Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Tamra Armstrong
Physiology lab set 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is epidemiology is the study of: | The occurrence, distribution, and transmission of disease. |
| What do negative-feedback mechanisms do? | Minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis, increase rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. Negative control systems oppose change. |
| What do positive-feedback control systems do? | Accelerate a change. (i. e. the release of oxytocin during childbirth). Postive-feedback has an "end point". |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? | Tapeworms! |
| Which protein substance has no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | Prions. |
| Homeostasis can best be described as: | Think constant. It is the state of relative constancy. |
| What may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | Environment, stress, and lifestyle . |
| What is set point? | It is the normal reading or range of normal. |
| What body system is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive. |
| Where is the body's thermostat? | Hypothalamus. |
| What is another name for intrinsic control? | Autoregulation, also known as local control. |
| Would shivering be an example of homeostasis or negative-feedback? | Both. |
| Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | Viruses. |
| Autoimmunity means: | Self-immunity. |
| Basic components of feedback control loop are: | Effector mechanism, sensor, and integrated sensor. |
| What is the definition of pathogenesis? | The course of disease development. |
| What does afferent mean? | It is the signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference. |
| The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called: | Feed-forward. |
| Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? | Intracellular regulation. |
| What are homeostatic control mechanisms? | Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis. |
| What levels are complex processes of the body are coordinated? | Intracellular, intrinsic, and extracellular. |
| To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a: | Feedback control loop. |
| Are vents that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot a positive or a negative feedback mechanism? | Positive feedback. |
| Negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance. Does this mean they are fast or slow? | They are slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range. Think about it like someone a car going really fast to get to work on time to fix a problem, but when they get close and realize the problem is not much of an issue anymore, they slow the pace. |
| What are the cycles that change set points to different values at different times of day? | Circadian cycles. |
| The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as: | ORGANS that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms. Effectors influence controlled physiological variables. |
| Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? | Nervous and endocrine. Both of these are outside regulators, thus extrinsic. |
| What is a polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? | Glycogen. |
| What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? | Functional group. |
| What is nucleic acid and what is it comprised of? | It is a very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond . |
| What is the carbon-containing molecules formed by living things? | Organic molecules. |
| What are proteins polymers of? | Amino acids. |
| What is the most important monosaccaride? | Glucose. |
| Do chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape? | Yes, this true. |
| What is ATP? | Adenosine triphosphate is the form of energy that cells generally use. |
| In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. | Adenine with thymine, or cytosine with guanine. Uracil is not part of DNA, but is part of RNA taking the place of thymine. |
| Why are DNA and RNA important? | Because they are information molecules. |
| Do RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases? | No. The pyrimidine bases in DNA are cytosine and thymine. In RNA, the pyrimidine is thymine becomes uracil, so the pyrimidines in RNA are cytosine and uracil. The purine bases do remain the same as adenosine and guanine. |
| What does hydrophilic mean? | This means“water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head. |
| What is the lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone? | Prostaglandin. |
| Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n): | Polymer. |
| When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. (True or False) | This is false because when amino acids are joined, and a peptide bond is formed, a water molecule is released. |
| Name lipids. | Fats, steroids, and cholesterol. (Saccharides are not lipids.) |
| What determines how a protein performs? | Shape. |
| A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. (True or False). | False. A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three different fatty acids. |
| What four elements do all proteins have? | Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen. |
| What is a characteristic of saturated fats regarding bonds? | All available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled. |
| The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+. |
| What are the types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone? | Steroids. |
| What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | Degree of saturation. |
| What are characteristics of carbohydrates? | They include substances commonly called sugars, they are the body’s primary source of energy, and they are a part of both DNA and RNA. |
| Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule. |
| Peptide bonds join together molecules of: | Amino acids. |
| What are the basic building blocks of fats? | Fatty acids and glycerol. |
| The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. | carbohydrate and protein; protein. |
| What is a double-helix strand of nucleotides? | DNA. |
| Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? | Prostaglandin. |
| The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? | Secondary. |
| The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? | Structural and functional. |
| What structural lipid found in the cell membrane? | Triglyceride and steroid. |
| When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? | Maltose. |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: | Peptide bonds. |
| What are characteristics of RNA? | It contains ribose sugar, it contains adenine, and it is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. |
| Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? FAD, creatinine phosphate, NAD, ATP | Creatinine phosphate. |
| What is it called when the formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water? | Dehydration synthesis. |
| What are substances that are organic? | Lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins. Electrolytes are NOT organic. |
| Describe how unsaturated fats will move or change shape. | They will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. |
| Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | Primary. |
| What is the element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates? | Nitrogen. |
| Which lipid is part of vitamin D? | Steroids. |
| What is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? | They both contain glycerol and they both contain fatty acids. (The do not both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end). |
| A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | Free radical. |
| The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: | LDL. |
| Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | Essential amino acids. |
| Diffusion can be defined as: | the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. |
| Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is | hypertonic. |
| Proteins that act as catalysts are called | enzymes. |
| Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. | osmotic. |
| The net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. | Osmosis. |
| The two processes of protein synthesis are | transcription and translation. |
| A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) | allosteric effector. |
| The result of meiosis is | four daughter cells that are haploid. |
| A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) | catalyst. |
| Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except: prophase, anaphase, metaphase, karyophase, telophase. | Karyophase. |
| Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? | Cytoplasm. |
| Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? | S phase. |
| The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytosis. |
| In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is | oxygen. |
| Meiosis is called “reduction division” because | the number of chromosomes is reduced by half. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? | Two haploid gametes. |
| Diffusion moves | down a concentration gradient. |
| Meiotic cell division occurs in | primitive sex cells. |
| Normal mitosis results in | cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. |
| Transcription can best be described as the | synthesis of mRNA. |
| The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. | Diploid. |
| Which of the following is an active transport process? | Endocytosis. |
| RNA makes proteins by | translation. |
| Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? | Anaphase - mitosis is complete. |
| If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the | citric acid cycle. |
| The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the | nitrogen base. |
| In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) | codon. |
| In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? | anaphase. |
| Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it | does not depend on cell energy. |
| If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? | Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates. |
| Amino acids form DNA chains. | True |
| The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. | true |
| Uracil is present in DNA in place of thymine. | False. |
| An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: | genome. |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? It is a single strand. It contains uracil rather than thymine. The obligatory base pairs are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine. It contains deoxyribose sugar. | It contains deoxyribose sugar. |
| The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: | filtration. |
| Phagocytosis is an example of: | Endocytosis. |
| When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? | Metaphase. |
| The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. |
| Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | an even exchange of material across the membrane. |
| Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | haploid. |
| Water will move through the cell membrane by: | osmosis. |
| Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell. |
| Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? | Neoplasm. |
| All of the following are examples of passive transport except: filtration. osmosis. endocytosis. dialysis. | Endocytosis. |
| Transcription can be best described as the: | synthesis of mRNA. |
| Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: | active transport. |
| A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: | ribose sugar. |
| Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: | facilitated diffusion. |
| All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except:chromosome number remains at 46. primitive sex cells become mature gametes. the cells become haploid. meiosis occurs in two steps. | Chromosome number remains at 46. |
| Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy Can occur in living and nonliving cells May occur both into and out of the cell Energy source is cellular | Uses cellular energy. |
| A sequence of three bases forms a(n): | codon. |
| Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: | hypertrophy. |
| The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: | aquaporins. |
| If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? | It contains ribose sugar. This is because it has uracil so it is RNA. |
| Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. |
| A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: | carrier-mediated transport. |
| NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? | Both into and out of the cell |
| A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: | hypertonic. |
| During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? | Prophase. |
| Diffusion requires: | A concentration gradient. (It is a downward concentration gradient.) |
| Hair | - alternates between periods of growth and rest. - consists of keratinized cells. - is formed from cells of the germinal matrix. |
| The hair follicle is found in the: | dermis. |
| Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? | Stratum lucidum |
| The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: | ceruminous. |
| Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? | Stratum spinosum |
| In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? | Stratum granulosum |
| Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. | arrector pili |
| Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: | germinativum. |
| Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: | soles of the feet. |
| Which is not part of a hair? Shaft Root, Lanugo , Medulla | Lanugo. |
| Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? | Dendritic cells. |
| Which skin layer is called the barrier area? | Stratum corneum |
| Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? | keratinocytes. |
| The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. | stratum basale. |
| Functions of connective tissue are: | Transport, support, and defense. (communication is NOT a function). |
| Functions of epithelial tissue are: | Absorption, secretion, and protection. (Assimilation is NOT a function). |
| The hypodermis: | connects the dermis to underlying tissues. |
| Which vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? | Vitamin A, D, and K. |
| What are characteristics of epithelial tissue? | Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body, Covers and protects body surfaces, Lines the interior of body cavities. (not communication or control). |
| Functions of the skin include: | Defense against disease organisms, body temperature regulation, and excretion of water and salts. (Not synthesis of vitamin E). |
| What are characteristics of connective tissue? | Protect the body from foreign invaders, support of the body, and transport substances throughout the body. (NOT Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes). |
| Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | Basale. |
| Characteristics of smooth muscle include: | Having one nucleus per cell, Composing the walls of the viscera , and Usually not being under voluntary control. (NOT have intercalated discs, which are found in cardiac muscles, smooth). |
| Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithelial. |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane. |
| Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells. |
| Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | bone. |
| Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? | collagen. |
| Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? protection; secretion; sensation; excretion | secretion. |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | connective. |
| What are functions of adipose tissue? | Insulates to conserve body heat, Supports and protects the kidneys , and stores excess food. (NOT Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances). |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective. |
| Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes. |
| The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: | nervous. |
| Characteristics of muscle tissue include: | Cells are specialized to contract, Produces movement for the body, Generates heat for the body. (NOT Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix ). |
| Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True or false | True. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? having one nucleus per cell; being attached to bone; having striations; having voluntary or "willed" muscles | Having one nucleus per cell |
| Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat. |
| The area referred to as true skin is the: | dermis. |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme. |
| Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | microglia. |
| In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? | sole of the foot. |
| Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. | epithelial and connective. |
| What is a tissue? | a group of similar cells that perform a common function. |
| Why is cartilage slow to heal? | Because it does not have blood supply and because it is semi-solid and flexible |
| Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue? | Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers. |
| Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification? | the flat bones of the cranium. |
| Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. | epiphyseal plate. |
| Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________ | In the endosteum or periosteum |
| Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? | calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved |
| In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes? | They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity. |
| Characteristics and functions of the axial skeleton are: | -Supports and protects organs -Provides framework for muscles that adjust positions of neck , head, and trunk - Provides framework for muscles that perform respiratory movements - Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones |
| Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. | fat and triglycerides. |
| Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? | Protection of internal organs. |
| Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. | Make blood cells. |
| Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? | Cartilages. |
| The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of | fibrous membrane. |
| Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? | The anterior and posterior fontanelles allow for overlaping of skull bones to decrease the diamiter of the fetal head at birth. Allows for brain growth. The anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age. The fontanelles are fibrous membranes. |
| Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. True or false | True |
| Characteristics of the diaphysis: | Hollow, composed of compact bone. (NOT Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle ). |
| During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | Pelvic outlet. |
| Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | red bone marrow. |
| Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. True or false | True. |
| In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. | third. |
| Functions of the bone: | support. protection. mineral storage. hematopoiesis. |
| The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: | endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. |
| Characteristics of the epiphysis: | Made of spongy bone and contains red bone marrow. (NOT cylindrical shape,. They are lumpy.) |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the | Scapula. (Remember, closest to the joint is the shoulder.) |
| The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: | thumb. |
| The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: | osteoclasts. |
| Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
| Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | Calcium and phosphorus. |
| Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 to 40. |
| One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. True or false. | False. |
| Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are | Osteoblasts. |
| In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: | Osteoblasts. |
| In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: | osteoclasts. |
| What are dependent on the proper amounts of calcium ions in the blood? | Blood clotting Transmission of nerve impulses Contraction of cardiac muscle |
| Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. True or false | False. |
| Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. | True. |
| If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: | infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain. |
| An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | Osteoporosis. |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. true or false | False. It articulates with the scapula. |
| Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? | Hormonal production. |
| A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: | knee. |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | in the diaphysis. |
| A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | kyphosis. |
| Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when | complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix. |
| After the age of 50, the density of bone: | decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. |
| The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the | threshold stimulus. |
| The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called | extensibility. |
| _____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. | Dorsiflexion. |
| The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. | knee |
| Function of muscles: | posture, heat production, and movement. (NOT storage, not protection of organs). |
| Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? | suture |
| Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) | bursa |
| If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. | connective. |
| The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of | ATP |
| A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an | isometric contraction |
| Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called | hypertrophy |
| Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called | lactate |
| Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase. |
| Synovial joints are | freely movable. |
| Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? | elbow joint. |
| The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? | gliding. |
| The structure of the knee joint permits movements of | flexion and extension. |
| The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere. |
| According to the sliding filament theory | actin moves past myosin. |
| Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? | gliding. |
| Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? | tendons. |
| The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. | The shoulder joint is an example of all of these. |
| Muscle tone is maintained by | negative feedback mechanisms. |
| The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, | tropomyosin, and troponin. |
| Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in | fatigue |
| Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called | symphyses |
| The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the | synchrondrosis. |
| Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? | transverse tubules. |
| Synarthrotic joints are (movable or immovable) | immovable. |
| The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are | recruited. |
| Moving a part of the body forward is: | protraction |
| The opposite of dorsiflexion is: | plantar flexion. |
| The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: | myosin |
| A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | biaxial |
| Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? | sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
| A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. | isotonic. |
| The chief function of the T-tubules is to: | allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. |
| What are end-product of the breakdown of ATP? | An inorganic phosphate Energy that can be used in muscle contraction ADP |
| Types of muscle with T-tubules: | Cardiac and striated. (Smooth muscles do not have T-tubules). |
| An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: | head of the radius articulating with the ulna. |
| The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: | the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. |
| The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: | amount of load, recruitment of muscle fibers, and initial length of muscle fibers. recruitment of motor units. |
| What are true characteristics of an isometric contraction ? | the muscle does not shorten. it can produce work by tightening to resist a force. the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. (Movement is NOT produced). |
| Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? | saddle |
| Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? | Symphysis. |
| Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: | cramps. |
| Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? | protection |
| Characteristics of motor neurons: | Some motor neurons stimulate only a few dozen muscle fibers. Some motor neurons stimulate a few thousand muscle fibers. (NOT The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be.) |
| Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: | A-band |
| Which joint allows for the most movement? | ball and socket |
| Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons; autonomic motor neurons; both somatic and autonomic motor neurons; internal stimulation | somatic motor neurons. |
| In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | synarthrosis. |
| Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: | abduction |
| Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? | static tension |
| The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint. | shoulder |
| An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: | interphalangeal joints. |
| Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: | glycogen |
| Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: | dorsiflexion |
| The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: | iron |
| The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. | hinge |
| Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? | myosin |
| White fibers are also called _____ fibers. | fast |
| Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | plantar flexion |
| The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: | irritability or excitability. |
| Muscle contractions will continue as long as: | the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. |
| Facts about cardiac muscles: | Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle. Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks. (NOT Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract. ) |
| Heat Production facts: | The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. Shivering will increase body temperature. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. |
| Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? | ball and socket |
| Endurance training is also known as: | Aerobic training |
| The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: | knee |
| In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: | sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
| After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? | troponin |
| The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: | replenish energy supply. |
| Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: | shoulder |
| The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: | circumduction. (not rotation) |
Created by:
TamraArm
Popular Anatomy sets