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Anatomy 2nd stack

QuestionAnswer
What glia cells are located in the peripheral nervous system? Satellite and Schwan cells
What are the three structural classifications of neurons? Multipolar, Bipolar, and unipolar. (Polar is not a classification).
Where does the somatic nervous system carry information to? The skeletal muscles.
Nerves that originate from the brain are called ____ nerves. Cranial nerves.
What structure of the Schwann cell is essential to normal nerve growth and the regeneration of injured nerve fibers? Neurilemma.
What region of the neuron directs electrical currents toward the cell body? Dendrite.
What is the process of the neuron that usually extends from a tapered portion of the cell body? Axon.
What is the term for the bundles of nerve fibers within the CNS? Ganglia.
What are the two divisions of the efferent pathways? Parasympathetic and sympathetic.
Bundles of myelinated fibers make up the: Ganglia.
What glia cells help to form the blood-brain barrier? Astrocytes.
What is the function of the synapse? It is the site of communication between neurons.
What is the structural and functional center of the nervous system? The central nervous system, which consists of the brain and spinal cord.
What are excitable cells that conduct impulses called? Neurons.
What nervous system is a complex network of nerve pathways embedded in the intestinal wall with a network of integrator and feedback loops that can act somewhat independently? Enteric.
What tends to be the longest cytoplasmic projection from a neuron? Axon.
What is a reflex arc? It is a signal conduction route to and from the CNS.
The _____ of a presynaptic neuron associates with the dendrite of a postsynaptic neuron. Axon.
What is the repair capability of neurons? Very limited.
Where do chemical signals diffuse between neurons? At the synapse.
Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons except: Microglia lay down scar tissue.
What are functions of the CNS? Integrating sensory information, evaluating the information, and initiating an outgoing response.
What are small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS? Nuclei.
What is the ratio of glia to neurons in the human nervous system? 1:1, equal. There are about 4:1 in the brain, glia to neurons.
What is the white matter of the nervous system made of? Myelinated fibers.
What nervous systems do the efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of? Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Do dendrites conduct impulses away from, toward, or within the cell bodies? Toward.
What are the 4 components of the blood brain barrier? -endothelial cells connected by tight junctions -basement membrane -pericytes -astrocytes
Schwann cells have a function in the peripheral nervous system that is similar to that of which cells in the central nervous system? Oligdendrocytes.
Is myelin sheath associated with white fibers in the brain? Yes.
Is myelin sheath important for nerve impulse conduction? Yes
Does myelin sheath cover cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord? No.
Is myelin sheath destroyed in those with multiple sclerosis? Yes.
In its simplest form, a reflex arc consists of what two neurons? Afferent and efferent.
A two-neuron arc is called: A reflex arc.
What is a reflex arc? It is a signal conduction route from receptors to the CNS and out to the effectors.
What are nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers called? Sensory nerves.
A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called: A sensory neuron.
How can the nervous system be divided? - according to its structure - according to direction of information flow - by control of effectors
What do astrocytes attach to? Neurons and blood vessels.
What does the autonomic nervous system stimulate? Smooth muscles, glands, and cardiac muscles.
What does the autonomic system NOT stimulate? Skeletal muscles.
What is the largest and most numerous type of neuroglia? Astrocytes.
What are the functions of astrocytes? -provide structural support for neurons -regulate ion, nutrient, dissolved-gas concentrations -absorb/recycle neurotransmitters -form scar tissue after injury
Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of: Cell bodies. Cell bodies and unmyelinated fibers make up the darker gray matter.
What substance cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? (Remember Parkinson's Disease). Dopamine. A newer drug called levodopa does cross the barrier and helps the brain to produce dopamine.
In what order along a neuron is the correct pathway for impulse conduction? Dendrite, cell body, and axon. (Receptor is not part of the pathway.)
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle: Somatic nervous system.
What functions is the nervous system organized to do? - detect changes in the external environment. - detect changes in the internal environment. - evaluate changes in the environment.
What is a multipolar neuron? It is a classified neuron that has only one axon but several dendrites.
What are the layers of the connective tissue of a nerve? - Endoneurium (deepest layer, reticular fibrous, surrounds the Schwann cells, bundles are called fascicles). - Perineurium (Binds the fascicles). - Epineurium (loose collagen bundles along with adipose tissue and blood vessels, dense and tough).
How many dendrites and axons do multipolar neurons have? One axon and multiple dendrites.
Which pathways (efferent or afferent) of the autonomic nervous system stimulate fight or flight and maintain normal resting activities? Efferent, which controls the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Which pathway carries feedback information to integrate centers in the brain? Afferent pathway.
What is important about a neurilemma? The regeneration of nerve fibers can only take place if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma.
Which of the two main nervous systems do interneurons reside in? CNS only. (Not PNS).
What type of neurons are unipolar neurons? Sensory neurons.
What is another name for unipolar neurons? Pseudopolar neurons. These have a single process extending from the cell body and branches to form a central process toward the CNS.
The inner protective covering of the brain is called: The meninges.
The enteric nervous system is made up of a complex network of nerve plexuses that control the visceral effectors in the: Intestinal wall.
The ventral rami of most spinal nerves - all but T2 through T12 - subdivide to form complex networks called: Plexuses.
Describe the cauda equina and its location. It is the lower end of the spinal cord, with its attached spinal nerve roots, gives the appearance of a horse's tail.
What are the three divisions that make up the brainstem? The medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord? 31
Where do individual nerves emerge from that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm? The brachial plexus.
What are the large fluid-filled spaces within the brain called? Venticles.
The two efferent divisions of the autonomic nervous systems are: The sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions. The visceral division is afferent.
Where are dendrites and cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons located? In the gray matter of the thoracic and upper lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
What area of the brain controls motor movements necessary for speaking and where is it located? Inner frontal area toward the middle.
What does corpora quadrigemina mean? Four bodies.
Where is the quadrigemina located? Near the top posterior part of the inner brain stem in an area that looks like a backwards cursive "f".
What is the dorsal root of each spinal nerve that is easily recognized as swelling called? The dorsal root ganglion.
What do spinal cord tracts do? Provide conduction paths to and from the brain.
Spinal cord tracts that conduct sensory impulses down the cord from the brain are called: Descending tracts.
If you trace the axon inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber branches along with pathway? Synapses with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron, passes through one or more ganglia w/o synapsing, ascending or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse w/ postganglionic neurons in the other chain ganglia.
What area of the brain is characterized by huge neurons known as pyramidal cells? Motor area, which is superior and near the coronal suture.
Where is the medulla oblongata and what does it function as? It is the area between the pons and the spinal cord. It functions as a connection.
What do epithelial tactile complexes (Merkel discs) function to do? These are light pressure receptors.
Where does the formation of cerebrospinal fluid occur? In the choroid plexus.
What do beta receptors do? Bind norepinephrine.
The part(s) of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is (are) the: Limbic system.
Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem. True or False. False.
The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the: Dura mater.
What is the innermost layer of the meninges? Pia mater.
What cranial nerves do not have a functional classification of motor? Vestibulocochlear.
Are spinal nerves motor or sensory fibers, or both? Both.
What function might increase if from the stimulation of the parasympathetic fibers? Peristalsis of the digestive tract.
The lumbar plexus gives rise to which nerve in the leg? Femoral nerve.
Are effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system only innervate by the parasympathetic division? No, this is false.
The areas specializing in language functions are found in the: Left cerebral hemisphere in about 90% of the population.
All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS. True or False False.
Several vital centers are located in the: Medulla.
Visceral effectors are inervated by: Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers.
What are some facts about sympathetic postganglionic neurons? They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons, they produce norepinephrine, and they have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites. (The do NOT produce acetylcholine.)
What does the peripheral nervous system include? The cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches. It does not include the brain or spinal cord as this is the CNS.
The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is: The tenth cranial nerve.
The phrenic nerve arises from the: Cervical plexus.
What are the plexus of spinal nerves? The four major spinal plexuses are Cervical, Brachial, Lumbar, and Sacral (which includes the coccygeal-1). (Thoracic is not a plexus.)
A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the _____ plexus. Coccygeal.
If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation? Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation.
The cervical plexus is found: Deep in the neck.
The cervical plexus is formed by: The ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5.
Does the cervical plexus include the phrenic nerve? Yes.
Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons have their cell bodies where? In the nuclei of the brainstem or the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord.
What is the parasympathetic division sometimes called? The craniosacral division.
Name the cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord. XI spinal accessory nerve.
How many major divisions does the brain have? Six.
The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons. True or False False, it also contains afferent neurons.
What are the three sensory cranial nerves? Olfactory, optic, and acoustic (or vestibulocochlear).
What are some facts regarding the lateral corticospinal tract fibers? The motor nerve fibers in them originate primarily in the precentral gyrus of each frontal lobe, the fibers decussate in the pyramids of the medulla oblongata, the fibers descend in the spinal cord to motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles. (Most do NOT inhibit the lower motor neuron).
What are some characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons? They secrete acetylcholine. Dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of the thoracic and the first 4 lumbar segments of the spinal cord. They do not have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.
The pyramids are formed in the: Medulla oblongata.
Conduction of autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron. True or False False.
Conduction of autonomic effectors requires a sequence of _______ efferent neurons from the CNS to the effector (different from somatic effectors that require only ______) Two; one.
There are ___ ventricles in the brain; ___ of them are lateral ventricles. Four; two.
Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has vertebra? Cervical.
The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: Brain and spinal cord.
Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? Reticular activating system.
Can sensory neurons operate in autonomic reflex arcs? Yes. see page 491.
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the: (Subarachnoid space, central canal, third ventricle, subdural space). Subdural space.
The brainstem includes: Pons, medulla, midbrain. (Not the cerebellum).
Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: Sensory.
Region of the hypophysis that contains secretory endocrine cells derived from the oral ectoderm. Adenohypophysis.
Endocrine gland of the thorax that is also important in immune function. Thymus gland.
What is Endolymph made up of? high in potassium (K+), and low in sodium (Na+). This fluid is produced by the stria vascularis, a structure found inside the cochlea.
Class of hormones secreted during chronic stress that depress immune function. Glucocorticoids.
What are characteristics of the spiral organ of Corti? The hairs of the receptors are embedded in the tectorial membrane, high-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells at the basal end of the basilar membrane, the spiral organ is part of the cochlear duct which equals the scala media.
What is characteristic of the tectorial membrane and basilar membrane of the Corti? The tectorial membrane is rigid and serves much as a shelf while the basilar membrane bends with vibrations. The hair will move on the tectorial membrane.
A hormone produced by the heart, known as __________, prevents the release of aldosterone in order to reduce blood volume and blood pressure. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)
What does ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) do? Promote loss of sodium from body into urine, thus promoting water loss from the body and a resulting decrease in blood volume and pressure. (Increases the excretion of sodium in the urine).
The hypophyseal portal veins are primarily located in the: Infundibulum.
What do beta cells produce in the pancreas? Insulin.
Transparent mucous membrane covering the inner surface of the eyelid and surface of the eye: Conjunctiva.
Substance occupying the posterior segment of the eyeball: Vitreous humor.
Substance filling the anterior of the eye: Aqueous humor.
The anatomical stalk of the pituitary: Infundibulum.
Membrane attached to the stapes. Oval window.
Muscle attached to the stapes: Stapedius.
Receptors for hearing are located in the: Cochlear (cochlear duct).
Region of the adrenal cortex that secretes DHEA. Zona reticularis.
Pyramid-shaped gland consisting of neural crest-derived cells and endocrine secretory cells. Adrenal gland.
Which endocrine gland stores enough of its hormone extracellularly to last several months? Thyroid.
Hormone that inhibits osteoclast activity in children. Calcitonin.
Where is calcitonin produced? In the thyroid.
What function does calcitonin do? It directs osteoclasts to store in the bone. It controls bone formation by sphingosine 1-phosphate from osteoclasts.
What might counter calcitonin? The parathyroid releases PTH which signals a release of calcium into the blood stream when there is a need. This can also cause a problem in the release of too much calcium leading to osteopenia.
Bony labyrinth structure containing the utricle and saccule. Vestibule.
Where are gustatory cells located? On the posterior wall of the pharynx, on the fungiform papillae of the anterior tongue, and on the inner surface of the cheeks. (NOT the apical surface of the vallate papillae of the tongue.
The nerve carrying taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is the: Facial.
The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is: Thyroid.
Transparent structure of the eye containing regularly aligned collagen fibers. Cornea.
Which of the following endocrine glands develops primarily from the endoderm of the pharynx? Thyroid and parathyroids.
Gel-like structure embedded with the tips of cochlear hair cells. Tectorial membrane.
Melanin-containing layer of the eye's vascular tunic. Choroid.
The basilar membrane supports the: Spiral organ.
Where is the highest concentration of cones? The fovea centralis.
What are the pathway parts of flow of taste sensation along t he gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex? Vagus nerve, solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata, and thalamic nuclei. (NOT hypothalamic appetite centers).
What mineral is essential for the formation of the thyroid hormone? Iodine.
Endolymph-filled structure containing receptors for hearing. Cochlear duct.
What is erythropoiesis? A type of hematopoiesis, specifically the formation of red blood cells.
Three types of granulytes are: Neutrophils (also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes), eosinophils, and basophils.
Two types of agranulocytes are: Lymphocytes and monocytes.
What are the three major phases of hematostasis? 1. Vasoconstriction 2. Platelet plug formation 3. Blood clotting (coagulation).
What are the functions of platelets? Form a plug at injury sites. Secrete chemical signals adenosine diphosphate (ADP), thromboxane A2, and a fatty acid (arachidonic acid).
The difference between a patient's systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called: Pulse pressure.
Where is the chordae tendineae in the heart? These string-like tendinous bands found within both ventricles of the heart, at base of the mitral and bicuspid valves coming out of the L and R atriums sort of fanning out.
The vagus is said to act as a "brake" on the heart. This situation is called: Vagal inhibition.
What are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? Aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors.
Cardiac output is determined by: Stroke volume and heart rate.
What is cardiac output determined by? - Heart rate and stroke volume - CO= HR X SV
What location is the vein that most people find easiest to obtain blood? Anticubital or AC.
What formed element of the blood is packed with molecules of hemoglobin? Erythrocytes.
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? 1. Skeletal muscle contractions. 2. Blood-pumping action of respirations.
What is the longest vein in the body? Great Saphenous Vein. It runs up the medial leg to the trunk.
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of: Vasodilation.
Which sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles? Precapillary sphincters.
In ______, blood moves from veins to other veins or arteries to other arteries without passing through an intervening capillary network. vascular anastomoses
What are the three granulocytes? (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes.) Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils. (Lymphocytes are not granulocytes.)
When blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the __________. Left atrium.
During fetal circulation, what opening in the septum, between the right and left atria, directs most of the blood so that it bypasses the fetal lungs? Foramen ovale.
Which division of the autonomic nervous system sends fibers to the heart? Both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic.
The outermost layer of the larger blood vessels of the tunica is: The tunica externa, also called the tunica adventitia.
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? -It flows into the inferior vena cava. It flows into the inferior vena cava.
Neutrophils are highly: Mobile and phagocytic.
What is it called when neutrophils migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces? Diapedesis.
The heart valves that are located where the trunk of the pulmonary artery joins the right ventricle and where the aorta joins the left ventricle are called: Semilunar valves. These are half-moon shaped valves.
A glycoprotein that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is: Erythropoietin.
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: Adult stem cells known as hematopoietic stem cells.
Internal iliac arteries supplies blood to: The urinary bladder, internal and external wall of pelvis, external genitalia, and medial side of thigh. (Careful not to pick legs or feet.)
The subclavian arteries supply blood to the _____ ___________. upper extremities and head, as well as some to the thorax.
The type of membranous tissue that lines the heart and blood vessels is the: Endothelium.
Platelets primary role is to: form blood clots.
Platelets play an important role in: - releasing heparin to aid in the formation of a platelet plug. - promoting the formation of clots to seal off wounds in vessels. - producing enzymes that destroy inflammatory chemicals. (In this way, they do help fend off infection.)
Which types of arteries are also called conducting arteries and include the aorta? Elastic arteries.
Which layer of the larger blood vessels is made up of endothelium? Tunica intima.
Renal veins drain blood from the: Kidneys.
___ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit.
The ______ drains much of the superficial leg and foot. great saphenous vein.
The four structures that compose the conduction system of the heart are: SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers.
Which vessels do myocardial cells receive blood? The left and right coronary arteries.
What is leukopenia? A decrease in the amount of white blood cells.
What is the name of the special covering of the heart that is a loose-fitting sac? Pericardium.
Bulk of heart wall is thick, contractile middle layer called: Myocardium.
The brachiocephalic vein drains blood from the: Head, neck, and upper extremities.
Of these, which is not a formed element in the blood? Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets. Plasma.
The free edges of the atrioventricular valves are anchored to the: Papillary muscles.
What do inguinal nodes filter? Lymph from the lower limbs.
Adaptive immunity, part of the bodys third line defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the: Lymphocyte.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as: Natural killer cells.
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? Interferon.
Which of these substances operate immune mechanisms? a. sebum b. mucus c. enzymes d. hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa All of these.
_______ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance.
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is: The thymus, though the bone marrow is also primary.
The secondary organ of the lympathic system is: Lymph nodes and spleen.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an: Antigen's epitopes fit and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding site
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? Immunoglobin M.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? Spleen.
Antibodies are proteins of the family called: Immunoglobulins.
Activities that result in central movement or flow of the lymph are called: Lymphokinetic activities.
A tumor of the lymphoid tissue is called: Lymphoma.
The functions of the lymph nodes are: Defense and hematopoiesis.
The __ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. Clonal selection theory.
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called: Phagocytosis.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called: Tonsils.
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called: Diapedesis.
The body's defense mechanism can be organized into one or two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are: Innate (also known as non-specific) and adaptive (also known as acquired or specific).
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a: Germinal center.
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the __, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. Skin.
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are: Lymph nodes.
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are: Fluid balance and immunity. (While waste product removal is also part of the lymphatic function, that sort of falls under the immunity function. The fluid balance is one of the two primary functions.)
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into __, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. Thymocytes.
What is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? Lymphotoxin.
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell's surface, which result in: Cytolysis.
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as __ immunity. cell-mediated.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the __. T cell.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the t cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized t cells that form: Effector T cells and memory cells.
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of: Prostaglandins.
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called: Lacteals.
Lymphatic vessels are also called: Lymphatics.
Describe lymphatic vessels: They are lymphatic capillaries that are blind-end vessels. In the intestine, they are called lacteals.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of: Detecting and then moving toward higher concentration of the factor
Ciliated cells in this layer transport mucus laden with dust, bacteria, pollen, and viruses towards the pharynx. Mucosa.
A muscular tube that serves as a common passageway for food and air. Laryngopharynx.
The vocal fold is also called the: True vocal cord.
Which organ consists largely of cartilages that are attached to one another and to surrounding structures by muscles or fibrous and elastic tissue components? Larynx.
The cartilage that has a laryngeal prominence that is also known as the "Adam's apple." Thyroid cartilage.
The cartilage that anchors the vocal cords posteriorly. Arytenoid cartilage. (Located back of throat, looks a little bit like hooks).
The roof of the nose is separated from the cranial cavity by a portion of the ethmoid bone called the: Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
A flexible tube that has C-shaped cartilaginous rings that keep it from collapsing. Trachea.
The small leaf-shaped cartilage that projects upward behind the tongue and hyoid bone. Epiglottis.
Structures that assist in filtering, heating, and humidifying inspired air. Nasal conchae.
The air-containing spaces that open, or drain, into the nasal cavity. Paranasal sinuses.
The fibromusculocartilaginous layer with hyaline cartilaginous rings that allow the trachea to bend and elongate but not collapse. Hyaline cartilage.
The surface of the respiratory membrane inside each alveolus is coated with a fluid containing: Surfactant.
Surfactant is produced by what type of cells of the alveolar wall? Type II cells.
What does surfactant function? Reduce surface tension to help prevent alveolus from collapsing or sticking shut.
The ________ is the portion of the soft palate that prevents food from entering the nasal cavity. Ulvula.
The trachea divides at is lower end into: Two primary bronchi.
An inflammation of the lower respiratory tract that involves the airways of the lungs. Pneumonia.
The vibrissae function as: Filters. (NOT baffles or producers of mucus).
The microscopic cilia function to: Move mucus toward the pharynx. (NOT filter, move air to lungs, or move air to the pharynx.)
A muscular tube that propels swallowed food to the stomach. Esophagus.
The trachea, bronchial tree, and lungs make up the: Lower respiratory tract.
The soft wall of the trachea allows the esophagus to expand anteriorly. Trachealis muscle.
During respiration, how does the thorax size change when the chest is raised? It becomes larger.
Is the vestibular fold, or false vocal cord located above or below the true vocal cord? Above.
Gas exchange occurs only in: Alveoli.
A common condition characterized by acute inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. Acute bronchitis.
The cartilage that folds over the opening of the larynx — the glottis. The function of this cartilage is to prevent aspiration of foods and liquids into the lower respiratory tubes. Epiglottis.
If you were to trace the movement of air through the nose into the pharynx, it would pass through the following structures in which order? Anterior nares, vestibule, meati, and posterior nares.
The _____ of each lung lies against the ribs and is rounded to match the contours of the thoracic cavity. Costal surface.
When the diaphragm relaxes, what does shape is it? It returns to a domelike shape or "u" shape.
When the diaphragm contracts, what happens to the floor of the thoracic cavity? The diaphragm pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward.
What happens in the thorax to bring about inspiration and expiration? Changes.
Of these, which does not distribute air? Trachea, bronchus, alveolus, nose. Alveolus.
The largest of the paranasal sinuses. Maxillary.
What are the paranasal sinuses? Frontal, maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.
The more common name for the pharynx. Throat.
The fauces, one of the seven openings found in the pharynx, opens into the: Oropharynx.
The structure known as the "Adam's apple" located in the neck. Thyroid cartilage.
Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane? Vestibule, posterior nares, trachea, primary bronchi. Vestibule.
What is the sequence of air through the nose? Anterior (external) nares; vestibule; inferior, middle, and superior meatuses simultaneously; posterior (internal) nares.
The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the: Cricoid cartilage.
The approximate length of the trachea, or windpipe. 11 cm.
Gas exchange, the lungs' main and vital function, takes place in the: Alveoli.
What is the function of surfactant? Prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the: Nasopharynx.
In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the: Horizontal fissure.
The left lung is divided into a superior lobe and an inferior lobe by the: Oblique fissure.
In the right lung, what does the oblique fissure separate? The superior and middle lobes from the inferior lobe.
The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose. Conchae.
The upper respiratory tract includes what structures? Nose or nostrils, nasal cavity, mouth, throat (pharynx), and voice box (larynx). (The trachea is not part of the upper respiratory tract.)
What is the function of the vibrissae in the vestibule? Provide an initial "filter" to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as: Nostrils, anterior nares, and external nares.
The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium. Pseudostratified columnar. This is a type of mucous, and also lines the larynx, paranasal sinuses, and the epiglottis, as well as the bronchi and trachea in the lower respiratory tract.
What is the function of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx? They serve in voice production. (They do NOT move the larynx as a whole, nor are they the origin of the hyoid bone.)
Where is olfactory epithelium found? The covering the superior turbinate.
The small openings in the cribriform plate function to: Allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
What is the midline partition structure that the hollow nasal cavity is separated by? Septum.
The cribriform plate is part of the: Ethmoid bone.
What does the cribriform plate do? It separates the nasal and cranial cavities
What are paranasal sinuses normally filled with? Air.
What is the function of the paranasal sinuses? Drain or open into the oropharynx.
What are the smallest branches of the bronchial tree? Bronchioles.
What are functions of the pharynx? Aids in forming vowel sounds, provides a pathway for food, and provides pathway for air. (It does NOT determine quality of the voice.)
What are functions of the respiratory system? Assist with homeostasis of body pH, filters air, and warms air. ((It does NOT distribute oxygen to cells).
The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below. Oropharynx.
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. 150 ml (30%).
The small openings in the cribriform plate function to: Allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain
Created by: TamraArm
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Voices

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