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Anatomy Final Sem #1

Anatomy Final for the first semester: Over ch. 1,3,4,5,6

QuestionAnswer
The tissues that is thin enough to permit diffusion of gases in the lungs is? Simple Squamous Epithelium
The tissue that lines the mouth and esophagus, which undergoes mitosis to replace cells lost from the surface, is? Stratified Squamous Epithelium
The tissue the sweeps pathogens up and out of the trachea is? Ciliated Epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium makes up the epidermis of the skin because? Neither the surface cells are dead and prevent water loss or the lower cells are capable of mitosis to replace cells lost from the surface.
The tissue that lines the urinary bladder, in which the surface cells flatten as the bladder expands, is? Transitional Epithelium
The salivary glands are made of cuboidal epithelium, the function of which is to? Secrete
The tissue that provides a smooth surface in joints is? Cartilage
The body is supported by? Bone
Osteocytes are cells of ___, and are found in a matrix made primarily of __. Blank one: bone Blank two: Calcium salts
The tissue that forms ligaments is? Fibrous Connective Tissue
Chondrocytes are cells of ____, and are found in matrix that has no ____. Blank One: Cartilage Blank Two: Capillaries
The cells that carry oxygen in the blood are? Red Blood Cells
The tissue that protects some internal organs from mechanical injury is? Bone
Red blood cells are produced in the? Red Bone Marrow
The cells that destroy pathogens that have entered the body are the? White Blood Cells
The cells that are important for blood clotting are? Platelets
The functions of nerve tissue include? Sensation, movement, and learning
The space between two neurons is called? A synapse
The part of a neuron that carries impulses toward the cell body is the? Dendrite
The part of a neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body is the? Axon
The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus and is essential for the life of the neuron is the? Cell body
At synapses, nerve impulse transmission is accomplished by? Chemical Neurotransmitters.
The neurotransmitters of a neuron enable a nerve impulse to? Cross a synapse
The heart is made of ___ muscle, which ____. Blank One: Cardiac Blank Two: Pumps blood
The function of smooth muscle in the small intestine is? Peristalsis
The surface area of the small intestine is increased for efficient absorption by the presence of? Microvilli on the columnar epithelium
Digestive enzymes are produced by the __ of the small intestine. Blank One: Columnar epithelium
The serous membrane that covers the surface of the heart is called the? Visceral Pericardium
The visceral pericardium is found: Covering the heart
The serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity is the? Peritoneum
The serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity is the? Parietal pleura
The function of serous fluid in all of its locations is to: Prevent friction
The fluid that traps pathogens in the respiratory tract is? Mucus
The fluid that transports nutrients in the blood is? Plasma
The fluid that prevents friction in the joints is? Synovial Fluid
The function of smooth muscle in arteries is to? Help maintain blood pressure
The type of muscle that is also called voluntary is? Skeletal Muscle
Which statement is NOT true of the types of muscle tissue? -Smooth muscle is also called involuntary muscle. -Skeletal muscle is also called striated muscle. -Smooth muscle forms the walls of capillaries. -Voluntary muscle is attached to bones. Smooth muscle forms the walls of capillaries
Which of these is NOT a location of mucous membranes? -Lining the stomach -Lining the nasal cavities -Lining the chest cavity -Lining the urinary tract Lining the chest cavity
Mucous membranes are found in? All tracts that open to the environment
Each of these organs is lined with mucous membranes, except the: -Trachea -Vagina -Urinary Bladder -Arteries Arteries
Endocrine glands have ___ and secrete ____. Blank One: No ducts Blank Two: Hormones
Salivary glands secrete saliva into ducts, therefore, they are called __ glands. Blank One: Exocrine
Goblet cells secrete ___ in the ___. Blank One: mucus Blank Two: respiratory tract
The connective tissue that stores potential energy is? Adipose Tissue
The connective tissue that cushions the eyes in their bony orbits is? Adipose Tissue
The connective tissue the contains WBC's and is found between the skin and muscles is? Areolar Connective Tissue
The connective tissue that forms tendons is? Fibrous Connective Tissue
Brown fat is primarily a? Heat-generating tissue
The connective tissue membrane that covers a bone is the? Periosteum
Collagen and elastin are ___ that are made by cells called ___. Blank One: Proteins Blank Two: Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts are cells that produce? The proteins collagen and elastin in connective tissues
The organic molecule in a cell membrane that forms channels: Proteins
An organic molecule in a cell membrane that provides stability is: Cholesterol
Which of these is NOT true of the cell membrane? -It is made of protein, glucose, and cholesterol -It selectively allows materials to enter the cell. -It forms the outer boundary of the cell -It enables cells to respond to hormones It is made of protein, glucose, and cholesterol
The organic molecule in cell membranes that permits the diffusion of lipid-soluble materials is: Phospholipids
The organic molecule in cell membranes that forms self-antigens attached to proteins is: Oligosaccharides
The cell organelles that are the site of protein synthesis are the: Ribosomes
The cell organelle that synthesizes carbohydrates and secretes cell products is the: Golgi Apparatus
The cell organelles that are the site of ATP production are the: Mitochondria
The cell organelles that sweep materials across a surface are the: Cilia
The cell organelles that permit sperm cells to move are the: Flagella
The cell organelle that transports materials within a cell is the: Endoplasmic reticulum
The cell organelles that contain enzymes to digest ingested pathogens are: Lysosomes
The cell organelles that break down damaged or misfolded proteins are the: Proteasomes
The nucleus is the control center of the cell because it contains: DNA in the chromosomes
The transport of materials through a membrane with the help of carrier enzymes is called: Facilitated Diffusion
Most cells take in glucose by the process of: Facilitated Diffusion
The movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration is called: Diffusion
The energy for diffusion is provided by: Free energy, or natural movement of molecules
Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide are exchanged in tissues by the process of: Diffusion
The movement of molecules from an area of lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration is called: Active Transport
ATP provides the energy for the cellular transport process of: Active Transport
The cells of the small intestine absorb glucose and amino acids by the process of: Active Transport
The sodium pumps of nerve cells rely on the process of: Active Transport
The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called: Osmosis
The small intestine absorbs water by the process of: Osmosis
If human cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, they will: Shrivel
If human cells are placed in a hypotonic solution, they will: Swell and Burst
If human cells are placed in an isotonic solution, they will: Remain the same
Which statement is NOT true of human cells and solutions? -An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as cells -A hypotonic solution has a lower salt concentration than cells - Human cells in a hypotonic solution will loose water Human cells in a hypotonic solution will lose water
Most human cells have ____ chromosomes, which contain ____, the hereditary material. Blank One: 46 Blank Two: DNA
The human diploid number of chromosomes is: 46
The human cells that have no chromosomes are: Mature Red Blood Cells
The human haploid number of chromosomes is: 23
In mitosis, the pairs of chromatids line up on the equator of the cell during: Metaphase
In mitosis, the nuclear membrane re-forms around each new set of chromosomes during: Telophase
In mitosis, the spindle fibers pull the sets of chromosomes toward the opposite poles of the cell during: Anaphase
In mitosis, the chromosomes become visible as short rods during: Prophase
The time between mitotic divisions, when the chromosomes duplicate themselves, is called: Interphase
Frequent mitosis is important to the body for all of these except: -Production of new muscle cells -Production of new RBC's -Replacing the stomach lining -Replacing the outer layer of the skin Production of new muscle cells
Meiosis takes place in the: Ovaries and Testes
Spermatogenesis is the name for _____ that takes place in the ____. Blank One: Meiosis Blank Two: Testes
Oogenesis is the name for ___ that takes place in the ____. Blank One: Meiosis Blank Two: Ovaries
The process of mitosis produces ___ cells, each with the ___ number of chromosomes. Blank One: 2 Blank Two: Diploid
Mitosis involves ___ division(s) to produce __ cells. Blank One: 1 Blank Two: 2
The process of meiosis produces ___ cells, each with the ___ number of chromosomes. Blank One: Two Blank Two: Four
Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol? - Sodium: S -Oxygen: O -Magnesium: Mg -Clore- Cl Sodium; S
Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol? -Hydrogen; H -Sulfur; S -Calcium; Ca -Iron; I Iron; I
What part of tghe DNA have science discovered may tell that cells age? Telomers
Which statement is true of compact bone? -It is made of osteons and found within flat an irregular bones -It is made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone -It is not made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone It is made of osteons and found in the diaphysis of a long bone
Which statement is true of spongy bone? -It is made of osteons and found within flat an irregular bones -It is made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone -It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones. It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones
Which statement is NOT true of long bones? -The diaphysis is the shaft, made of compact bones -An epiphysis is an end, made mostly of spongy bone -The marrow cavity contains yellow bone marrow, and is in the center of each epiphysis The marrow cavity contains yellow bone marrow, and is in the center of each epiphysis
The regulation of the calcium content of adult bones is a function of the: Osteocytes
The production of new bone matrix for growth or repair is a function of the: Osteoblasts
The reabsorption of bone matrix is a function of the: Osteoclasts
The spongy bone of flat and irregular bones contains: Red bone marrow to produce blood cells
Red bone marrow produces these cells: Platelets, RBC's. and WBC's
In the embryo, the bones of the skull are first made of: Fibrous connective tissue
In the embryo, bone matrix is produced by cells called: Osteoblasts
An infant's skull may be compressed slightly during birth without harming the brain because of the: Fontanels
In the embryo, the bones of the arms and legs are girst made of: Cartilage
In an embryonic long bone, centers of ossification are found in the: Diaphysis and each epiphysis
In the long bones of children, growth occurs at the: Epophyseal discs
In an embryonic femur, the marrow cavity is formed by the: Osteoclasts
The term genetic potention for height means: How tall a person may become
The nurtient needed for bone growth that can be synthesized by the body is: Vitamin D
The protein that is part of bone matrix is: Collagen
In the body, the ___ are storage sites for calcium, which is needed in the blood for ___. Blank One: Bones Blank Two: Clotting
The hormones that promote closure of the epiphyseal discs are: Estrogen and Testosterone
Which pair of bones directly helps protect the brain? Sphenoid and Occipital
The temporal bone helps protect the sense organs for: Hearing
Which bone does NOT help for the orbit? Parietal
The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are among the bones of the: Skull
The ethmoid bones helps protect the sensory receptors and nerves for: Smell
The cranial bone that encloses the pituitary gland is the: Sphenoid
Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the: Zygomatic
Which statement is NOT true of the paranasal sinuses? -They contain air -They are lined with ciliated epithelium -They provide resonance for the voice -They make the skull heavier in weight They make the skll heavier in weight
Which of these organs is NOT protected by the rib cage? -Small intestine -Lungs -Liver -Heart Small intestine
The seven pairs of ribs that articulate directly with the sternum are called: True Ribs
The three pairs of ribs that articulate indirectly with the sternum are called: False Ribs
The two pairs of ribs that do not articulate with the sternum are called: Floating Ribs
The number of pairs of each type of rib - true, false, and floating - in order is: 7,3,2
Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles? The Manubrium
The rib cage is directly involved in the functioning of which organ system? Respiratory
The vertebrae in the neck are called ___ and there are ___ of them. Blank One: Cervical Blank Two: Seven
The 12 vertebrae in the lower back are called: Lumbar
Between adjacent thoracic vertebrae are ___ joints. Symphysis
Between adjacent lumbar vertebrae are ___ joints that are characterized by. Blank One: symphysis Blank Two: Discs of cartilage
The five fused vertebrae with which the hip bones articulate are called: Sacral
The femur and hip bone form this type of joint: Ball and socket
The frontal and parietal bones form this type of joint: Suture
The two pubic bones form this type of joint: Symphysis
The carpal and metacarpal of the thumb form this type of joint: Saddle
Two adjacent vertebrae form this type of joint: Symphysis
An example of a ball-and-socket joint is the: Humerus and scapula
An example of a suture joint is the: Occipital and parietal bones
An example of a symphysis joint is: Two vertebrae
An example of a hinge joint is the: Femur and Tibia
Which of the following is NOT an example of a hinge joint? -Two phalanges -ulna and humerus -tibia and femur -femur and fibula Femur and Fibula
An example of a pivot joint is the: Atlas and axis
An example of a condyloid joint is the: Mandible and temporal bone
An example of a gliding joint is the joint between two: Carpals
The part of a synovial joint that lines the joint capsule is the: Synovial membrane
The part of a synovial joint that encloses the joint in a strong sheath is the: Joint capsule
The part of a synovial joint that prevents friction within the joint cavity is the: Synovial fluid
The structures that connect bone to bone are: Ligaments
Which statement is NOT true of the periosteum of a bone: -It covers a bone -It lines a bone -It anchors tendons -It anchors ligaments It lines a bone
The structures that permit tendons to slides easily across a moving joint are: Bursae
The plantar area is ___ to the femoral area. Distal
A positive feedback mechanism: Needs an external event to control it
Which of these areas is NOT on the lateral sides of the body? -Iliac -Deltoid -Femoral -Umbilical Umbilical
The term Oral is a synonym for: Buccal
The umbilical area is ___ to the lumbar area: Ventral
The frontal area is ___ to the occipital area: Anterior
The smallest living units of structure and function of the body are called: Cells
The inguinal area is ___ to the perineum: Lateral
The two deltoid areas would be separated by which section of the body: Midsagittal
The upper right abdominal quadrant contains the: Liver
The pelvic cavity contains the: Urinary bladder
A group of cells with similar structure and function is called: A tissue
In a negative feedback mechanism, the effect of the response to the stimulus is to: Decrease the stimulus
The body would be separated into upper and lower parts by which stimulus is to: Transverse
A feedback mechanism that requires an external brake or stop is called: Positive
The organ system that moves the body is the ___ system. Muscular
The term palmar is a synonym for: Volar
The organ system that produces specialized cells to continue the human species is the ____ system. Reproductive
The upper right abdominal quadrant contains the: Liver and Spleen
The two iliac areas would be separated by which section of the body. Midsagittal
The popliteal area is ___ to the femoral area and ___ to the patellar area. Blank One: Distal Blank Two: Posterior
The deltoid area is ___ to the gluteal area Superior
A feedback mechanism in which the response reverses the stimulus is called: Negative
A tissue that moves something is probably Muscle tissue
A transverse section separates the body into: Upper and Lower parts
A coronal section separates the body into: Front and back parts
The lower left abdominal quadrant contains the: Large and Small intestine
The organ system that regulates body functions by means of electrochemical impulses is the ___ system . Nervous
The upper left abdominal quadrant contains the: Stomach
The total of all the chemical reactions and physical changes within the body is the: Metabolism
An area completely lateral to the nasal area is the ___ area. Temporal
The organ system that treansports nutrients and gases within the body is the ___ system. Circulatory
The femoral area would be separated from the patellar area by which section of the lower limb. Cross
A sagittal section separated the body into: Right and Left parts
The hepatic area refers to the ___, and the cardiac area refers to the ___. Blank One: Liver Blank Two: Heart
The cutaneous area refers to the ___, and the gastric area refers to the ___. Blank One: Skin Blank Two: Stomach
A tissue that lines an organ is probably: Epithelial TIssue
An arrangement of several tissues that accomplishes specific functions is called: An organ
The lower right abdominal quadrant contains the: Small and Large intestine
The organ system that supports the body is the __ system. Skeletal
In anatomic position, the hands are ___ and the feet are ___. Blank One: Palms forward Blank Two: Parallel
The pectoral areas would be separated from the gluteal areas by which section of the body? Midtransverse and Midfrontal
The areas of the body that have names similar to the bones within them are the: Occipital area and Patellar area
The thoracic cavity contains the: Lungs
Which of these areas is NOT on the dorsal side of the body? -Sacral -Cervial -Inguinal -Femoral Inguinal
Which of these areas is NOT on the ventral side of the body? -Brachial -Deltoid -Pectoral -Lumbar Lumbar
The occipital area is both: Posterior and dorsal
The brachial area is ___ to the axillary area and ___ to the volar area. Blank One: Distal Blank Two: Proximal
The term for all of the heat production by the body is: Metabolic Rate
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Diaphragm
The pulmonary area refers to the ___, and the perinal area refers to the ____: Blank One: Lungs Blank Two: Pelvic Floor
The organ system that removes waste products from the blood is the ___ system. Urinary
The abdominal cavity contains the: Small Intestine, Stomach, and Galbladder
The mammary area is both: Anterior and ventral
An area that is both dorsal and ventral is the: Femoral area
The pectoral area is ___ to the cervical area and ___ to the umbilical area. Blank One: Inferior Blank Two: Superior
The part of the integumentary system that prevents entry of pathogens is the: Epidermis
The part of the integumentary system that contains sweat glands and sensory receptors is the: Dermis
The part of the integumentary system that connects the skin to muscles is the: Subcutaneous tissue
The layer of the skin that is made of stratified squamous epithelium is the: Epidermis
The layer of the skin that is made of fibrous connective tissue is the: Dermis
The major proteins of the dermis are: Elastin and Collagen
The protein that provides strength to the dermis is: Collagen
In the skin, mitosis takes place continuously in the: Stratum Germinativum
The cells in the epidermis that are capable of phagocytosis are: Langerhans Cells
Prevention of the entry of pathogens is a function of the: Statum Corneum
The stratum corneum is made of layers of cells that: are dead
The protein in the epidermis that prevents water loss is: Keratin
The function of melanin is to protect living skin layers from more: UV rays
Melanin gives color to the epidermis, and also to the: Hair and Iris of the eye
A hair follicle: Has its base in the dermis, has a hair root at its base, and has a pilomotor muscle that can pull the follicle upright
Which of these is NOT a function of human hair? -Keeping dust out of the eyes -Insulating the hands from cold -Insulating the head from cold -Keeping dust out of the nasal passages Insulating the hands from cold
A nail follicle: Has its base in the dermis, has a nail root that undergoes mitosis, and has cells that produce keratin before they die.
All of the following are made of keratin except the: -Pigment of the Skin -Fingernails and toenails -Statum corneum -Hair shafts Pigment of the skin
Free nerve endings in the skin are the receptors for: Heat, cold, itch, and pain
A function of sebum is to: Prevent drying of the skin and hair
The growth of bacteria on the skin surface is inhibited by: Sebum
The function of cerumen is to: Prevent drying of the eardrum
The glands in the dermis that are most important for temperature regulation are the: Eccrine glands
A potentially serious consequence of profuse sweating is: Dehydration
In a warm environment, the arterioles in the dermis will: Dilate to lose heat
In a cold environment, the arterioles in the dermis will: Constrict to conserve heat
The stimulus for the production of vitamin D in the skin is: Ultraviolet Rays
The subcutaneous tissue that stores potential energy is: Adipose tissue
Adipose tissue that cushions some bones is found in the: Subcutaneous tissue
Absence of pigment in the skin: Albinism
What is a 1st Degree burn also called? Superficial Burn
What layer(s) of skin does a Superficial burn affect? The top layer of the Epidermis
A 1st Degree burn causes blisters False
1st Degree burns are very painful True
What is a 2nd Degree burn also called? Partial thickness burn
What layer(s) of skin does a partial thickness burn affect? The Epidermis and possibly the dermis
A 2nd degree burn does not cause blisters False
A 2nd degree burn is not very painful False
What is another name for the 3rd degree burn Full thickness burn
What layer(s) of skin does a full thickness burn affect? The epidermis, dermis, and could affect the hypodermis
A 3rd degree burn is very painful False
Why is a 3rd degree burn not painful All of the nerves have been burnt away
What are some characteristics of a Full thickness burn Charred/ burned off skin
What is another name for a 4th degree burn? Deep Full thickness burn
What layer(s) does the Deep Full Thickness burn affect? All layers
The 4th degree burn is life threatening True
Created by: t.fox57202
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