a pair of electrons. a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.
An example of a catabolic process is: hydrolysis. dehydration synthesis. formation of a peptide bond. both B and C. hydrolysis.
A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) than hydrogen ions (H+) is a(n) _____ solution. acidic alkaline (basic) neutral Not enough information is given to determine the character of the solution. alkaline (basic)
Acids: are proton donors. taste sour. release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution. All of the above are true of acids. All of the above are true of acids.
A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons. 12; 25; 2 12; 13; 14 12; 13; 10 Not enough information is given to answer the question. 12; 13; 10
The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? Two Three Four Five Four
AB + CD → AD + CB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. synthesis exchange decomposition reversible exchange
The study of metabolism includes examination of: catabolism. anabolism. ATP requirements. all of the above. all of the above.
The octet rule refers to the: stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level.
The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: mRNA. rRNA. tRNA. DNA. rRNA.
Which cell fiber serves as part of our “cellular muscles?” Centrosome Microfilament Microtubule Intermediate filament Microfilament
Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? Provides a site for ribosome attachment Supplies membrane for use throughout the cell Makes steroid hormones Makes glycoproteins Provides a site for ribosome attachment
Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called: cilia. flagella. microvilli. microtubules. cilia.
Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted? Nucleolus Ribosome Mitochondrion Golgi apparatus Golgi apparatus
Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which cell function? Energy production Protein synthesis Cell division Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates Cell division
The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are: ribosomes. lysosomes. peroxisomes. both B and C. both B and C.
ATP production occurs within which organelle? Rough endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus Flagellum Mitochondrion Mitochondrion
Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? Microvilli Primary cilium Cilia Flagella Primary cilium
The structure that separates the contents of a cell from the surrounding tissue is known as: Golgi apparatus. plasma membrane. cytoplasm. centrosome. plasma membrane.
The basic determinant of skin color is keratin. mucus. melanin. tyrosine. melanin.
Which of the following is not a principal type of tissue? cardiac epithelial nervous connective muscle cardiac
The two major categories of body membranes are epithelial and connective. epithelial and glandular. connective and glandular. serous and cutaneous. epithelial and connective.
Stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelial cells are found in the epidermis. dermis. subcutaneous layer. loose connective tissue layer. epidermis.
The union of basal and fibroreticular laminae forms the epithelial membrane. serous membrane. interstitial membrane. basement membrane. basement membrane.
Which of the following contains intercalated disks? smooth muscle striated muscle cardiac muscle blood cardiac muscle
All glands in the body can be classified as either exocrine or holocrine. endocrine or holocrine. exocrine or endocrine. endocrine or apocrine. exocrine or endocrine.
Adipose tissue is a storage tissue. a muscle tissue. held together by cartilage. an epithelial tissue a storage tissue.
The External Ear is composed of adipose tissue. epithelium. hyaline cartilage. elastic cartilage. elastic cartilage.
The most abundant and widespread tissue in the body is connective. epithelial. muscle. nerve. connective.
Which of the following is(are) not in the appendicular skeleton? vertebrae tarsals femur clavicle vertebrae
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the hyoid bone. tibia. patella. parietal. patella.
The very small bone that lies just posterior and lateral to each nasal bone is the maxilla. lacrimal. palatine. hyoid. lacrimal.
Fibrocartilage can be found in the articular surfaces. middle ear. nasal cavity. symphysis pubis. symphysis pubis.
The bone that articulates with the temporal bone in the only movable joint of the skull is the maxilla. zygomatic. mandible. lacrimal. mandible.
Which bone is the longest and heaviest bone in the body? tibia fibula femur humerus femur
Which of the following is not a bone in the skull? clavicle parietal sphenoid ethmoid clavicle
Anatomically speaking, which bones compose the wrist? carpals tarsals metacarpals metatarsals carpals
What structures normally hold the foot bones firmly in their arched positions? cartilage and tendons ligaments and cartilage muscles and tendons ligaments and tendons ligaments and tendons
Anteriorly, each rib of the first seven pairs attaches to the xiphoid process. manubrium. transverse process. sternum. sternum.
The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm. flex extend pronate supinate flex
Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): muscle fiber. fascicle. aponeurosis. fascia. muscle fiber.
The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is (are) the: teres minor. latissimus dorsi. supraspinatus. All of the above are correct. teres minor.
The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: biceps brachii. triceps brachii. supinator. brachialis. triceps brachii.
Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect? They are paired muscles. The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow. All of the above statements are correct. The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow.
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh? Adductor longus Gracilis Iliopsoas Sacrospinalis Sacrospinalis
The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever. first second third fourth third
xIn pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized? Triceps brachii Biceps brachii Deltoid Deltoid
Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the: endomysium. perimysium. epimysium. aponeurosis. perimysium.
The soleus muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. convergent parallel fusiform pennate pennate
In the human nervous system: most of the cells are neurons. most of the cells are glia cells. there are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons. the ratio of cells is unknown because of the complexity of the nervous system. there are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons.
Dendrites conduct impulses _____ cell bodies. toward away from within None of the above is correct. toward
Most unipolar neurons are usually: motor neurons. neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system. sensory neurons. neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. sensory neurons.
Schwann cells have a function in the PNS that is similar to that of which cells in the CNS? Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes Microglia Ependymal cells Oligodendrocytes
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the: somatic nervous system. autonomic nervous system. central nervous system. afferent division. somatic nervous system.
Which of the following is not a function of the central nervous system (CNS)? Integrating sensory information Evaluating the information Initiating an outgoing response All of the above are functions of the CNS. All of the above are functions of the CNS.
Astrocytes attach to: neurons. oligodendrocytes. blood vessels. both A and C. both A and C.
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: skeletal muscles. smooth muscles. glands. cardiac muscle. skeletal muscles.
The nervous system is organized to do which of the following? Detect changes in the external environment. Detect changes in the internal environment. Evaluate changes in the environment. All of the above are true. All of the above are true.
Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons except: no neurolemma in cells of CNS. astrocytes fill in path of regrowth. microglia lay down scar tissue. All of these lessen the chance of healing in the CNS. microglia lay down scar tissue.
Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by the parasympathetic division. True False False
Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem. True False False
The phrenic nerve is found in the _____ plexus. cervical brachial lumbar sacral cervical
If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation? Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation.
Beta receptors: are cholinergic. bind acetylcholine. bind norepinephrine. bind the toxin muscarine. bind norepinephrine.
“Fight-or-flight” physiological changes include all of the following except: increased conversion of glycogen into glucose. constriction of respiratory airways. increased sweating. dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles. constriction of respiratory airways.
The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. brain and spinal cord. sensory division and motor division. brain and spinal cord.
Axon terminals that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic terminals. True False True
Spinal nerves are _____ fibers. only sensory only motor completely autonomic motor and sensory motor and sensory
There are _____ ventricles in the brain. two three four five four
Gustatory cells are located in all of the following areas except on the posterior wall of the pharynx. on the fungiform papillae of the anterior tongue. on the apical surface of vallate papillae on the tongue. on the inner surface of the cheeks. on the apical surface of vallate papillae on the tongue.
Which of the following is not part of the flow of taste sensation along the gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex? hypothalamic appetite centers vagus nerve solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata thalamic nuclei hypothalamic appetite centers
Endolymph is made from perilymph. in the scala vestibuli. in the stria vascularis. from the dura mater. in the stria vascularis.
Which of the following endocrine glands develops primarily from the endoderm of the pharynx? pineal anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary adrenal medulla thyroid and parathyroids thyroid and parathyroids
Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ of Corti? The tectorial membrane bends with vibrations, whereas the basilar membrane is rigid and fixed.
Region of the adrenal cortex that secretes DHEA. zona fasiculata zona glomerulosa zona reticularis tuber cinerum chrommafin cells zona reticularis
Which endocrine gland stores enough of its hormone extracellularly to last several months? the thyroid the pancreas the ovary the pituitary the thyroid
Membrane attached to the stapes. tectorial membrane oval window pharyngotympanic tympanic membrane round window oval window
The hormone produced by the heart increases the excretion of sodium in the urine. increases calcium levels in the blood. is secreted in response to low blood volumes. decreases urine output. increases the excretion of sodium in the urine.
Receptors for hearing are located in the semicircular canals. cochlear duct. tympanic membrane. middle ear. cochlear duct.
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called leukocytosis. leukopenia. differential white blood cell count. hemostasis. leukopenia.
During fetal circulation, what opening in the septum, between the right and left atria, directs most of the blood so that it bypasses the fetal lungs? ductus venosus ductus arteriosus foramen ovale placenta foramen ovale
Atria are often called _____ because they receive blood from vessels called veins. pumping chambers venous chambers deoxygenated chambers receiving chambers receiving chambers
Mechanical devices that permit the flow of blood in one direction ventricles. atria. valves. vessels. valves.
The four structures that compose the conduction system of the heart are the SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and chordae tendinae. AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, and chordae tendinae. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers.
Renal veins drain blood from the eyes. hands. pelvic region. kidney. kidneys.
The _____ is(are) supplied with blood from the left subclavian artery. spinal cord and brain fingers head and upper extremities lower torso head and upper extremities
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? It flows into the inferior vena cava. It flows into the superior vena cava. It flows into the ductus venosus. None of the above is correct. It flows into the inferior vena cava.
The bulk of the heart wall is the thick, contractile middle layer called the pericardium. epicardium. endocardium. myocardium. myocardium.
Which of the following is not a formed element found in the blood? red blood cell white blood cell plasma platelet plasma
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called pinocytosis. exocytosis. apedesis. phagocytosis. phagocytosis.
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the thalamus. thyroid. thymus. spleen. thymus
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. antibody-mediated cell-mediated nonspecific None of the above are correct. cell-mediated
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa all of the above all of the above
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are species resistance and specific immunity. mechanical and chemical barriers. innate and adaptive immunity. innate and adaptive immunity.
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the leukocyte. macrophage. lymphocyte. phagocyte. lymphocyte.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor. detecting and then moving toward lower concentrations of the factor. detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called phagocytosis. pavementing. diapedesis. apedesis. diapedesis.
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lymphatic capillaries. lymph nodes. lymph valves. lymph nodes.
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called lymph nodes. cortical nodules. lacteals. lymphatic ducts. lacteals.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are: primary bronchi. secondary bronchi. tertiary bronchi. bronchioles. bronchioles.
Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate? It separates the nasal and cranial cavities. It forms the lateral aspects of the nose. It separates the internal nose from the mouth. It forms a midline separation in the nasal cavity. It separates the nasal and cranial cavities.
Which of the following is not a function of the pharynx? Aids in forming vowel sounds Provides pathway for food Determines the quality of the voice Provides pathway for air Determines the quality of the voice
Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx? Their origin is the hyoid bone. They move the larynx as a whole. They serve in voice production. Both A and B are correct. They serve in voice production.
The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the: septum. conchae. cribriform plate. turbinates. septum.
The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium. stratified columnar pseudostratified columnar simple squamous simple columnar pseudostratified columnar
Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with: bone marrow. a serous fluid. mucus. air. air.
The function of surfactant is to: transport oxygen from the air to the blood. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the: epiglottis. cricoid cartilage. glottis. thyroid cartilage. cricoid cartilage.
The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the: nasopharynx. oropharynx. laryngopharynx. sphenopharynx. oropharynx.
The substance that forms the outer covering of the neck and root of a tooth is: enamel. dentin. cementum. pulp. cementum.
Approximately how much saliva do the three pairs of compound tubuloalveolar glands (parotids, submandibulars, and sublinguals) secrete each day? 200 ml 500 ml 750 ml 1 liter 1 liter
Which of the following structures is anatomically the longest? Esophagus Duodenum Jejunum Ileum Ileum
Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the small intestine? Duodenum Cecum Ileum Jejunum Cecum
The type of tissue designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract is _____ epithelium. simple columnar stratified squamous simple squamous pseudostratified simple columnar
Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as: cholelithiasis. cholecystitis. cholecystectomy. choledochorrhaphy. cholecystectomy.
The extrinsic tongue muscles differ from the intrinsic tongue. extrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin extrinsic muscles insert into the tongue but have their origin intrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin extrinsic muscles insert into the tongue but have their origin
Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells. chief alpha Kupffer hepatic Kupffer
The walls of the GI tract are composed of ____ layers of tissue. two three four five four
In the kidney, blood flows from the interlobular artery into the: Group of answer choices glomerulus. efferent arteriole. afferent arteriole. peritubular capillaries. afferent arteriole.
A drop in systemic blood pressure would cause the filtration rate to: increase. decrease. stay the same. vary depending on the level of AHD in the blood. decrease.
Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane? Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule Visceral layer of the glomerular capsule Glomerular endothelium Basement membrane Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule
Urine formation involves all the following processes except: filtration. catabolism. reabsorption. secretion. catabolism.
Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced? ANH Aldosterone ADH Both B and C Both B and C
The mechanism for voiding begins with: the relaxation of the internal sphincter. the contraction of the muscles of the bladder. the relaxation of the external sphincter. a parasympathetic impulse sent to the bladder. the relaxation of the internal sphincter.
ADH has the greatest effect on the reabsorption of water in the: proximal tubule. ascending nephron loop. descending nephron loop. distal tubule. distal tubule.
Substances travel from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by the process of: diffusion. active transport. filtration. osmosis. filtration.
The function of the urinary bladder is to: serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body. expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra. help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration. do both A and B. do both A and B.
Under normal conditions, most nutrients are reabsorbed in which portion of the nephron? Proximal tubule Ascending nephron loop Distal tubule Collecting tubule Proximal tubule
Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system? Ovary Vagina Fallopian tube Mammary glands Ovary
The tightly coiled tube of the epididymis measures _____ feet in length. 5 10 15 20 20
The dense, white, fibrous capsule that encases each testis is called the: rete testis. efferent ductule. tunica albuginea. scrotum. tunica albuginea.
The region between the vaginal orifice and the anus is called the: mons pubic. labia majora. labia minora. perineum. perineum.
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Progesterone Oxytocin Prolactin Estrogen Oxytocin
To be capable of fertilizing an ovum, sperm must undergo a process called: epiphyseal closure. ejaculation. capacitation. gonadotropin secretion. capacitation.
The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the: uterine tubes. oviducts. fallopian tubes. All of the above are correct. All of the above are correct.
The lungs are located in the: o thoracic cavity. o mediastinum. o abdominal cavity. o cranial cavity. thoracic cavity.
If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle? o Distal o Proximal o Superficial o Superior Proximal
A frontal section divides the body into _____ portions. o upper and lower o right and left o front and back o cortex and medullary Front and back
What is the anatomical direction term that means nearer the surface? o Deep o Distal o Proximal o Superficial Superficial
Several kinds of tissues working together are termed a(n): o plasma membrane. o organ. o organism. o organ system. organ
The mediastinum contains all of the following except the: o trachea. o venae cavae. o right lung. o esophagus. right lung
Atomic mass is determined by the number of: o protons and electrons. o neutrons and electrons. o neutrons, protons, and electrons. o protons and neutrons. protons and neutrons.
The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction? o Synthesis o Decomposition o Exchange o Reversible Decomposition
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: o hydrolysis. o oxidation. o decomposition. o dehydration synthesis. dehydration synthesis.
The kind of element is determined by the number of: o protons. o neutrons. o mesotrons. o electrons. Protons
Which of the following represents properties of water? o High specific heat o High heat of vaporization o Strong polarity o All of the above All of the above
As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the: o solution becomes more basic. o solution becomes more acidic. o pH rises. o Both A and C are correct. solution becomes more acidic.
An example of an element would be: o Ne. o CO2. o C6H12O6. o H2O. Ne
The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? o Two o Three o Four o Five Four
Which of the following recognize and destroy nonself cells? o Gland cells o Immune cells o Nerve cells o Red blood cells Immune cells
Skin cells (epithelial) are held tightly together by: o gap junctions. o desmosomes. o tight junctions. o adhesions. desmosomes
Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? o Microvilli o Primary cilium o Cilia o Flagella Primary cilium
The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the: o cholesterol molecules. o phospholipid molecules. o glycoprotein molecules. o channel proteins. glycoprotein molecules.
The cell extension that assists epithelial cells in absorption is called: o cilia. o flagella. o microvilli. o desmosomes. Microvilli
The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: o mRNA. o rRNA. o tRNA. o DNA. rRNA
The fundamental organizational unit of life is the: o atom. o cell. o gene. o DNA molecule. cell
A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read: microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments. microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments. microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules. microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments.
ATP production occurs within which organelle? o Rough endoplasmic reticulum o Golgi apparatus o Flagellum o Mitochondrion Mitochondria
Which of the following organelles is considered a nonmembranous organelle? o Golgi apparatus o Ribosome o Mitochondria o Both A and B Ribosomes
Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the epidermis? o stratum basale o stratum lucidum o stratum corneum o stratum granulosum o stratum spinsosum stratum corneum
The skin glands include three kinds of microscopic glands. They are the __________ glands. o sweat, eccrine, and sebaceous o sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous o sweat, eccrine, and ceruminous o sebaceous, eccrine, and ceruminous sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous
The connective tissue membranes that line the spaces between bones and joints are called _____ membranes. o mucous o cutaneous o serous o synovial synovial
Adipose tissue is o a storage tissue. o a muscle tissue. o held together by cartilage. o an epithelial tissue. a storage tissue.
Which of the following tissues lacks a direct blood supply and consequently heals very slowly? o bone o muscle o adipose o cartilage cartilage
All glands in the body can be classified as either o exocrine or holocrine. o endocrine or holocrine. o exocrine or endocrine. o endocrine or apocrine. exocrine or endocrine.
The two major categories of body membranes are o epithelial and connective. o epithelial and glandular. o connective and glandular. o serous and cutaneous. epithelial and connective.
The union of basal and fibroreticular laminae forms the o epithelial membrane. o serous membrane. o interstitial membrane. o basement membrane. basement membrane.
Cells in a tissue are surrounded by or embedded in a complex extracellular material called a o membrane. o matrix. o cytoplasm. o lymph. matrix.
Which principal type of tissue covers and protects body surfaces and lines body cavities? o nervous o connective o epithelial o muscle epithelial
Compact bone contains many cylinder-shaped structural units called o lamellae. o lacunae. o canaliculi. o osteons. osteons
Spongy bone is characterized by o open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needle-like structures. o a dense and solid appearance. o a soft and flexible gel-like appearance. o a dense and compact substance. open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needle-like structures.
Which bone serves as the keystone in the architecture of the cranium? o ethmoid o sphenoid o parietal o maxilla sphenoid
The medial part of the anterior chest wall is supported by a dagger-shaped bone called the o symphysis pubis. o sternum. o humerus. o carpal. sternum
_____ fibers are present in all three types of cartilage, but they are most numerous in fibrocartilage. o Collagenous o Microtubules o Perichondrium o Elastin Collagenous
Anteriorly, each rib of the first seven pairs attaches to the o xiphoid process. o manubrium. o transverse process. o sternum. sternum
Fibrocartilage can be found in the o articular surfaces. o middle ear. o nasal cavity. o symphysis pubis. symphysis pubis.
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? o trabeculae o fontanels o sinuses o sutures fontanels
If you are working on an archeological dig and find the remains of a human pelvis with a subpubic angle of 110 degrees, you can assume that this pelvis belongs to a o male. o female. female
Anatomically speaking, which bones compose the wrist? o carpals o tarsals o metacarpals o metatarsals carpals
The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm. o flex o extend o pronate o supinate flex
Which of the following statements about the muscles of the thorax is incorrect? When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs. The muscles of the thorax assist in respiration. When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs.
Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be: o epimysium, perimysium, endomysium. o endomysium, perimysium, epimysium. o perimysium, epimysium, endomysium. o perimysium, endomysium, epimysium. epimysium, perimysium, endomysium.
muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: o deltoid. o latissimus dorsi. o trapezius. o pectoralis minor. trapezius.
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: o upper arm. o posterior lower leg. o posterior thigh. o anterior thigh. posterior thigh.
Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane? o Rectus abdominis o External oblique o Transverse abdominis o Internal intercostals Transverse abdominis
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? o Extensor o Abductor o Flexor o Adductor Flexor
The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: o forearm. o arm. o shoulder. o wrist. arm
The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: o deltoid. o latissimus dorsi. o trapezius. o pectoralis minor. o latissimus dorsi.
Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve? o Endoneurium o Perineurium o Epineurium o Fascicle o Endoneurium
Regeneration of nerve fibers will take place only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have: o nodes of Ranvier. o a neurilemma. o a myelin sheath. o neurofibrils. o a neurilemma.
The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system: o stimulate the fight-or-flight response. o maintain normal resting activity. o carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain. o do both A and B. o carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain.
Which is true of a reflex arc? o It does not involve the brain. o It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron. o It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, and an interneuron. It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent
Which is not true of the myelin sheath? o It is associated with white fibers in the brain. o It is important for nerve impulse conduction. o It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord. o It is destroyed in those with multiple sclerosis. o It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord.
Which of the following is not a function of the central nervous system (CNS)? o Integrating sensory information o Evaluating the information o Initiating an outgoing response o All of the above are functions of the CNS. All of the above are functions of the CNS.
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: o skeletal muscles. o smooth muscles. o glands. o cardiac muscle. skeletal muscles.
One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is: o astrocytes. o neurons. o myelin. o oligodendrocytes. astrocytes.
white matter of the nervous system is made up of: o myelinated fibers. o nuclei. o unmyelinated fibers. o ganglia. myelinated fibers.
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the ________ nervous systems. o peripheral and afferent o sympathetic and parasympathetic o sympathetic and efferent o parasympathetic and somatic o sympathetic and parasympathetic
Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron. o True o False o False
Spinal nerves are _____ fibers. o only sensory o only motor o completely autonomic o motor and sensory o motor and sensory
All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: o oculomotor. o trochlear. o vestibulocochlear. o accessory. o vestibulocochlear.
The peripheral nervous system includes: o only spinal nerves. o only spinal nerves and their branches. o only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches. o cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches. o only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.
All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except: o they secrete acetylcholine. o they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion. o All of the above are correct. o they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.
Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem. o True o False False
isceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers. o True o False True
Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm? o Brachial o Cervical o Lumbar o Sacral Brachial
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? o Olfactory o Trigeminal o Trochlear o Hypoglossal Hypoglossal
Transparent structure of the eye containing regularly aligned collagen fibers. o choroid o ciliary body o sclera o cornea o lense Cornea
Endolymph-filled structure containing receptors for hearing. o saccule o vestibule o semicircular canals o cochlear duct o utricle o cochlear duct
Fluid filling the posterior segment of the eye. o serous fluid o endolymph o synovial fluid o aqueous humor o vitreous humor vitreous humor
Bony labyrinth structure containing the utricle and saccule. o vestibule o macula densa o macula lutea o scala vestibule o ora serrate vestibule
Region of the hypophysis that contains secretory endocrine cells derived from the oral ectoderm. o infundibulum o pars tuberalis o adenohypophysis o tuber cinerum o neurohypophysis o adenohypophysis
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called o inotropic factors. o chronotropic factors. o ejection factors. o cardiac afterload factors. inotropic factors.
he normal cardiac impulse that initiates mechanical contraction of the heart arises in the o AV node. o AV bundle. o Purkinje fibers. o SA node. SA node.
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called o diapedesis. o chemotaxis. o erythroblastosis. o hematopoiesis. o diapedesis.
The bulk of the heart wall is the thick, contractile middle layer called the o pericardium. o epicardium. o endocardium. o myocardium. myocardium.
The outermost layer of the larger blood vessels is the tunica o media. o intima. o adventitia. o intermedia. adventitia
Which types of arteries are also called conducting arteries and include the aorta? o muscular arteries o elastic arteries o metarterioles o resistance arteries elastic arteries
Which sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles? o postcapillary sphincters o postarteriole sphincters o precapillary sphincters precapillary sphincters
Blood flow from the heart through blood vessels to all parts of the body and back to the heart is referred to as _____circulation. o pulmonary o systemic o full o cardiac systemic
Renal veins drain blood from the o eyes. o hands. o pelvic region. o kidneys. kidneys
The brachiocephalic vein drains blood from the o right posterior wall of the thorax. o head, neck, and upper extremity. o kidneys. o lower trunk and extremity. head, neck, and upper extremity.
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? o cytotoxin o phagotoxin o lymphotoxin o granulotoxin Lymphotoxin
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells. memory cells and cytokines. effector T cells and memory cells.
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called o lymph mechanisms. o lymphokinetic activities. o lymphatic activities. o none of the above. lymphokinetic activities.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called o lymphatic capillaries. o lymph nodes. o tonsils. o anastomoses. o tonsils.
The functions of the lymph nodes are o defense and hemostasis. o defense and diapedesis. o defense and hematopoiesis. o hematopoiesis and hemostasis. defense and hematopoiesis.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an o antibody attaches to the target cell’s antigen binding site. o Antigen's epitopes fit into and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding sites o Antigen's epitopes fit into and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding sites
Antibodies are proteins of the family called o glucoproteins. o immunoglobulins. o globulins. o antigens. immunoglobulins.
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of o leukotrienes. o prostaglandins. o antibodies. o cytokines. o prostaglandins.
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the: o trachea. o nose. o nasopharynx. o oropharynx. o nasopharynx.
The structure in the neck known as the “Adam’s apple” is the: o epiglottis. o cricoid cartilage. o glottis. o thyroid cartilage. thyroid cartilage.
The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the: o septum. o conchae. o cribriform plate. o turbinates. septum
The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the: o cricoid cartilage. o thyroid cartilage. o corniculate cartilage. o epiglottis epiglottis
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: o provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. o provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. o provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: o bronchioles. o secondary bronchi. o primary bronchi. o alveoli. alveoli.
Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane? o Vestibule o Posterior nares o Trachea o Primary bronchi Vestibule
The part of the colon that lies in the vertical position, on the left side of the abdomen, extending from a point below the stomach and spleen to the level of the iliac crest is the _____ colon. o ascending o transverse o descending o sigmoid Descending colon
The hard palate consists of portions of: o four bones: three maxillae and one palatine. o two bones: one maxillae and one palatine. o four bones: two maxillae and two palatines. o two bones: two palatines. o four bones: two maxillae and two palatines.
Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva? o Sublinguals o Parotids o Submandibulars o Both A and B Sublinguals
Which of the following is not a supporting structure of the male reproductive system? o Penis o Scrotum o Prostate o Pair of spermatic cords Prostate
he efferent ductules: o surround and protect each testis. o are part of the tunica albuginea. o drain the rete testis. o do all of the above. drain the rete testis.
Which of the following is not an effect of testosterone? o Promotes excretion of potassium by kidneys o Promotes anabolism of proteins o Promotes growth of skeletal muscles o Promotes lengthening of long bones pmotes growth of skeletal muscles
A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the _____ plexus. o brachial o cervical o coccygeal Coccygeal
The anatomical stalk of the pituitary is also known as o pars tuberalis. o infundibulum. o tuber cinerum. o adenohypophysis. o neurohypophysis. Infundibulum
The fundus of the uterus is the: o lower, narrow section. o area above where the tubes enter. o central portion. o opening into the uterus. area above where the tubes enter.
The substance most often measured to determine normal kidney function is: o creatinine. o glucose. o sodium. o potassium. creatine
o E In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called: o seminal vesicles. o testes. o vasa deferentia. o Cowper glands. Testes
All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the: o tongue. o mouth. o liver. o pancreas. mouth
Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced? o ANH o Aldosterone o ADH o Both B and C ANH
A portion of the nephron that can lie within the medulla is the: o proximal tubule. o glomerular capsule. o distal tubule. o nephron loop. nephron loop.
There are how many openings in the urinary bladder? o One o Two o Three o Four Three
Which of these statements is not true of the kidney? o The kidney is usually located next to the vertebrae from T12 to L3. o The kidney is retroperitoneal. o The kidney is protected by a heavy layer of fat. o All of the above are true of the kidney. All of the above are true of the kidney.
The portion of the nephron that empties into a calyx is the: o distal tubule. o nephron loop. o collecting tubule. o proximal tubule. ollecting tubule.
Urine is conducted from the kidney to the urinary bladder through a tube called the: o renal column. o renal pelvis. o urethra. o ureter. Ureter
One difference between the male urethra and the female urethra is the male urethra is: o shorter. o part of two different body systems. o unique in that there are no additional ducts that merge with it. o both B and C. o part of two different body systems.
The supporting structures in the male reproductive system include: o the penis. o a pair of spermatic cords. o the scrotum. o all of the above. o all of the above.
The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the: o parietal peritoneum. o myometrium. o endometrium. o symphysis pubis. parietal peritoneum
Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture? o Digestive o Endocrine o Excretory o All of the above All of the above
After blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the o right atrium. o left atrium. o right ventricle. o left ventricle. Left atrium
Created by: joahna.cunanan
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