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A&P
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Name 4 main types of tissue | Epithelial; Connective; Muscle; Nervous |
| What is epithelial tissue | Tightly packed flattened cells that form sheets called membranes |
| Where is epithelial tissue found | Lining the body inside and out |
| What is the main function of epithelial tissue | To protect underlying tissues; Can also absorb or secrete substances, excrete waste |
| Does epithelial tissue have a direct blood supply | No - diffusion of nutrients from connective tissue |
| Give some examples of connective tissue | Blood; ligaments; cartilage; bone |
| What is the main function of connective tissue | To bind, support or protect other structures |
| What is the function of muscle tissue | To shorten and contract when stimulated in order to create movement |
| What are muscle cells called and why | Fibres - long and narrow ; As they contract become shorter and thicker |
| What is the main function of nervous tissue | To receive and transmit messages to co-ordinate the body's activities; Can be conscious, subconscious, voluntary or involuntary |
| What is a single cell called | Zygote |
| What is cell division called? | Mitosis |
| What is cytoplasm? | Jelly like substance which fills the cell and helps to maintain its shape -90% water, rest amino acids, sugars and other stuff |
| What is an organelle? | Specialised parts of the cell which have a specific function or role |
| Name the 7 off structures of a common animal organelle | Nucleus; Ribosomes; Lysosomes; Mitochondria; Cell membrane; Golgi complex; Endoplasmic reticulum |
| What is the Nucleus? | A membrane bound structure containing chromosomes (DNA) |
| What is the function of the Nucleus? | 1) Regulates all cell activity 2) Provides the correct amino acid template for production of proteins |
| What are ribosomes? | Tiny granular structures made of RNA (ribonucleic acid) and proteins |
| What is the function of ribosomes? | 1) Interpret the templates from the nucleus and synthesize appropriate proteins |
| What is the Endoplastic Reticulum? Name the 2 types | A network of membranes which create canals in the cytoplasm ; Smooth and rough (studded with ribosomes) |
| What is the function of the Endoplasmic Reticulum? | Rough - synthesized proteins for export from the cells ; Smooth - syntheses of lipids and steroids (in some cells); detoxification of certain drugs; in muscles storage of calcium ions |
| What is the Golgi complex? | Stacks of folded membranous sacs which have an entrance and an exit through which proteins leave and enter |
| What is the function of the Golgi complex? | Acts as a sorting and distribution centre for the proteins produced in the ER |
| What are the lysosomes? | Round or oval shape enclosed by a membrane and containing enzymes |
| What is the function of lysosomes? | Waste management - enzymes break down the proteins etc before expelling them from the cell as waste |
| What are the structures of the mitochondria? | Usually sausage shaped organelles which contain 2 membranes. Outer enclosed the organelle and the inner is folded to increase the membranous surface area |
| What is the function of the mitoch0ondria? | Responsible for the production of energy using oxygen, carbs and fatty acids; Have their own DNA |
| What is the structure of the cell membrane? | 2 rows of phospholipids are aligned with the heads facing outwards and the tails extending inwards firming the membrane |
| What is the function of the cell membrane? | 1) To form a protective barrier around a structure. 2) Allow the passage of certain substances/signals into or out of a structure |
| What combine to form molecules? | Atoms |
| What are the 2 layers of the skin? | Epidermis and Dermis |
| What ios the purpose of the skin? | Versatile, waterproof covering that is 1st line of defence against injury or invasion by hostile organisms and infectious bacteria |
| What is the main role of hair follicles? | Secretion of sebum onto the skin and sweat ducts |
| Name 5 layers of the epidermis | 1) Basal 2) Prickle cell 3) Granular 4) Clear 5) Horny |
| What happens in the basal layer? | Epithelial cells constantly divide to provide new skin to replace cells lost at the outer layer |
| What do the cells in the prickle cell layer look like? | Shiny and prickly |
| What happens in the granular layer? | As cells move outwards lose spiny look to become more granular; Named after granules of investigation present |
| Where would you find the clear layer? | In thicker skin areas I.e. palms of hands and soles of feet |
| What happens in the horny layer? | Cells begin to decay as they move outwards - they become a sac of keratin which gives the skin it's waterproofness |
| What are melanocytes? | Cells found in basal layer which control pigmentation of the skin via melanin |
| What does the dermis layer consist of? | Elastin and collagen fibres |
| Name 5 structures of the dermis | 1) Arrector pili muscles 2) Sweat glands 3) Sebaceous glands 4) Sensory nerve endings 5) Blood vessels |
| What are arrector pili muscles? | Involuntary/smooth muscles found near the hair follicles ; Cold- muscles contract causing hairs to stand up on end |
| What are the 2 types of sweat glands and what do they do? | Eccrine and apocrine; 1) Eccrine - coiled tubes pass up from the dermis to the surface of the skin - excrete sweat 2) Apocrine -armpits; genitals. Excrete sweat in to hair follicles rather than skin. Secretion thicker and stickier |
| What are sebaceous glands and what do they do? | Sebum oil is produced - to skin via hair follicle- exits to lubricate, moisturiser and waterproof the surface of the skin Made from cells of the glands - cholesterol and fats released as the cells break down - Holocrine gland |
| What are the sensory nerve endings? | Sense pain; pressure; touch; warmth and cold |
| What are blood vessels? | These supply the glands, muscles and structures of the skin |
| Where is the subcutaneous layer and what is it's purpose? | Located beneath the dermis - fat cells; Acts as an insulator; Fat stored can be used as energy if required |
| What are the functions of the skin? | • Protection from infection and injury • regulation of temperature • excretion of sweat • sensation • excretion of sebum to lubricate • Formation of chemicals including vit D and melanin |
| List the 2 types of connective tissue in the skeletal system | Bone and cartilage |
| What is bone? | Calcified connective tissue that forms most of the adult skeleton |
| What is cartilage and what are it's main component? | • Dense, durable and tough fibrous connective tissue able to withstand compression forces • Collagen and elastin |
| Name 3 types of cartilage | • Hyaline • Fibrocartilage • Elastic • Contain no minerals or salts |
| What is hyaline cartilage? | • temporary skeleton of the foetus • found at the end of the long bones of the synovial joints • collagen fibres to provide strength and structure |
| What is fibrocartilage? | • Thick and strong - limited throughout the body • acts like a shock absorber in cartilaginous joints |
| What is elastic cartilage? | • More fibres mainly elastin • ability to return to its original shape • tubes of the ear/epiglottis/layrnx |
| What is the axial skeleton? | Bones that form the main frame or axis ie spine, ribs and skull |
| What is the appendicular skeleton? | Bones attached to the main frame ie upper and lower limbs, pelvis and shoulder girdle |
| Bones in the axial skeleton | • skull - cranial - 8 • chest thorax: ribs(coastal) - 12 pairs; Sternum- 1 (immovable joint with the vehicle and upper ten pairs of ribs) |
| Describe the bones of the spine | • Cervical - 7 bones c1 to c7 • Thoracic - 12 bones t1 to t12 • Lumbar - 5 bones l1 to l5 • Sacral - 5 bones fused (back pelvis) • Coccygeal - 4 bones fused (tail) |
| What are the functions of the skeleton? | • shape (provide framework) • protection (organs) • locomotion (long bones act as levers which muscles pull against) • attachment (ligaments, tendons) • storage (minerals calcium) • production (red and white blood cells and platelets) |
| What are the 5 classification of Bones? | • long • short • flat • irregular • sesamoid |
| What is a long bone? | • greater length than width • main shaft (diaphysis) with 2 extremities (epiphyses) • act as levers • compact bone (diaphysis) • cncellous bone (epiphyses) Ie tibia etc |
| What is a short bone? | • cube shaped • highly cncellous (strength with reduced weight) Ie carpals and tarsals |
| What is a flat bone? | • thin layer of cancellous sandwiched between 2 layers of compact • provide protection and large areas for muscle attachment Ie skull, scapula |
| What are irregular Bones? | Form complex shapes ie vertebrae |
| What are sesamoid Bones? | • Located at sites of considerable friction or tension • improve leverage and protect joint from damage Ie patella |
| Structure of the long bone | • hollow centre - medullary cavity- fat in yellow marrow • epiphyseal plates- growth plates between e & d • hyaline cartilage- covers end of bone at joints • periosteum - sheath covering the whole bone • compact bone - weight bearing stress • cancellous - |
| What are osteoblasts? | Cells that help form bone by depositing new calcium |
| What are osteoclasts? | Cells that help eat away old bone |
| What are osteocytes? | Mature osteoblasts that have ended their bone making careers |
| What non living substances are in the bone? | Minerals and salts |
| What is ossification? | Formation of bone through activity of osteoblasts and osteoblasts plus addition of mineral and salt Calcium needs to be present - taken from the blood |
| Name the bone formation based on a cartilaginous model | Endochondral bone formation Long bones |
| Name the bone formation based on a membranous model | Intramembranous bone formation Flat bones |
| What is the intermediate stage in the development of bone? | Woven bone - ossification laid down in an irregular fashion - not strong |
| What is the next phase after woven bone? | Lamellar bone- osteoblasts and osteoblasts replaces the uneven woven structure - stronger |
| When is ossification fully complete? | Between 18 and 30 - exercise and activity during formative years is essential for bone growth |
| What is osteoporosis? | Loss of calcium and bone mass |
| Bone formation - how? | • Foetus 2 months - cartilage model • Foetus 2-3 months - bone starts developing at primary ossification site • Childhood- bone develops at secondary site • Adolescence - growth plates promote longitudinal growth until young adulthood |
| What are the 4 stages of bone repair? | 1. Inflammation 2. Soft callus formation 3. Hard callus formation 4. Remodelling |
| How does inflammation work? | 1st few hours blood clot forms - helps fix bones in place and stops bleeding. Local vessels vasoconstrict to limit bleeding - initiate cell death - releases cytokines - signal to start healing Osteoclasts flood area with white blood cells to remove waste. |
| What happens during soft callus Formation? | Fibroblasts continue to lay down translation tissue = collagen fibres - chondroblasts begin to form cartilage. These form the soft callus. Stability - new blood vessels form |
| What happens during hard callus Formation | Osteoblasts resume activity - these lay down woven bone - irregular pattern into collagen matrix. Hard callus bigger than original bone as it forms a hard shell to protect |
| What happens during remodelling? | Bone replaces the collagen mesh - woven bone replaced by lamellar bone as the mesh is removed. OB and OC remodel until excessive hard callus reduced, bony lump gone and healing complete |
| What are the signs of Inflammation? | Pain, swelling, heat, redness and reduced range of motion |
| Name the 3 types of joints and give a short description | 1. Fibrous - immovable with interlocking bones - skull 2. Cartilaginous - slightly movable bones connected by cartilage - vertebral 3. Synovial - freely movable - most common joint |
| Name the 6 types of synovial joints and give an example and actions available | 1. Gliding - carpal and tasal bones of wrist and ankle - elevation and depression 2. Pivot - atlas and axis of cervical vertebrae & radius/ulna- rotation 3. Saddle - the thumb - adduction, abduction, flexion and extension 4. Ball & socket - hip/shoulder - |
| Synovial joint characteristics | 1. Ends of bone - Hyaline cartilage 2. Surrounded by a fibrous cartilage which protect and stabilise - capsule ligaments 3. Capsule lines with synovial membrane - secretes fluid - lubrication 4. Ligaments connect bones across joints to increase stability |
| What are bursae? | Small sacs of synovial fluid at friction points |
| What are the 8 actions available at the shoulder? | • Flexion - arms forward • Extension - arms behind • Adduction- arm to midline • Abduction - arm away from midline • Internal rotation - elbow into body • External rotation - elbow away from body • Horizontal flexion- arms at 90 and out to side • Horizont |
| What are the 4 actions available at the spine? | • Flexion - bend forward from waist • Extension - bend backwards • Lateral flexion - bend to side • Rotation - rotate from waist |
| What are the 4 actions available at the shoulder girdle? | • Elevation - shrug shoulders • Depression - shoulders to floor • Protraction - shoulders up and forward • Retraction - shoulder blades together |
| What are the 4 actions available at the elbow? | • Flexion - palm up arm towards body • Extension - arm back down • Pronation - rotate hand palm down • Supination- rotate hand palm up |
| What are the 2 actions available at the knee? | • Flexion - heel to bum • Extension - heel to front |
| What are the 6 actions available at the hip? | • Flexion - knee to chest • Extension - straight leg behind • Abduction - leg out to side • Adduction- leg across body • Internal rotation - knee and foot to midline • External rotation- knee and foot away from midline |
| What are the 4 actions available at the ankle? | 1. Dorsiflexion - toes towards body 2. Plantarflexion - toes away 3. Inversion - sole away from midline 4. Eversion - sole towards midlinee |
| What are the 2 key joints in the pelvis? | Sacroiliac (SI) - synovial anteriorly and fibrous posteriorly; Pubis symphysis- cartilaginous joint; Can move as one unit or left and right can move in opposite directions - facilitates motion without due stress |
| What are Ligaments and what is their 4 main functions? | Tough collagen with variable elastin - forms cord like structures Very strong - can be integrated with joint capsule or separate Functions: 1. Attaching/connecting bone to bone at joints 2. Enhancing joint stability 3. Guiding joint motion and alignment |
| What are tendons? | • Attach muscle to bone across joints and transmit force produced by muscle Collagen fibres (inelastic) Can be cord like or flat sheets (fascia or aponeurosis (smaller)) Poor blood supply limits healing |
| What are the 4 key characteristics of muscle tissue? | 1. Contractibility 2. Extensibility (stretch and lengthen) 3. Elasticity (return to original shape) - limit will tear 4. Excitability (respond to stimuli from the nervous system) - skeletal muscle is somatic (voluntary) - smooth muscle is autonomic (invol |
| What are the 3 types of muscle tissue? | 1. Smooth (digestive system) 2. Cardiac 3. Skeletal (striated - hamstrings) |
| Describe smooth muscles | 1. Involuntary 2. Found in digestive system, blood vessels etc 3. All processes that maintain body's internal environment 4. Formed from highly packed sheets - no sacromeres - vary in length |
| Describe cardiac muscle | 1. Involuntary - sinoatrial node - set rhythm - autorhythmicity 2. Found in heart chamber walls 3. Pump blood and oxygen around the body 4. Striated - not uniform - fibres branch off and rejoin - complex network - self excitable |
| Describe skeletal muscle | 1. Voluntary - somatic - stimulation required for movement 2. Body upright - muscles in a state of tension 3. Muscles exert force and pull on bones - agonist-antagonist 4. Striated - number of rod like structures - fibres - run parallel along length 5. Co |
| What are the key phases of sliding filament theory? | 1. Cocking phase -Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is broken down, releasing energy to prime myosin head into a cocked position 2. Binding phase - calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum(SR) and allow the myosin head to attach to the actin b |
| What is a motor unit and how does it work? | Single motor neuron and all the muscle it activates ( 5 and 1000 muscle fibres) - all or none • One type of muscle fibre - fast or slow twitch • Less effort - smaller neurons - slow twitch • More effort - larger neurons - fast twitch |
| Name and describe types of muscle contraction | 1. Isotonic- movement Concentric - generates force and shortens - lifting phase - upward phase or bicep curl Eccentric - generated force and lengthens - lowering phase 2. Isometric - generates force stays same length 3. Isokinetic - movement at constant |
| Name and describe roles of muscles | 1. Agonist/Prime mover - muscle that contracts and causes action 2. Antagonist - muscle that relaxes 3. Synergist - muscle that contracts to assist or modify pm 4. Fixators - muscle that contracts to stabilise part of body that remains fixed |
| What is the origin of a muscle? | End of muscle attached to a fixed bone that doesn't move during body motion - proximal ( one nearest centreline); May be more than one origin |
| What is the insertion of a muscle? | End of the muscle attached to bone that usually moves during contraction Distal - furthest from centreline |
| What is the nervous system? | Main control and communication centre of the body - maintains homeostasis of all internal body processes - responsible for providing stimuli to skeletal muscles |
| What are the main functions of the nervous system? | 1. Gather info (sensory) 2. Interpret that info (integration) 3. Initiate appropriate response (response) Neurons- connect to spinal cord and brain - impulses processed and reaction initiated |
| What are the 2 major divisions of the nervous system? | 1. Central (CNS) - brain and spinal cord 2. Peripheral (PNS) - all other areas |
| What are the 3 membranes surrounding the brain called? | Meninges |
| What is the clear watery fluid found between the meninges called? | Cerebrospinal fluid |
| What are the 4 main parts of the brain? | 1. Cerebrum 2. Cerebellum 3. Diencephalon 4. Brain stem |
| What is the cerebum and what does it do? | Largest part of brain - divided into 2 sections; Responsible for mental activities, sensory perception, control and initiation of voluntary muscle contractions |
| What is the cerebellum and what does it do? | • Smaller and located below cerebum- divided into 2 sections • Acts as memory bank for all learnt skills & mainly responsible for coordinated voluntary movement e.g. proprioception, balance and posture |
| What is the diencephalon? | Midway between the midbrain and cerebellum - contains thalamus, hypothalamus and the pineal gland |
| What does the hypothalamus do? | It is the link between nervous and endrocine systems. • Controls gland secretion and homeostasis maintenance. • Relays info from brain to the automonic areas of the body ie fluid balance and temp regulation Thalamus and hypothalamus initiate movements in |
| What does the pineal gland do? | • light sensitive - produces melatonin which controls sleep cycles and body rhythms •Other hormones released: Norepinephrine Serotonin Histamine |
| What is the brain stem and what does it consist of? | Links brain to spinal cord - midbrain, pons and medulla |
| What does the midbrain do? | It controls certain eye movements as well as integrating messages about posture and tone |
| What does the Pons do? | It controls facial expressions, eye movements, chewing & breathing - alos link to other parts of the brain |
| What does the medulla do? | It controls heart and respiration rates, blood pressure and relex actions eg coughing, sneezing, vomiting |
| What is the spinal cord and what does it consist of? | Comms link between the brain and the PNS - also integrates info to produce reflex responses without input from the brain (reflex arc) Consists of : cervical, thoracic, lumber and sacral segments |
| What are inter neurons? | Neurons of the central nervous system - pass signals from neuron to neuron |
| What does the PNS connect? | The CNS with all the tissues of the body |
| What are the peripheral nerves divided into and what do they do? | Sensory neurons - carry messages from the CNS from the sensory receptors - decisions re actions Motor neurons - transmit impulses from the CNS to organs, muscles and glands causing actions to occur |
| What is a bundle of nerves for a particular area called and what does it contain? | Plexus - sensory and motor neurons |
| How many plexus are there and what are they called? | 5 off : • Cervical • Brachial • Lumbar • Saccral • Coccygeal |
| What is the somatic nervous system? | Part of the PNS that controls voluntary, conscious movement of skeletal muscles |
| What is the autonomic nervous system and how is it subdivided? | Controls involuntary systems of the body and the unconscious regulation of homeostasis • Sympathetic - fight or flight - speeds up internal processes in prep for activity • Parasympathetic- responsible for slowing down internal processes to rest and rec |
| What are the key anatomical features of a neuron? | • Cell body • Axon • Dendrites |
| Describe the cell body of a neuron | • Regulates cell activity • Contains all components ie nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and mitochondria •If cell dies neuron dies |
| Describe the axon of a neuron | • Long cable like projection covered with a thin insulating layer (myelin sheath) • Transmits action potentials by carrying nerve impulses along length of cell • axon terminal at end |
| What does the myelin sheath help with? | Speeds up action potential as it travels along axon |
| What is the axon terminal? | Interface between neuron and other cells/neurons |
| What are dendrites? | Small branch like projections which carry incoming action potentials and are found on one or both ends of a nerve cell. • These usually "sense" the stimulus |
| What does the term action potential mean and how us it created? | • Wave of electrical activity that passes along electrically excitable cells. • Through the controlled movement of sodium and potassium electrolytes in/out of the cells and it passes along cells outer membrane |
| What us meant by the term excitable in terms or nerve impulses? | Change of polarity between the inside (+) and the outside (-) of the neuron |
| What us the refractory period? | • Period of recovery following action potential passing along the neuron. • During this time neuron is inhibited from responding to any stimuli |
| What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle,and where is it found and what does it do? | Acetylcholine - contained in small sacs at the end if the axon terminals (synaptic end bulbs) |
| What does the endocrine system for? | Maintaining homeostasis using hormones produced by glands and secreted into the bloodstream |
| What are hormones and what are they made of? | Chemicals released into the bloodstream via the endocrine glands to help control and manage internal environment of the body Derived from amino acids, steroids or fatty acids |
| What is the main difference between neural stimulus and endocrine stimulus? | • Neural is very rapid and does not last • Endocrine can last for hours, days or even longer |
| Describe the endocrine function? | 1. Endocrine gland receives stimulus 2. Gland releases chemical hormone 3. Hormones travel to the target cell through the blood 4. Hormone recognises target cell of the body 5. Organ responds to the hormone 6. Feedback to the originating gland stops furth |
| Describe the pituary Gland and where it is located? | Master gland located at the base of the brain. 2 lobes - anterior and posterior |
| What hormones are generated in the anterior lobe of the pituitary Gland and what do they do? | 1. thyroid stimulating hormone 2. Adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) - Stimulates adrenal glands to secrete their steroid/stress hormones 3. Growth hormone - anabolic - stimulated growth in all areas esp during puberty - also stimulated protein synthesis i |
| What hormones are generated in the thyroid Gland and what do they do? | 1)Thyroxine - regulates metabolism and digestive functions 2) Calcitonin - regulates calcium levels in the blood - helps prevent over mobilisation of calcium (weak bones) These have an effect on metabolism, growth and muscle function (via blood calcium |
| Describe the thyroid Gland and where it is located? | • Controlled by the hypothalamus via the release of thyroid stimulating hormone. • Anterior neck just below Adam's apple • 2 lobes one on either side of the trachea • If inactive can become enlarged - goitre |
| Describe the hypothalamus Gland and where it is located? | • Produces a range of hormones which are sent to the pituitary gland for storage in readiness for release and also controls the release of those hormones • Brain - diencephalon - directly linked to the pituitary gland by an exclusive system of blood vesse |
| What hormones are generated in the hypothalamus gland? | 1) Antidiuretic (ADH) - regulates fluid balance, thirst & urine excretion 2) Oxytocin - regulates uterine contraction and milk production following childbirth |
| What hormones are generated in the parathyroid? | 1) Parathyroid hormones that regulate the calcium levels in the blood. 2) Calcium is important for proper functioning of the nervous, muscular and skeletal systems |
| Describe the parathyroid and where it is located? | Usually four parathyroid glands which are embedded in the posterior tissue of the thyroid gland |
| Describe the pancreas and where it is located? | Both an exocrine and endocrine gland- produces hormone and also digestive enzymes which are released into the small intestine Located below the stomach |
| What hormones are generated in the pancreas? | Produce hormones that regulate blood sugar: • Insulin • Glucagon • Somatosatin (fine tuning) Endocrine function is performed by cluster of cells called the islets on langerhans |
| Describe the adrenal glands and where it is located? | • 2 small triangular shapes adrenal glands - 1 on top of each kidney. • Each gland has a medulla and a cortex • Medulla - central portion of gland - produces stress hormones which help the body in times of pressure - catecholamines • Adrenal cortex - o |
| What hormones are generated in the adrenal glands? | 1) Medulla = hormones of action • epinephrine (adenaline) • Norepinephrine (noradrenaline 2)Adrenal cortex = • Cortisol - stress management by providing energy for the body by breaking down carbs & fats • Aldosterone - balances sodium and potassium in th |
| Describe the ovaries and testes and where it is located? | 1) Ovaries - 2 main functions - produce eggs for reproduction and reproductive hormones- oestrogen and progesterone 2) Testes - 2 main functions - produce sperm and the reproductive hormone testosterone |
| Describe insulin action | 1. Glucose enters bloodstream 2. Pancreas detects this rise in blood glucose and secretes insulin into bloodstream 3. Insulin increases permeability of cells ( esp muscle and liver) and membranes to glucose 4. Blood glucose levels begin to drop which is |
| Describe glucagon action | 1. Glucose levels begin to drop 2. Pancreas detects decrease in blood glucose and secretes glucagon into bloodstream 3. Glugacon stimulates the release of glucose from the live 4. Blood glucose levels begin to rise which is detected by the pancreas and i |
| What role does testosterone play? | • Stimulates the growth of muscle tissue • Responsible for greater muscle mass in men as well as facial and body hair • Also directs bone growth during puberty to adulthood • Men 10 x more than females |
| What role does oestrogen play? | • Influences fat storage around the hip, buttock and thighs • Responsible for breast development and regulation of the menstrual cycle |
| What role does progesterone play? | |
| • Triggers body's prep for pregnancy - stimulated blood vessel growth and gland secretion of nutrients to the womb • Growth of foetus & breast tissue and strengthens pelvic muscles | |
| What does the cardiovascular system consist off? | |
| What is the main function of the cardiovascular system? | • Delivery of oxygen, nutrients, hormones and medication • Transporting waste products e.g. CO2 |
| Where is the heart located? | Lies behind the sternum- just left of centre between the right and left lungs |
| Name the 3 layers of the heart | 1. Pericardium - protective sac around the heart (also known as epicardium) 2. Myocardium - largest and formed from cardiac muscle - left layer thicker than right so it is able to pump blood around the body 3. Endocardium - inner lining formed of epitheli |
| What do the right and left halves of the heart do? | • Right - receives blood from the body and lumps blood to the lungs • Left - receives blood from the lungs and pumps blood to the body • Separated by the septum (the central wall) |
| How many chambers does the heart have and what do they do? | • 2 upper (atria) - receive blood from the veins • 2 lower (ventricles) - lumps blood into the arteries |
| How do the atria work? | Receive blood via the veins and pump blood down into the ventricles. These are smaller than the ventricles and do not have to contract hard to operate - passive movement of blood |
| How do the ventricles work? | Supply the force to push the blood around the body. Left larger than right - left side pumps it's contents to furthest parts of the body - right side only pumps to the adjacent lungs |
| What do the atrioventricular valves do ? | Separate the atria and ventricles and prevent the flow of blood back into the atria during ventricular contraction |
| What do the semilunar valves do ? | Prevent the flow of blood back into the right (pulmonary valve) and left ventricles (aortic valve) during ventricular relaxation |
| What is ventricular contraction called? | Systole |
| What is ventricular relaxation called? | Disatole |
| What are the measuremnts of blood pressure called? | Systole and diastole |
| What is the heart's pacemaker called and what does it do? | Sinoatrial node located in the wall of the right atrium- initiates the cardiac muscle contraction (72 times per minute) |
| What are the different types of blood vessels in the Heart? | 1) Arteries 2) Capillaries 3) Veins 4) Arteries 5) Venules • Responsible for transporting blood to and from the heart and delivering nutrients to and from the tissues |
| What are arteries and how do they work? | • Muscular tubes with thick walls which contract to squeeze blood along and away from the heart. • Aorta - arteries - Arterioles- capillaries |
| What is peristalsis? | As blood is ejected from the heart the arterial walls are required to stretch passively to receive blood under high pressure. They then contact immediately in a recoil action to help propel the blood further down the line of the body. |
| Which artery is the exception to the rule? | Pulmonary artery - carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be re-oxygenated |
| What are capillaries and how do they work? | • Extremely thin walls (1 cell thick) - greater number of these than any other blood vessels • Allow the diffusion of nutrients and gasses into the tissue cells. • Capillaries - venules- veins - vena cava |
| What are veins and how do they work? | Thinner walls than arteries with little muscular contractility - carry blood away from the tissues and back towards the heart |
| What is peristaltic action? | Wavelike action made by automatic contraction of the smooth muscle in the veins walls |
| Which vein is the exception to the rule? | Pulmonary vein which carries oxygenated blood to the heart |
| What is venous return? | Flow of blood back to the heart. Veins carry blood under low pressure which makes return to the heart more difficult. Series of one way valve that work against gravity to prevent the backflow of blood. This helps to prevent reversed blood flow or blood p |
| What are the 4 main components of blood? | 1. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) 2. White blood cells (leukocytes) 3. Platelets (thrombocytes) 4. Plasma |
| Describe red blood cells and their function? | • Produced in the soft red bone marrow - contain protein haemoglobin (iron rich - red) which binds to oxygen. • Consists of about 40% red blood cells • Function- carry oxygen |
| Describe white blood cells and their function? | • Produced in the red bone marrow - transparent and do not contain haemoglobin - part of the immune system that fights infection - approx 700 times fewer • Function- Destroy bacteria |
| Describe platelets and their function? | • Cell fragments rather than whole cells • They prevent blood loss by forming a platelet plug - release chemicals that help promote blood clotting- initial stage of tissue repair • Function- aid blood clotting |
| Describe plasma and their function? | Straw coloured liquid portion of the blood- 91.5% water and 8.5% solutes |
| How does the circulatory system work? | Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs via pulmonary vein and enters the left atrium - left ventricles- pumped to body via the aorta When reaches tissue diffused into the cells. CO2 is collected then travels from the body to the heart via the veins - r |
| What is pulmonary circulation? | • Circulation between the heart and the lungs • Pulmonary heart - left atrium and right ventricle • Pulmonary blood vessels - pulmonary artery and vein |
| What is systemic circulation? | • Systemic heart - right atrium and left ventricle • Systemic blood vessels - aorta and the inferior(blood from the lower body) and superior ( blood from the upper body) venae cavae |
| What is blood pressure? | • A measure of the force that blood apples to the walls of the arteries as it flows through them • 2 readings - systolic and distolic |
| What is systolic blood pressure? | The pressure exerted on the artery walls when the cardiac muscle is contacting and pumping blood. |
| What is diastolic blood pressure? | The pressure exerted on the artery walls when the heart is in a relaxed state |
| What is the optimal blood pressure? | • 120 mmHg for systolic • 80 mmHg for diastolic If above 180 and 110 are a contraindication for exercise |
| What are the non-modifiable risk factors of Hypertension? | 1. Age 2. Family history |
| What are the modifiable risk factors of hypertension? | 1. Excessive salt consumption 2. Poor diet 3. Physical inactivity 4. Overweight and obesity 5. Excessive alcohol consumption |
| Other factors which effect blood pressure? | 1. Stress 2. Massage 3. Aerobic/endurance/circuit training 4. Heavy weight training or isometric exercise (not recommended for individuals with hypertension) 5. Holding the breath (watch client to make sure they are not holding their breath) |
| What is the main function of the respiratory system? | Responsible for the intake of oxygen from the air into the body and the removal of CO2 from the body into the air |
| What does the respiratory system consist of? | Lungs, respiratory passageways and specific muscles (diaphragm and intercostal muscles) |
| Where are the lungs located? | Positioned on either side of the rib cage in the thorax - large sheet of muscle separates the thorax from the abdomen(diaphragm) Heart is positioned between the lungs - heart and lungs are connected by the pulmonary blood vessels |
| How is breathing controlled? | • Respiratory centre in the brain (pons and medulla). Breathing would stop without commands from the brain. • Triggered by: 1. Rising levels of CO2 in the blood 2. Stimulated stretch receptors in the intercostal muscles |
| What happens during inspiration? | Diaphragm contracts, external intercostal muscles contract lifting the rib cage - increase volume of the chest cavity - creates negative pressure between the air in the lungs and the air in the atmosphere - air into lungs until 2 pressures balanced |
| What happens during expiration? | Diaphragm relaxes and rises, intercostal muscles relax - decrease volume of the chest cavity - creates positive pressure which pushed air out of the lungs |
| What are the 3 types of Breathing? | • Costal - shallow involves contraction of external ic muscles - sedentary lifestyle • Diaphragmatic - deeper - contraction and lowering of the diaphragm - assists relaxation • Forced - demanding higher levels of O2. Scalenes and SCM muscles are recru |
| How does the air pass through the respiratory system? | 1. Nose and mouth 2. Pharynx (throat) 3. Larynx (voice box) 4. Trachea (windpipe) 5. Primary Bronchi 6. Bronchioles 7. Aveoli (air sacs) |
| What is diffusion? | |
| Gaseous exchange- the movement of gas from a high concentration to an area of low concentration | |
| What is the lymphatic system? | Filtration and overflow component of the cardiovascular system. |
| What are the functions of the lymphatic system? | 1. Removal of excess fluid from the tissues 2. Filtration of fluid and destruction of harmful pathogens before they enter/re-enter the bloodstream 3. Absorption of lipids from the small intestine 4. Return of fluid to the cardiovascular system |
| What is the name of the fluid between cells of tissues? | Interstitial or tissue fluid - via this fluid nutrients and waste products pass between the blood and the cells - co2 and metabolites are pulled back into the the fluid |
| What is the structure of the lymphatic system? | 1. Lymphatic capillaries and vessels 2. Lymph nodes 3. Lymph nodules 4. Spleen 5. Thymus 6. Tonsils |
| What are lymphatic capillaries? | • Blind-ended and originate in the tissues. One cell thick but more permeable • To enter system excess tissue fluid creates pressure that exerts a force on the overlapping endothelial cells which open like swing doors. As these open they create one way |
| How does the lymphatic system work? | To enter system excess tissue fluid creates pressure that exerts a force on the overlapping endothelial cells which open like swing doors. As these open they create one way valves preventing any backflow. Uses wave like action to push fluid along As fl |
| What are the 2 largest lymph vessels? | Thoracic and right lymphatic ducts - drain into the left and right subclavian veins |
| What is the function of the lymph nodes? | 1. Filter and destroy harmful material from the lymph fluid 2. Produce lymphocytes |
| How many lymph nodes dies lymph approx travel through? | 8 to 10 |
| Describe lymph nodes | Small round structures consisting of special lymph tissue surrounded by a capsule of fibrous tissue. This tissue dips down towards the centre to form areas of lymphatic tissue on the interior of the node = Nodules where lymphocytes are produced and waste |
| What are lymphocytes? | • Destroy harmful pathogens before they enter the bloodstream. Start task in lymph node and are in the lymph fluid. • Production is stimulated by demand - nodes can increase in size and become tender as larger nos of lymphocytes are produced on presence |
| Where are the main clusters of lymph nodes located? | • Around the joints- as they move assists in the pumping of the lymph • Occipital - back of head • Submandibular - underneath the jaw • Cervical- side of the neck • Articular- behind and in front of the ear • Axillary - armpits • Digital- elbow • Abdomin |
| Describe lymph nodules | Small solitary deposits of special lymphoid tissue that produce lymphocytes. 1st line of immune defence where external environment cones into contact with the body's internal tissue Found beneath mucous linings of: Upper respiratory tract Small intestines |
| Where is the spleen and what does it do? | • Upper left abdomen • Stores lymphocytes and filters and recycles blood cells rather than lymph |
| What is the thymus and what does it do? | • Located against the trachea above the superior vena cava • Providing immunity in infancy and aids in maturation and programming of the T cells |
| What are the tonsils and what do they do? | • Located at the back of the throat and mouth • 1st line immunity to foreign substances inhaled or ingested |
| What is the digestive system? | Name given to the tissues and organs of the body that are responsible for taking in food, preparing food for absorption, facilitating absorption and finally expelling waste once nutrients have been removed. |
| What is the main part of the digestive system called and describe? | • Gastrointestinal tract (the gut, elementary canal) • A continuous hollow muscular tube which is approx. 9 metres long, begins at the mouth and travels through the body to the anus. |
| What does the GO tract consist off? | • Mouth • Pharynx • Oesophagus • Stomach • Small intestine • Large intestine • Rectum and anus |
| Name other organs that help with the digestive process? | • Teeth • Tongue • 3 pairs of salivary glands • Liver • Pancreas • Gall bladder and bike ducts |
| How does the mouth fit into the digestive process? | Roof of mouth is formed by hard and soft palates and the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue (muscular organ which is attached to the hyoid bone and mandible) |
| Where is the pharynx Located? | Part of the throat located immediately below the nasal cavity, posterior to the mouth and superior to the oesophagus and larynx |
| What is the oesophagus? | It is a tube that carries good from the mouth to the stomach. It is 26cm long in adults. It lies behind the windpipe and the spinal cord |
| Where is the stomach | Located just under the diaphragm. Top connected to the oesophagus and the other end to the first part of the small bowel (duodenum) |
| What is the small intestine? | • Between 6.9 and 7.1m - approx. 2.5 to 3cm in diameter. • 3 parts - duodenum, jejunum and ileum |
| Where and what is the pancreas? | High up in thr abdomen - lies across the body where the ribs meet at the bottom of the breastbone, just behind the stomach. 15cm long and leaf shaped |
| What and where is the gallbladder? | Small hollow pear-shaped pouch 8cm long 2.5cm wide. Underneath the right side of the liver in the upper abdomen |
| What and where is the liver? | 2nd largest organ in body. 2 main lobes - largest right- at the back of the right lobe 2 smaller lobes Found below the right lung - protected by the lower ribs on that side |
| What and where is the large intestine or colon? | Extends from the end of the open to the anus - 1.5m long. Forms an arch |
| What is the anus? | Opening where the GI tract ends an exits the body |
| What is the digestive process? | 1) Breaks down large particles of food as follows: • Carbs - glucose • Protein - amino acids • Fat - free fatty acids Combination of mechanical breakdown of food and the chemical breakdown caused by the introduction of specific digestive enzymes. Each f |
| Where does most if the absorption of nutrients take place? | |
| • Small intestine - walls are series of folds with microscopic hairs (microvilli) - gives a large surface area • Large intestine- water and some vitamins are absorbed • Fibre cannot be digested and are excreted in the faeces | |
| Give examples of digestive enzymes | 1. Mouth - salivary enzyme - carbohydrate 2. Stomach - pepsin - proteins 3. Pancreas into small intestine - lipase - fats 4. Pancreas into small intestine - trypsin - proteins |
| What happens within the mouth and pharynx? | Mouth & pharynx : Chewing - mechanical breakdown Produces saliva enzyme- begins breakdown of carbs - also moistens food and protects teeth against the decay - good is swallowed and passes from the mouth into the pharynx |
| What happens within the oesophagus? | Rhythmical involuntary muscular contractions push food into the stomach |
| What happens within the stomach? | Produces gastric juices containing hydrochloric acid and the enzyme pepsin to break down protein |
| What happens within the pancreas? | Secretes pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes that help further the digestion and absorption of nutrients • Lipase - breaks down fat • Amylase- breaks down carbs into glucose • Trypsin - breaks down protein into amino acids |
| What happens within the liver and gallbladder? | • Liver - bile acids which enable fats to mix with water (emulsification) • Gallbladder - acts as a storage for bile which is released into the small intestine |
| What happens within the small intestine? | • Receives bile juice from gallbladder and pancreatic juice • Primary site of digestion and absorption • Combination of inner surface folds and finger like projections (villi and microvilli) provide large surface area • Digested food is able to pass into |
| What happens within the large intestine? | Absorbs water, vitamins and minerals Contains bacteria which produce vitamins and help prevent infection in the intestine |
| What happens within the rectum? | Stores faeces |
| What happens within the anus? | Opening for the elimination of waste |
| What does the urinary system consists of? | Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra |
| Where are the kidneys and what is their role? | • 2- either side of the vertebrae at the posterior of the abdominal cavity. Left slightly higher. • Filter waste products from the bloodstream • Balancing hydration levels & urine output • Balancing electrolyte levels (sodium & potassium) • Forming urin |
| How do the kidneys work? | Waste filtration as blood flows through the capillaries that pass through each kidney - pressure difference drives waste products and fluid into the kidneys - they now perform a selective reabsorption of any excreted substances the body needs. Controlled |
| What are the ureters and how do they work? | • Tubes of fibrous tissues on the outside, smooth muscle in the centre and epithelial tissue on the inside. • Carry urine from kidneys to urinary bladder |
| What is the urinary bladder and how dowe it work? | • fibrous tissues on the outside, smooth muscle in the centre and epithelial tissue on the inside. • When empty pear shaped but goes oval - holds 300-400ml of urine |
| What is the urethra and how does it work? | • Tube which extends from of the urinary bladder to an exit point. • Formed from smooth muscle and it's role to expel urine and empty the bladder |
| What are the 3 main effects of sports massage? | 1. Physical 2. Physiological and neurological 3. Psychological |
| What defines physical effects? | Mechanical change that happens to a structure being massaged 1. Improved flow of fluids 2. Stretching of soft tissues- tissue mobility & linear formation of tissue during healing 3. Separation of muscle that have become stuck to one another |
| What defines physiological and neurological effects? | • P effect - change that occurs to internal body processes • N effect - changes which occur in the nervous system |
| What kind if response would a slow relaxing massage initiate? | • Parasympathetic • Reduced neural stimulation of muscles • Vadodilation of blood and lymphatic vessels • Reduced production of stress hormones • Reduced heart rate and blood pressure |
| What kind if response would a quick invigorating massage initiate? | Sympathetic response Opposite to parasympathetic effects |
| What defines psychological effects? | Change to state of mind, perception or mood |
| What effects does sports massage have on the skin? | 1. Tissues physically mobilised 2. Increased skin elasticity 3. Exfoliation of superficial cells • Increased supply of nutrients and O2 to the reproductive layers of the skin - redness • Increase in oil production - lessens the risk of dry cracked skin |
| What effects does sports massage have on the lymphatic system? | Manipulation will help to improve lymphatic circulation and drainage - increase the removal of metabolic waste from tissues - increase speed of lymph flow more lymphocytes - improving ability of the body to fight infection |
| What effects does sports massage have on the neuroendocrine system? | Nervous system will then pass on appropriate stimulation to other systems - including endocrine glands which produce hormones to rebalance the autonomic ns |
| What is pain gate theory? | • Inhibitory neurons at the level of the spinal cord which can be stimulated to slow/reduce or prevent pain signals reaching the brain. • Impulses are non-nociceptive (do it transmit pain signals - pressure, temp, touch or vivration) - why we rub an area |
| What does the term medial mean? | Inside to the midline of the body |
| What does the term lateral mean? | Outside from the midline of the body |
| What does the term anterior mean? | Front (towards) |
| What does the term posterior mean? | Towards the back of the body |
| What does the term synergist mean? | Refers to a muscle that contracts to assist or modify the motion of the prime mover |
| What does the term fixator mean? | Refers to muscles that contract to stabilise the part of the body that remains fixed |
| Name the 3 planes of movement and their definition | 1. Sagital - vertical movement i.e. flexion or extension 2. Frontal - 3. Transverse - horizontal |
| What does the term abduction mean? | To move away from the centre line |
| What does the term adduction mean? | Bring in/back to the centre line |
| What does the term eccentric mean? | Refers to the motion of an active muscle while it is lengthening under load |
| What does the term proximal mean? | Closest to the body |
| Name the joints of the ankle and which bones do they link | 1) Talocural - talus, distal tibia and distal fbula 2) Subtalar - talus and calcaneus (heel bone) |
| What type of joint is the talocural? | Synovial hinge joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the talocrural joint? | • Plantarflexion • Dorsiflexion |
| What type of joint is the subtalar? | Synovial gliding joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the subtalar joint? | • Inversion • Eversion |
| What are the bones in the ankle called and how many are there? | Tarsals - 7 |
| What are the bones in the foot called and how many are there? | Metatarsals - 5 Phalanges- 14 |
| What are reticulum? | Tough retaining bands of connective tissue that hold tendons in place enabling the muscles to apply leverage at the joints |
| What are the primer movers for Plantarflexion? | • Gastrocnemius • Soleus |
| Name any synergists for plantarflexion? | • Plantaris • Peroneus longus |
| What are the primer movers for dorsiflexion? | Tibialis anterior |
| What are the antagonists for dorsiflexion? | • Gastrocnemius • Soleus |
| Name any synergists for dorsiflexion? | Peroneus tertius |
| Give an example of when the foot would be in dorsiflexion? | Running/walking uphill |
| Give an example of when the foot would be in plantarflexion? | Standing on tip toes |
| What are the primer movers for Inversion? | • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior |
| What are the antagonists for Inversion? | • Peroneus longus • Peroneus brevis |
| What are the primer movers for eversion? | • Peroneus longus • Peroneus brevis • Peroneus tertius |
| What are the antagonists for eversion? | • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior |
| Give an example of when the foot would be in inversion/eversion? | Walking on uneven ground |
| How many arches are in the foot and what are they called? | 3; • Medial longitudinal • Lateral longitudinal • Transverse |
| What is the primary role of the arches in the foot? | Shock absorption |
| What is the name of the ligment that holds the shape of the arches? | Plantarfascia |
| Name the joints of the knee and which bones do they link | 1) Tibiofemoral - femoral condyles articulate with the tibial condyles 2) Patellofemoral - paella articulates with the femor |
| What type of joint is the tibiofemoral? | Synovial condylar hinge joint |
| What type of joint is the patellofemoral? | Synovial gliding joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the tibiofemoral joint? | • Flexion • Extension |
| What joint actions are associated with the patellofemoral joint? | • Flexion • Extension |
| What type of cartilage is in the tibiofemoral joint and what is it's main role? | Hyaline (articular) - friction reducing |
| What are menisci? | C shaped pieces of fibrocartilage which protect the hyaline cartilage - fit the ends of the femur |
| What is the Q angle? What can it tell you? | • Angle between the quadriceps tendon and the paella tendon • The wider the Q angle the more at risk you are from injuries to the inside of the knee |
| What is the screw home mechanism and why is it important? | It is where the femoral and tibial condyles lock into position during extension allowing the muscles to relax This uses less energy and allows for the ability to stand long periods of time without undue fatigue |
| What are the primer movers for knee extension? | • Vastus lateralis • Vastus medialis • Vastus intermedius • Rectus femoris |
| What are the antagonists for knee extension? | • Biceps femoris • Semitendinosus • Semimembranosus |
| What are the primer movers for knee flexion? | • Biceps femoris • Semitendinosus • Semimembranosus |
| What are the antagonists for knee Flexion? | • Vastus lateralis • Vastus medialis • Vastus intermedius • Rectus femoris |
| What are the synergists for knee Flexion? | • Gastrocnemius • Sartorius • Gracilis |
| Name the only 2 muscles that link the hip directly to the knee? | • Sartorius • Rectus femoris |
| What are the primer movers for knee medial (internal) rotation? | • Gracilis • Sartorius • Popliteus |
| What are the à ntagonists for knee medial (internal) rotation? | Biceps femoris |
| What are the primer movers for knee lateral (external) rotation? | Biceps femoris |
| Which bones link to make the hip joint? | articulation of femur head and the acetabulum of the pelvis |
| What type of joint is the hip? | Synovial ball and socket |
| What joint actions are associated with the hip joint? | • Flexion • Extension • Abduction • Adduction • Medial rotation • Lateral rotation |
| What are the primer movers for hip flexion? | •Illiacus •Psoas major •Sartorius •Rectus femoris •Pectineus •TFL |
| What are the antagonists for hip flexion? | |
| Heart, blood and blood vessels | |
| •Gluteus maximus •Semitendinosus •Semimembranosus •Biceps femoris •Adductor magnus | |
| What are the primer movers for hip extension? | •Gluteus maximus •Semitendinosus •Semimembranosus •Biceps femoris •Adductor magnus |
| What are the antagonists for hip extension? | •Illiacus •Psoas major •Sartorius •Rectus femoris •Pectineus •TFL |
| What are the primer movers for hip abduction? | • Sartorius • Gluteus medius • Gluteus maximus • TFL • Piriformis |
| What are the antagonists for hip abduction? | • Adductor brevis, longus and Magnus • Pectineus • Gracilis |
| What are the primer movers for hip adduction? | •Adductor brevis, longus and Magnus •Pectineus •Gracilis |
| What are the antagonists for hip adduction? | •Sartorius •Gluteus medius •Gluteus maximus •TFL •Piriformis |
| What are the primer movers for hip internal rotation? | •Gluteus medius (anterior) •Gluteus minimus •TFL (tensor fasciae latae) •Adductors Magnus, longus and brevis When sitting piriformis becomes an internal rotator |
| What are the antagonists for hip internal rotation? | •Gluteus maximus •Gluteus medius (posterior) •Sartorius •Piriformis •Quadratus femoris •Obturator •Gemellus |
| What are the primer movers for hip external rotation? | •Gluteus maximus •Gluteus medius (posterior) •Sartorius •Piriformis •Quadratus femoris •Obturator •Gemellus |
| What are the antagonists for hip external rotation? | •Gluteus medius (anterior) •Gluteus minimus •TFL (tensor fasciae latae) •Adductors Magnus, longus and brevis |
| The vertebrae articulate with each other via what joint, what type of joint is it and what do they do? | •Facet joint •Synovial gliding joint •Facilitates rotation of the spine |
| What is between each vertebrae and what is it's role? | SIntervertebral disc •Shock absorption and facilitate movement back, forward and sideways |
| Name the 2 joints at the top of the spine and what type of joint are they? | |
| What is the labrum? | Ring of fibrous cartilage that enhances stability of a joint and stops bones hitting each other at the extreme range of motion |
| What type of joint is the sacroiliac? | •Synovial- anteriorly •Fibrous - posteriorly - minimal movement |
| To move the pelvis which parts of the body need to work together? | •Hip •Pelvis •Lumber spine •SI joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the spine? | •Flexion •Extension •Lateral flexion •Lateral rotation |
| What are the primer movers for spine flexion? | •Psoas major •Rectus abdominus •Scalenes •Sternocleidomastoid •Iliopsoas |
| What are the antagonists for spine flexion? | •Erectus spinae (including multifidus) •Upper trapezius •Quadratus lumborum |
| What are the primer movers for spine extension? | •Erectus spinae (including multifidus) •Upper trapezius •Quadratus lumborum |
| What are the antagonists for spine extension? | •Psoas major •Rectus abdominus •Scalenes •Sternocleidomastoid •Iliopsoas |
| •C1 - atlas gliding joint - pivots the skull •C2 - axis pivot joint - allows rotation of approx 45° | |
| What are the primer movers for spine rotation? | •External/internal obliques •Multifidus •Scalenes •Sternocleidomastoid |
| What are the primer movers for lateral flexion of the spine? | •Erector spinae •External/internal obliques •Quadratus lumborum •Scalenes •Sternocleidomastoid •Levator scapula •Upper trapezius |
| Name the joints of the shoulder and which bones do they link | 1) Glenohumeral joint - articulation of the scapula and head of the humerus 2) Shoulder girdle - sternum, clavicle and scapula |
| What type of joint is the glenohumeral? | Synovial ball and socket |
| What are the name of the 2 joints in the shoulder girdle and what type of joints are they? | 1) Sternoclavicular 2) Acromioclavicular Both synovial gliding joints |
| What joint actions are associated with the glenohumeral joint? | •Flexion •Extension •Abduction •Adduction •Lateral rotation •Medial rotation •Horizontal flexion •Horizontal extension |
| What joint actions are associated with the shoulder girdle? | •Elevation •Depression •Protraction •Retraction |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder elevation? | •Upper Trapezius •Levator scapulae |
| What are the synergists for shoulder elevation? | •Rhomboids •Scalenes |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder depression? | •Lower trapezius •Pectoralis minor |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder retraction? | •Middle trapezius •Rhomboids |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder protraction? | •Pectoralis minor •Serrator anterior |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder Flexion? | •Anterior deltoid •Pectoralis major (upper) |
| What are the synergists for shoulder Flexion? | •Biceps brachii •Coracobrachialis |
| What are the antaganists for shoulder Flexion? | •Posterior deltoid •Triceps brachii •Teres major •Latissimus dorsi |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder extension? | •Posterior deltoid •Triceps brachii •Teres major •Latissimus dorsi |
| What are the antagonists for shoulder extension? | •Anterior deltoid •Pectoralis major (upper) |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder abduction? | •Supraspinatus •Lateral deltoid •Infraspinatus (synergist) |
| What are the antagonists for shoulder abduction? | •Pectoralis major •Latissimus dorsi |
| What are the synergists for shoulder adduction? | •Teres major •Teres minor •Subscapularis •Coracobrachialis |
| What are the primer movers for shoulder adduction? | •Pectoralis major •Latissimus dorsi |
| What are the antagonists for shoulder adduction? | •Supraspinatus •Lateral deltoid •Infraspinatus (synergist) |
| What are the primer movers for medial rotation of the shoulder? | •Pectoralis major •Latissimus dorsi •Teres major •Subscapularis •Anterior deltoid (synergist) |
| What are the antagonists for medial rotation of the shoulder? | •Infraspinatus •Teres major •Posterior deltoid |
| What are the prime movers for lateral rotation of the shoulder? | •Infraspinatus •Teres major •Posterior deltoid |
| What are the antognists for lateral rotation of the shoulder? | •Pectoralis major •Latissimus dorsi •Teres major •Subscapularis •Anterior deltoid (synergist) |
| What are the prime movers for horizontal flexion of the shoulder? | •Pectoralis major •Anterior deltoid •Coracobrachialis (synergist) |
| What are the antagonists for horizontal flexion of the shoulder? | •Infraspinatus •Posterior deltoid |
| What are the prime movers for horizontal extension of the shoulder? | •Infraspinatus •Posterior deltoid •Teres major (synergist) |
| What are the antagonists for horizontal extension of the shoulder? | •Pectoralis major •Anterior deltoid |
| Name the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff | •Supraspinatus •Infraspinatus •Subscapularis •Teres minor |
| What is the role of the rotator cuff? | Provides stability and strength to the glenohumeral joint |
| Name the joints of the elbow and which bones do they link | 1) Humeroulnar- humerus to ulna 2) Humeroradial - humerus to radius 3) Proximal radioulnar- radius and ulna |
| What type of joint are the humeroulnar and the humeroradial? | Compound synovial hinge joint |
| What type of joint is the proximal radioulnar? | Synovial pivot joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the humeroulnar and the humeroradial? | •Flexion •Extension |
| What joint actions are associated with the proximal radioulnar? | •Supination •Pronation |
| What are the prime movers for flexion of the elbow? | •Biceps brachii •Brachioradialis •Forearm muscles (synergist) |
| What is the antagonist for flexion of the elbow? | Triceps brachii |
| What are the prime movers for extension of the elbow? | •Triceps brachii •Wrist extensors (synergist) |
| What are the antagonists for extension of the elbow? | •Biceps brachii •Brachioradialis |
| What are the prime movers for supranation of the elbow? | •Longhead of the biceps •Supranator |
| What are the antagonists for supranation of the elbow? | Pronator teres |
| What are the prime movers for pronation of the elbow? | Pronator teres |
| What are the antagonists for pronation of the elbow? | •Longhead of the biceps •Supranator |
| Name the joints of the wrist and which bones do they link | Radiocarpal- radius and carpal bones |
| What type of joint is the radiocarpal? | Synovial condyloid joint |
| What joint actions are associated with the radiocarpal joint? | •Flexion •Extension •Abduction •Adduction |
| What are the prime movers for flexion of the wrist? | Common wrist flexors |
| What are the prime movers for extension of the wrist? | Common wrist extensors |
| What is the carpal tunnel? | An arch formed by bony prominences of the radial carpals and the reticulum through which the tendons, nerves and arteries pass to the palm of the hand |
| What type of activities would cause carpal tunnel syndrome? | •Repetitive strain injury I.e.typing •Excessive vibration I.e.using power tools •Prolonged pressure on the wrist I.e. cycling |
| What causes carpal tunnel syndrome? | Swelling of the synovial sheath of the tendons - limits amount of space in the tunnel causing pressure on the nerve |
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