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2AX7X Vol.2 SelfTest

2AX7X Vol. 2 SelfTest

(201. Types of Training) 1. Where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? In part 2 of the career field’s CFETP.
2. What type of aircraft maintenance training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience? Distance learning.
3. What type of trng includes adv. and qual trng that develops in-depth expertise within a specialty, broadens knowledge of new specialties, intro new tech and systs, develops analytical skills. Continuation training.
4. Other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance- related specialized course? Aircraft Communication/Navigation Systems
(202. Training Documentation)1. For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles or associated equipment.
2. What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster? Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment.
3. What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notification.
4. What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? Decertify them and have them removed from the SCR for that task.
(203. Training Business Area)1. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what? The technical qualifications, certifications and training status of weapons systems and support professionals Air Force wide
2. TBA allows all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? Network access.
3. What provides notifications on TBA application problems, software release (problem corrections) projected downtimes and training update information? The “System Messages” board.
4. What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? The role, or roles, you have been assigned by a Role Manager.
5. What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application and not for operational unit training management activities? TBA User Practice Environment (UPE).
(204. Maintenance Qualification Program)1. Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? Phase I.
2. What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? Lead commands.
3. What course must MSgts or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience? Aircraft familiarization course.
4. What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? Maintenance qualification training.
5. What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? Phase III, Special Qualification Training (SQT).
(205. Training Management)1. What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? That the initial training has not been performed or loaded.
2. When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course? Any applicable pen-and-ink changes.
3. If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues? AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
4. When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? Develop a master task list.
5. What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a workcenter requirement? If it is performed by 51 percent of more of personnel in the workcenter.
6. With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5- or 7-level.
7. What type of training tasks—both core and non-core—require third-party certification? Critical tasks.
206. Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UMPR)1. Work that an organization is required to perform but not given the manpower authorizations to do it. Unfunded mandate.
2. Positions deemed important by organizational leadership but have not been validated. Out-of-hide positions.
3. A quantitative expression representing manpower requirements in response to varying levels of workload Manpower standard.
4. A funded or unfunded statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission or program. Manpower requirement.
2. What does the UMD provide a listing of? Both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements.
3. What does the UPMR provide a listing of? Unit authorizations (including gains and losses) by workcenter or FAC with the name and rank of the actual person filling each position.
4. What is a manning assist used for? To alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high workload.
(207. Personnel Utilization) 1. Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours? MXG/CC.
2. What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel? Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them.
3. Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuous duty period? Personnel required to handle, load, or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives.
4. Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization? It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing them to shift specific duties.
5. Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? The production superintendent or MX Operations Officer/MX SUPT.
(208. Maintenance Supply Support and Readiness Packages)1. With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD? MXG’s.
2. In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing? Managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems.
3. Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters? To identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems associated with supply support
4. What is the purpose of a readiness spares package? To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support planned wartime or contingency operations for a specified period of time pending resupply
5. In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages? Mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spares packages.
6. What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages? It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system.
7. Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations? To support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days.
8. What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages? To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking.
(209. Consumables Management, and Local Manufacture)1. What is the purpose of a bench stock? To provide maintainers with quick access to items needed on a day-to-day basis.
2. If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together? No.
3. In addition to clearly identifying items as “Work Order Residue,” how should you also label them? With noun, national stock number or part number, unit of issue, and shelf-life, if applicable
4. Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items? Any resource that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned-in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked—provided they are still serviceable.
5. What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item? AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request.
6. What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request.
7. Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data? MXG/CC or their designated representative.
(210. Hazardous materials)1. What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)? Any substance that is toxic or flammable—be it gas, liquid or solid—which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the environment.
2. What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response? Local HAZMAT response plans.
3. What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container? Product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures.
4. What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker? AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
5. What is used to document items that have been drained and purged? AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation.
(211. Equipment items and precious metals recovery program)1. What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? Block I.
2. What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? Block III.
3. What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian’s span of control? AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
4. What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey? DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, or DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher
5. Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes? XD or XF.
6. Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established? To promote the economic recovery of precious metals from excess and surplus materials.
7. What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
8. What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PMICs)? To identify items that were obtained through supply that contain precious metals.
(212. Repair Cycle Tracking and supply management products)1. Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? XD or XF.
2. What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)? Urgency of Need (UND) designator.
3. Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts? Priority Monitor Report (D18).
4. Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23).
5. Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? Due-Out Validation List (M30).
(213. Classified assets and supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming.)1. What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? File cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets.
2. What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit? AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt.
3. Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation? Installation commander.
4. What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority “C” designation? Security Response Team and a motorized patrol.
5. What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority “A” designation? Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority “A” assets, keep the aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control.
6. For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section’s organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed? As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock number (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check.
7. Once a unit’s listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated? Every 6 months.
8. If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can’t be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? Not Reparable This Station (NRTS).
(214. Maintenance repair and delivery priorities)1. What do expedite supply requests represent? An urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation.
2. Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of “A” or “B.” What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? 1 thru 4.
3. Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of “1”? 30 Minutes.
4. What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment? MICAP request.
5. Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? Customer Service at LRS or your local supply support section.
(215. Supply points)1. When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets? Requesting organization.
2. When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to? LRS Supply Point Manager.
3. What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? AFTO IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In Request.
4. Why are TNB storage locations established? To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance.
5. How are TNBs arranged? By tail number, serial number, or identification number.
6. What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed? Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed.
)216. Supply deficiency and discrepancy reporting)1. What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply? Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR).
2. In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply? An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets.
3. What is a support point as it relates to the DR process? Any activity that assists the Action Point.
4. Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for? Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report.
5. What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs? Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).
6. Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs? Screening point.
7. When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR? When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit.
8. If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact? Your MAJCOM.
(217. Use of technical orders, supplements and publications)1. What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort? To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use.
2. What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations? Group: Lead TODO, Squadron: TODO, and Section: TODA.
3. What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? Quality Assurance.
4. What form should be used to establish a TODO account? AFTO IMT 43.
5. For what purpose are checklists developed? To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical
(218. Time Compliance Technical Orders)1. What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? Quality Assurance.
2. Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? The flight or section performing the TCTO.
(219. Technical order change process)1. What form should be used to submit a TO change? AFTO IMT 22.
2. What is a preliminary TO? An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process.
3. What are the two main types of TO changes? Corrections and Improvements.
4. When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? 48 hours after submission.
5. What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? AF IMT 1000.
(220. Technical order waivers)1. Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment.
2. Who may temporarily waive specific TO compliance until operational capability permits or safety of prsnl is assured for forces engaged in actual combat ops or supporting EWO alert taskings, and for systs or components engaged in contingency operations? AOR commanders.
3. How long does a TO waiver remain in effect? Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver).
(221. Aircraft and equipment programs)1. A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action? That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time.
2. When may CA authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated? In high priority circumstances, when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount time (i.e., red ball maintenance).
3. What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item? The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the CANN action.
4. Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations? Concurrent CANN/inspection.
5. Which CANN program has the advantages of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability? Consolidated CANN program.
6. What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area? Antistatic, nonmetal wheels.
7. In addition to having enough signs stating “Caution, (or Danger) High Radiation Area” that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place? A red rotating/flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier.
8. To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked? Read/follow all applicable cautions, warnings and notes in the applicable TO.
9. Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time-frame? Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission.
10. During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be reaccomplished if the aircraft status changes? An exceptional release or conditional release.
11. To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running? A safety observer.
12. How can impoundment be defined? The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be completed.
13. What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official? MSgt or above (or civilian equivalent).
14. What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures? Quality Assurance.
15. Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment? The Impoundment Official.
(222. Tool management and accountability)1. What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment.
2. Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? TO 32-1-101.
3. What does an MIL provide a listing of? All contents in a particular CTK.
4. What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance? Tool Accountability System (TAS).
5. Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment? Wing Weapons Manager.
6. The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called? World Wide Identification (WWID) code.
7. What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on-/off- equipment maintenance within or outside the work center.
8. What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered.
(223. Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Programs)1. Who is required to comply with FOD Program prevention directives? All personnel (military, civilian, and contractors) working in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines and maintenance areas.
2. Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? WG/CV.
3. Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV? MXG/CC.
4. How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held if a unit’s FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard? Monthly.
5. As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object? Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned.
6. What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program? All wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft.
7. Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? Local wing DOP program monitor.
(224. Maintenance Recovery Teams)1. What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station.
2. What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? 12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest.
3. What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? AFI 21-101.
225. Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP)1. What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of? The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes.
2. Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? Quality Assurance.
3. Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command- approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? QA OIC/SUPT.
4. How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? 6 Months.
5. An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from? Other MAJCOM agencies and field units.
6. If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive? Outstanding, Excellent, Satisfactory, Marginal, and Unsatisfactory.
7. How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? Pass/Fail.
8. How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? 0.5 percentage points.
9. When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? AF, MAJCOM, and local directives.
10. QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? Acceptable quality level.
11. A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? Work center supervisor.
(226. QA Product Improvement program)1. What is the goal of the PIP program? To identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability.
2. How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting commander’s calls, presenting the program at maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas.
3. Who does the PIM coordinatewith to ensure proper exhibit control and handling? With the ALC and LRS.
4. What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s? Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00–5–1.
5. If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with? Affected agencies.
6. When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine? Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the unit’s control.
(227. Configuration Management (CM) andModification management)1. What does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do? Determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft.
2. What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing? MOF PS&D.
3. What is a formal modification proposal? A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment.
4. Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment? MAJCOM.
5. How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M? Annually.
6. In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system? Lead command.
Created by: addiaz_915