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LEGAL + ETHICAL
Introduction to Health Occupations
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| CRIMINAL LAW: One who practices law is called an attorney aka a: | lawyer. |
| A reference (information source) to a law is called a: | citation (cited). |
| A law is a binding(required) legal rule enforced (applied) by the: | police and the state's prosecuting attorny. |
| The state's (US citizens) prosecuting (accusing) attorney is abbreviated DA which stands for: | district attorney. |
| A legal wrongdoing is called: | crime or malfeasance. |
| A lawful act in an improper way is called: | malfeasance. |
| Laws regarding crimes against the state (US citizens) punishable by a fine and/or incarceration (imprisonment) and/or death is called: | criminal law. |
| Crime (criminal) means: | legal wrongdoing (malfeasance) |
| In criminal law a district attorney (DA) is required to present (show) convincing ( believable) legal proof (truth) called the: | burden of proof. |
| In criminal law the DA must prove guilt (responsibility or culpability) in a thorough (completely) convincing (believable) way called: | beyond a reasonable doubt. |
| A place for the administration (management) of legal justice (fairness) is called a: | court or forum. |
| A county or geographic area where a court (forum) administers legal justice is called a: | venue. |
| A venue where evidence (proof) is examined and legal disputes (disagreements) are settled is called a: | trial. |
| A court (forum) that has jurisdiction over a small geographic area is called a district court: | Pasco County Courthouse. |
| A court (forum) that has jurisdiction (authority) over a large geographic area and handles serious crimes (malfeasance) is called a: | superior court. |
| A crime (malfeasance) punishable by incarceration (imprisonment) for less than one (1) year and/or a fine (fee) is called a: | misdememeanor. |
| Punishment is aka: | sanction or penalty or sentence. |
| A crime punishable by incarceration (imprisonment) for more than one (1) year or death is called a: | felony. |
| Crime means: | legal wrongdoing (malfeasance) |
| Capital punishment (penalty), (sanction), (sentence) refers to the: | death penalty aka execution. |
| Punishment designed to prevent crime is called a: | deterrence (deterrent) |
| Examples of deterrents include: | 1. Three (3) strikes. |
| Examples of deterrents include: | 2. DUI penalties. |
| Examples of deterrents include: | 3. 10-20-life. |
| Committing (doing) an intentional (deliberate), (on purpose) crime (legal wrongdoing) is called: | malice. |
| One who begins legal action against another is called the: | plaintiff. |
| A plaintiff's legal statement of a crime (malfeasance or legal wrongdoing) is called an: | allegation or accusation. |
| One who defends against a plaintiff's allegation (accusation) is called the: | defendant. |
| Plaintiff means one who: | begins legal action against another. |
| Allegation (accusation) means a: | plaintiff's legal statement of a crime (malfeasance or legal wrongdoing. |
| A written legal statement under oath is called a: | deposition aka an affidavit. |
| An oath is a: | legal promise to tell the truth. |
| A false statement under oath is called: | perjury. |
| A group of licensed drivers chosen to determine (decide) if there is sufficient (enough) evidence (proof) for a trial is called a: | grand jury. |
| A trial is a venue where evidence is: | examined and legal disputes are settled. |
| A written legal allegation by a grand jury is called an: | indictment. |
| Allegation (accusation) means: | a plaintiff's legal statement of a crime (malfeasance or legal wrongdoing). |
| Evidence (proof) given by a witness is called: | testimony (testify) |
| A witness is a person testifying under oath: | to what they have seen or heard. |
| Evidence that is written or printed is called: | documentation. |
| According to the law, if it isn't documented (written or printed): | it wasn't done. |
| More convincing proof than your adversary (opponent) is called a: | preponderance of evidence. |
| A court ordered command for testimony is called a: | subpoena or summons. |
| Testimony means evidence (proof) given by a witness: | to what they have seen or heard. |
| The first (1st) interrogation (questioning) of a witness in court is called the: | direct examination. |
| Court is: | a place for the administration of legal justice. |
| The second (2nd) interrogation (questioning) of a witness (person testifying under oath to what they have seen or heard) in court is called the: | cross examination. |
| Credible means: | believable. |
| Examples of credible witnesses include: | 1. Clergy. |
| Examples of credible witnesses include: | 2. Police. |
| Examples of credible witnesses include: | 3. Strangers. |
| Strangers are credible witnesses because they have: | no reason to lie. |
| A legal application (request) for a court ruling is calledL | motion. |
| A motion to exclude (deny) proof is called: | suppression of evidence. |
| Legal examination of crime scenes to gather and present evidence (proof) at trial is abbreviated CSI which stands for: | crime scene investigation aka forensics. |
| A trial is a venue where: | evidence (proof) is examined and legal disputes are settled. |
| A group of impartial (unbiased (fair) licensed drivers selected to evaluate evidence (proof) and render (provide) a verdict (trial jury's decision (judgement) is called a: | trial jury. |
| Isolation (seclusion) of a trial jury to ensure (make certain) impartiality (unbiased (fair) is called a: | sequester. |
| To make less severe because of fairness or mercy is called: | mitigation (mitigating circumstances) aka extenuating circumstances (situations), (happenings). |
| For a defendant in a criminal trial to be judged guilty the verdict must be: | unanimous (agreed by all). |
| To be judged innocent (not guilty (responsible or culpable) is called an: | acquittal. |
| An acquittal in criminal law can be achieved if a defendant can show: | reasonable doubt. |
| If a unanimous (agreed by all) verdict cannot be reached by a trial jury, the judge will declare (announce) a: | mistrial or hung jury. |
| A trial with no trial jury where the judge renders (provides) the verdict (decision or judgement) is called a: | bench trial. |
| A legal application (request) for a new trial is called an: | appeal. |
| A legal decision by a judge that becomes law and applies to future cases is called a: | precedent. |
| Breaking and entering to commit a crime is called: | burglary. |
| Secret planning with another to commit a crime is called: | conspiracy. |
| One who participates with another in a crime is called an: | accomplice. |
| Deliberate deception intended to produce unlawful gain is called: | fraud. |
| Criminal intimidation (threat) compelling (requiring) an individual to act against their will is called: | coercion |
| An attempt or threat to inflict bodily harm is called: | assault. |
| Illegal touching of another is called: | battery. |
| What a person owns is called: | property. |
| Stealing property is called: | theft. |
| Stealing (theft of) property to convert (change) to cash is called: | larceny. |
| Stealing property with physical injury or threat of injury is called: | robbery. |
| A lewd (vulgar) and lascivious (obscene) sexual act is called | sodomy. |
| Florida sodomy laws have sanctions for: | public display of sexual organs and/or sexual activity with a person under 16. |
| Sanctions are: | penalties aka sentences or punishments. |
| A forced sexual act is called: | rape. |
| Those under age 18 are called: | minors or juveniles. |
| Sexual relations with a minor (juvenile) is called: | statutory rape. |
| Killing a human intentionally is called: | murder. |
| Intentionally means: | deliberately (on purpose) |
| Murder that is planned is called: | premeditated. |
| Committing premeditated killing of a human is called: | first (1st) degree murder. |
| Unpremeditated killing of a human is called: | manslaughter. |
| The right to protect oneself reasonably (correctly) from acts of violence or threat of violence is called: | self-defense. |
| The most reasonable (correct) action regarding self defense is to: | call the police and/or escape if possible. |
| Restoring (returning) to normal life is called: | rehabilitation or reformation. |
| CIVIL LAW: Civil law refers to legal disputes between: | individuals. |
| Disputes are: | disagreements |
| Civil law refers to litigation: | aka a lawsuit. |
| Civil litigation (lawsuit) is also called a: | tort. |
| A person guilty of committing a tort is called a: | tortfeasor. |
| Something that depends upon uncertain future events is called a: | contingency (contingent) |
| Attorneys paid by contingency feel are called: | tort lawyers or personal injury lawyers. |
| Civil law refers to damages which means: | monetary compensation. |
| Monetary compensation for a loss is called: | compensatory damages. |
| Monetary compensation as a punishment for the offender is called: | punitive damages. |
| A legal wrongdoing is called a: | crime or malfeasance. |
| A legal act in an improper way is called: | misfeasance. |
| Failure to act when legally required is called: | nonfeasance. |
| Violation of civil law is called a: | breach or infraction |
| A legal obligation is called a: | contract. |
| Violation of a legal obligation is called: | breach of contract. |
| An understanding by those involved in a legal contract is called: | mutual assent. |
| A court ordered payment of a portion of each paycheck directly to creditors until a debt is resolved (settled) is called: | garnishment. |
| Creditors are those who are: | owed. |
| Debt means: | money, goods or services owed. |
| Failure to take reasonable (correct) precautions (safeguards) to protect others from risk or harm is called: | negligence. |
| Negligence (failure to take reasonable (correct) precautions (safeguards) to protect others from risk or harm that is obvious is called: | gross negligence. |
| Examples of gross negligence include: | a. Amputating the wrong leg. |
| Examples of gross negligence include: | b. Leaving an instrument, sponge, needle, etc. inside a client after a surgical procedure. |
| Examples of gross negligence include: | c. Administering (giving) a medication to the wrong client. |
| Loss of life caused by negligence is called: | wrongful death. |
| A percentage (amount) of negligence assigned (given) to those involved is called: | comparative negligence. |
| The plaintiff's (one who begins legal action against another) negligence is called: | contributory negligence. |
| Financial protection for negligence is called: | liability (responsibility) insurance. |
| A law setting the maximum amount of time a person has to initiate (start) litigation (lawsuit) is called the: | statute of limitations. |
| The statute (law) of limitations for filing (legal application or request) medical malpractice lawsuit in Florida ranges from: | two (2) to four (4) years. |
| Misconduct by a HCP (Health Care Provider) is called: | medical malpractice (wrongdoing or malfeasance). |
| Any care resulting in unnecessary harm, pain, or anguish (suffering) is called: | abuse. |
| Unlawful restraint (to limit freedom) or confinement of one person by another is called: | false imprisonment. |
| Damaging a reputation by speaking a lie is called: | slander. |
| Damaging a reputation (status or rank or character) by writing a lie is called: | libel |
| Damaging a reputation (status or rank) with slander and/o libel is called: | defamation of character. |
| A successful medical malpractice litigation (lawsuit) requires evidence of: | 1. A professional relationship between the HCP and the client. |
| A successful medical malpractice litigation (lawsuit) requires evidence of: | 2. A failure to provide the correct level of performance called the standard of care. |
| A successful medical malpractice litigation (lawsuit) requires evidence of: | 3. The failure to provide the standard of care (level of performance) causes an injury. |
| Civil litigation that have little or no merit (worthiness) are called: | frivolous lawsuits or nuisance suits. |
| A frivolous lawsuit refers to civil litigation that has: | little or no merit (worthiness) aka nuisance suits. |
| AGENT An agent is a person legally delegated (authorized or allowed) to: | act for another. |
| An agent legally delegated (authorized) to care for a mentally incompetent (incapacitated) person is called a: | guardian aka a conservator (conservatorship). |
| Mental incompetence (incapacity) means: | lacking the cognitive abilities to understand ordinary concerns. |
| An agent legally delegated (authorized, allowed) to care for a mentally incompetent (incapacitated) person or care for property is called a: | custodian. |
| An agent legally delegated (authorized) to represent the rights of a mentally incompetent (incapacitated) person is called a: | guardian ad litem. |
| PRIVACY Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) refers to rules regarding: | confidential (privileged or private) medical information. |
| HIPAA rights include how the client can inspect (examine) their health information and obtain (get) a replica of which means: | copy. |
| HIPAA stands for: | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. |
| HIPAA (refers to rules regarding confidential (privileged and private) medical information) rights include how the client can request health information disclosure which means: | release |
| HIPAA rights include how the client can request health information amendments which means: | additions or changes. |
| HIPAA rights include how the client can request communication about their health information at alternative sites which means: | different locations. |
| HIPAA rights include how the client can restrict disclosure (release) of their health information which gives them: | control. |
| HIPAA rights include how the client can request authorization to disclose (release) their health information which means: | giving permission. |
| Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) rights include how the client can complain about a privacy right violation which means: | wrongdoing aka malfeasance or breach or crime. |
| When there is any doubt regarding whether you should disclose (release) medical information, you should: | not disclose (release) the information. |
| This includes disclosing (releasing) that an individual is a: | client. |
| Exposing (displaying) a client or divulging (revealing/telling) confidential (private and privileged) information is called: | invasion of privacy. |
| Confidential (privileged or private) communication is legally required by: | 1. Attorney aka lawyers. |
| Confidential (privileged or private) communication is legally required by: | 2. Those ordained (appointed) for religious duties called clergy. |
| Confidential (privileged or private) communication is legally required by: | 3. HCP which stands for health care provider. |
| Sanctions (penalties or punishment) for wrongfully disclosing (revealing or telling) private health information include: | a. incarceration (imprisonment) up to one (1 year) |
| Sanctions (penalties/sentences/punishments) for wrongfully disclosing private health information include: | b. A fine (fee) of $50,000. |
| Sanctions (penalties/sentences/punishments) for wrongfully disclosing private health information include: | c. Civil litigation (lawsuit) by those whose information you disclosed (revealed or told). |
| Confidential (privileged or private) information is to be disregarded (ignored) and the police notified when a client is a: | 1. DTS or DTO which stands for danger to self or danger to others. |
| Confidential (privileged or private) information is to be disregarded (ignored) and the police notified when a client has: | 2. Injuries caused by violence. |
| Confidential (privileged or private) information is to be disregarded (ignored) and the police notified when a client is involved in a: | 3. Legal wrongdoing called a crime or malfeasance. |
| On legal documents the first (1st) party is the: | client. |
| The second (2nd) party is the: | healthcare provider. |
| The third (3rd) party: | can be anyone designated (authorized) but is usually an insurance company. |
| To disclose (release) medical information to a third (3rd) party, the adult client or their agent (legal representative) must: | a. Provide valid (legally acceptable) identification such as a driver's license or identification (ID) card. |
| To disclose (release) medical information to a third (3rd) party, the adult client or their agent (legal representative) must: | b. Sign an authorization called a release of medical information waiver. |
| An agent is a person legally delegated to: | act for another. |
| Waiver means to surrender (give up) a: | right, privilege or claim. |
| A legal command for a medical record is called a: | subpoena duces tecum. |
| CONSENT: Consent means: | permission (allow). |
| Consent (permission) obtained (gotten) after the client understands the situation completely is called: | informed consent aka expressed consent. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | a. Treatment (Tx) |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | b. Why treatment (Tx) is necessary. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | c. Risks involved. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | d. Available alternatives (substitutes). |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | e. Risks of alternatives (substitutes) |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires all information regarding: | f. Risks if treatment (Tx) is refused. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires evaluation (assessment) of the: | 1. Client's level of education. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) is: | permission obtained (gotten) after the client understands the situation completely. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires evaluation (assessment) of the: | 2. Client's primary language. |
| One who does not have training in a specific profession is called a: | layperson. |
| Informed consent (expressed contract) requires evaluation (assessment) of the: | 3. Client's mental processes of comprehension (understanding), judgement (reasoning) and memory called cognitive abilities. |
| Lacking the cognitive abilities to understand ordinary concerns is called: | mental incompetence or mental incapacity or legal disability. |
| Cognitive abilities are the mental processes of: | comprehension (understanding), judgement (reasoning), and memory. |
| Reasons for an individual to be judged mentally incompetent include: | 1. Psychopathy aka mental illness. |
| Reasons for an individual to be judged mentally incompetent include: | 2. Deteriorating (worsening) cognitive abilities called dementia. |
| Reasons for an individual to be judged mentally incompetent include: | 3. An intelligent quotient (IQ) below 75 abbreviated ID which stands for intellectual disability. |
| Intellectual disability (ID) is aka MR which stands for: | mental retardation. |
| Reasons for an individual to be judged mentally incompetent include: | 4. Influenced by drugs or alcohol. |
| Reasons for an individual to be judged mentally incompetent include: | 5. Under age 18 aka a juvenile or minor. |
| The order of legal authority to make medical decisions for a person who is mentally incompetent (incapacitated) is: | a. Spouse |
| The order of legal authority to make medical decisions for a person who is mentally incompetent (incapacitated) is: | b. Oldest adult child. |
| The order of legal authority to make medical decisions for a person who is mentally incompetent (incapacitated) is: | c. Parents. |
| The order of legal authority to make medical decisions for a person who is mentally incompetent (incapacitated) is: | d. Oldest adult sibling. |
| Permission evident (obvious) by conduct (behavior) is called: | implied consent or implied contract. |
| Implied consent (implied contract) includes: | a. Holding out (extending) an arm for phlebotomy aka venipuncture. |
| Implied consent (implied contract) includes: | b. Entering an ED which stands for emergency department. |
| MINORS: Those under age 18 are called: | minors or juveniles. |
| Minors (juveniles) cannot be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's: | consent aka permission. |
| Minors (juveniles) can be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's consent (permission) when: | 1. A minor (juvenile) has a medical condition requiring immediate treatment (Tx) called an emergency. |
| A prewritten consent (permission) from a parent or guardian for medical treatment of their (juvenile) requires signature verification (proof) by a: | notary public. |
| Minors (juveniles) can be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's consent (permission) when: | 2. They request Tx (treatment or therapy) for a STD which stands for sexually transmitted disease. |
| Minors (juveniles) can be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's consent (permission) when: | 3. They request treatment for drug and/or alcohol dependence called substance abuse (addiction). |
| Minors (juveniles) can be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's consent (permission/allow) when: | 4. They request a method to prevent pregnancy called contraceptive. |
| Minors (juveniles) can be legally treated without their parent's or guardian's consent (permission) when: | 5. They request termination of a pregnancy called abortion. |
| Minors (under age 18) are aka: | juveniles. |
| Florida law requires parental or guardian notification (informing) if a minor (juvenile) requests an: | abortion. |
| Parental or guardian notification can be waived by a judge if the minor (juvenile) is a victim of: | abuse. |
| A juvenile who possesses the cognitive abilities to make an informed medical decision is called a: | mature minor. |
| A juvenile who by marriage or financial independence is legally declared an adult is called an: | emancipated minor. |
| A juvenile (minor) is not emancipated by becoming a parent but a juvenile (minor) parent may consent (give permission) for: | 1. Medical care related to a pregnancy. |
| A juvenile (minor) is not emancipated by becoming a parent but a juvenile (minor) parent may consent (give permission) for: | 2. Medical care of the child. |
| A minor is not emancipated by becoming a parent but a minor parent may consent (give permission) for: | 3. Court ordered payments from the father called child support. |
| A juvenile (minor) is not emancipated by becoming a parent but a juvenile (minor) parent may consent (give permission) for: | 4. Another to assume (take) legal responsibility for their child called adoption. |
| PATIENT BILL OF RIGHTS: The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 1. Permission obtained after the client understands the situation completely called informed consent aka expressed contract. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 2. The administration (giving) of considerate and respectful care. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 3. Giving the client complete information concerning: diagnosis (Dx) and treatment (Tx) and prognosis (Px). |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 4. Freedom from outside observation called privacy. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 5. Protection of confidential medical information aka privileged or private. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 6. Reasonable response to a request. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 7. Giving complete information concerning affiliated facilities which means officially (legally) connected. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 8. No experimentation without consent (permission). |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 9. Continuous service called continuity of care. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 10. Detailed explanation of the client's bill. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 11. Detailed explanation of hospital rules and regulations. |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 12. Refusal of treatment (Tx). |
| The patient Bill of Rights includes: | 13. Providing documents that specify (explain) an individual's end of life wishes called an advance directive. |
| ADVANCE DIRECTIVES: Examples of advance directives include: | 1. A physician's order written on the client's medical record to not revive the client if their heart stops abbreviated DNR which stands for do not resuscitate aka "no code". |
| Examples of advance directives include: | 2. A document stating that a person does not want to be kept alive by artificial means (heroic measures) when there is little expectation of recovery called a living will. |
| Examples of advance directives include: | 3. A document delegating (authorizing) another to make medical decisions for a person that is mentally incompetent (incapacitated) called a designation of a health care surrogate. |
| Designation of a health care surrogate is also known as a: | health care power of attorney. |
| Designation of a health care surrogate is also known as a: | durable power of attorney for health care. |
| Designation of a health care surrogate is also known as a: | health care proxy. |
| Examples of advance directives include: | 4. A document with instructions for the disposition (distribution) of one's property after death called a last will and testament. |
| A document delegating (authorizing), (allowing) a person to make legal and business decisions for another is abbreviated POA which stands for: | power of attorney. |
| Power of attorney (POA) expires (ends) with the death of one who gave the legal authority (power) called a: | grantor. |
| One who receives legal authority (power) is called a: | grantee. |
| A person delegated (authorized) in a last will and testament to carryout the instructions of the will is called an: | executor. |
| The legal process of distributing the deceased (dead) person's property and resolving all claims (requests) is called: | probate. |
| Something not legally enforceable (able to happen) is called: | invalid. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 1. Nonbinding. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 2. Void. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 3. Annul. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 4. Revoke. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 5. Rescind. |
| Synonyms (same meaning) for invalid include: | 6. Cancel. |
| Performing unnecessary medical tests and procedures to ward off (decrease) litigation (lawsuits) is called: | defensive medicine. |
| The process of voiding (cancelling) the professional relationship between a HCP and a client is called: | memorialization (memorialize) |
| Memorialization includes: | 1. Sending a letter by certified mail. |
| Memorialization includes: | 2. Giving a thirty (3) day notice (warning). |
| A client that leaves a medical facility without a physician's permission is abbreviated AMA which stands for: | against medical advice. |
| MEDICAL ERROR PREVENTION: A method (way) to identify (recognize), evaluate (examine), and eliminate (stop) error (mistake) creators for deliver of safer client care is abbreviated RCA which stands for: | root cause analysis. |
| A cause and effect technique (skill) associated with root cause analysis (RCA) is abbreviated DMAIC which stands for: | 1. Define. |
| A cause and effect technique (skill) associated with root cause analysis (RCA) is abbreviated DMAIC which stands for: | 2. Measure. |
| A cause and effect technique (skill) associated with root cause analysis (RCA) is abbreviated DMAIC which stands for: | 3. Analyze. |
| A cause and effect technique (skill) associated with root cause analysis (RCA) is abbreviated DMAIC which stands for: | 4. Improve. |
| A cause and effect technique (skill) associated with root cause analysis (RCA) is abbreviated DMAIC which stands for: | 5. Control. |
| Medical error prevention includes continuous assessment (evaluation) of the client's mental processes of comprehension (understanding), judgement (reasoning), and memory called: | cognitive abilities. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | a. Asking their full name. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | b. Asking for their date of birth (DOB). |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | c. Asking for their address. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | d. Asking a family member to confirm (agree with) client identification. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | e. Asking for a driver's license or state issued ID. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) the following client identifiers: | f. Comparing client name with their healthcare record number. |
| Medical error prevention includes asking clients about any allergies and/or adverse reactions they have had to: | medications or food at the beginning of every appointment. |
| Medical error prevention includes asking clients to bring all their OTC (over the counter) and prescription medication bottles including supplements such as vitamins and herbs to: | every appointment. |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) each medication name, action, use, dose, route, side effects and contraindications before administration (giving) by using a reputable (trustworthy) resource such as the USNLM which stands for: | United States National Library of Medicine ( www.pdr.net) |
| Medical error prevention includes verifying (proving) that written prescriptions are legible (readable) and: | complete. |
| Medical error prevention includes being aware of possible medication name confusion such as: | Lamictal (antiepileptic) and Lamisil (antifungal) or Xanax (alprazolam) and Zantac (ranitidine). |
| Medical error prevention includes explaining medication and Tx instructions in terms the client and their family can: | understand. |
| Medical error prevention includes following hand cleaning guidelines established by the CDC which stands for: | Centers for Disease Control (www.cdc.gov). |
| Medical error preventions include: | reporting and documenting any safety violations. |
| Medical error prevention includes educating client and families about: | post-operative (after surgery) infection control. |
| Medical error prevention includes continuous assessment (evaluation) of the client's risk of falls and take: | preventive measures. |
| Medical error prevention includes continuous assessment (evaluation) of the client's risk for decubitus ulcers aka: | bedsores or pressure ulcers. |
| Medial error prevention includes continuous assessment (evaluation) of the client's risk for killing themselves called: | suicide. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 1. Client's words must be recorded exactly with the use of quotation marks. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 2. Clarity by documenting the client's condition using appropriate medical language. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 3. Completeness which means being thorough. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 4. Conciseness which means getting to the point. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 5. Chronological order which means arranged according to time. |
| The six (6) C's for correctly entering information into a medical record are: | 6. Confidentiality which means privileged (private) information. |
| Medical information is the property of the: | client. |
| The custodian of the medical record is the: | HCP (health care provider) or the medical facility that created it. |
| Custodian means an agent legally delegated (authorized) to care for: | property. |
| The custodian of the medical record must provide the client with: | 1. Access to their medical information. |
| The custodian of the medical record must provide the client with: | 2. Explanations of their medical record. |
| The custodian of the medical record must provide the client with: | 3. Copies of the medical record. |
| Custodians of medical records are permitted to charge a client $1.00 for: | each medical record page copied. |
| The only exception for client's ability to access their medical record is for: | mental health information. |
| LIABILITY: Liability means: | legal responsibility. |
| Legal responsibility for another is called being: | vicariously liable. |
| Those who are vicariously liable (legally responsible for another) include: | 1. A respondeat superior aka your employer. |
| Those who are vicariously liable (legally responsible for another) include: | 2. Mothers and fathers called parents. |
| Those who are vicariously liable (legally responsible for another) include: | 3. An agent legally delegated (authorized) (allowed) to care for a mentally incompetent (incapacitated) person called a guardian. |
| GOOD SAMARITAN ACT: The Good Samaritan Act is a law that allows the administration (giving) of emergency care without the threat of: | litigation aka a lawsuit. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 1. The situation must be an emergency. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 2. The emergency care administered (given) must be free of charge. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 3. The emergency care administered (given) must be in good faith which means good intentions. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 4. The location of the emergency must be away from a medical facility. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 5. The emergency care must be without victim objection (protest) |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 6. The emergency care must be the same that a reasonably appropriate (correct) person would administer under the same or similar circumstances. |
| Good Samaritan Act guidelines include: | 7. No legal obligation (requirement) for a HCP to administer (give) help. |
| DRUG & MEDICATION SCHEDULES: Physical dependence or psychological dependence on a drug or medication requiring an increased dosage (amount) for desired effects and withdrawal symptoms (SX) when deprived (without) is called: | addiction or abuse. |
| Drugs and medications having potential (capability) for addiction (abuse) are called: | scheduled medications (drugs) or controlled medications (drugs). |
| As the number of a scheduled drug or medication decreases, the addiction (abuse) potential (capability): | increases. |
| Scheduled medications or drugs are aka: | controlled medications or drugs. |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 1. Heroin |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 2. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 3. Marijuana (cannabis) |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 4. Ecstasy. |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 5. Quaalude ( methaqualone) |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 6. Peyote. |
| Schedule I (1) medications/drugs include: | 7. Crack cocaine. |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 1. Cocaine. |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 2. Methamphetamine. |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 3. Methadone. |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 4. Dilaudid (hydromorphone) |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 5. Demerol (meperidine) |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 6. OxyContin (Oxyodone) |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 7. Adderall (amphetamine) |
| Schedule II (2) medications/drugs include: | 8. Ritalin (methylphenidate) |
| Schedule III (3) medications/drugs include: | 1. Vicodin (hydrocodone) |
| Schedule III (3) medications/drugs include: | 2. Codeine. |
| Schedule III (3) medications/drugs include: | 3. Ketamine (anesthetic) |
| Schedule III (3) medications/drugs include: | 4. Anabolic steroids. |
| Schedule III (3) medications/drugs include: | 5. Testosterone. |
| Schedule IV (4) medications/drugs include: | 1. Valium (diazepam) |
| Schedule IV (4) medications/drugs include: | 2. Librium (chlordiazepoxide) |
| Schedule IV (4) medications/drugs include: | 3. Ambien (zolpidem). |
| Schedule IV (4) medications/drugs include: | 4. Xanax (alprazolam) |
| Schedule IV (4) medications/drugs include: | 5. Ativan (lorazepam) |
| Schedule V (5) medications/drugs include: | 1. Lomotil (diphenoxylate and atropine) |
| Schedule V (5) medications/drugs include: | 2. Lyrica. |
| Schedule V (5) medications/drugs include: | 3. Cough suppressants (antitussive) with codeine. |
Created by:
bterrelonge
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