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2AX7X Vol.2 URE
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM? | d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC). |
| 2. (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course? | c. Maintenance Orientation. |
| 3. (202) How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)? | b. Semi-annually. |
| 4. (202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of | b. MSgt. |
| 5. (203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time | d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel. |
| 6. (203) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information? | c. Application problems. |
| 7. (204) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training? | b. II. |
| 8. (204) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses? | a. Maintenance qualification. |
| 9. (205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)? | a. Monthly. |
| 10. (205) An individual comes due for a training recert. while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required? | b. 30. |
| 11. (205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)? | c. Unit training manager. |
| 12. (206) Manpower authorizations are | a. funded. |
| 13. (206) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held | b. monthly. |
| 14. (207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is | a. 12 hours. |
| 15. (207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to | c. 16 hours. |
| 16. (208) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems? | a. Maintenance supply liaison. |
| 17. (208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the | b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). |
| 18. (208) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? | d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets. |
| 19. (208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days? | b. 30. |
| 20. (209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock? | d. XB3. |
| 21. (209) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? | a. 30. |
| 22. (209) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date? | b. II. |
| 23. (209) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements? | d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT). |
| 24. (209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? | b. Engineering Data Service Center. |
| 25. (210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution? | d. Cloudy water. |
| 26. (210) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter? | b. Section supervisor. |
| 27. (210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? | a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag. |
| 28. (211) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? | b. Squadron Commander. |
| 29. (211) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor? | c. IIB. |
| 30. (211) What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? | d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. |
| 31. (211) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? | b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO). |
| 32. (211) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? | c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander. |
| 33. (211) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals? | b. C. |
| 34. (212) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day? | b. D04, Daily Document Register. |
| 35. (212) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A? | a. D18, Priority Monitor Report. |
| 36. (212) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support? | c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report. |
| 37. (213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms? | b. Host installation commander. |
| 38. (213) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every | c. 3 hours. |
| 39. (213) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming? | d. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT). |
| 40. (214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a partsnrequest? | a. Customer. |
| 41. (214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare? | b. AR or BR. |
| 42. (215) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with? | d. LRS material management element. |
| 43. (215) Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the work center supply point monitor? | b. Semiannually. |
| 44. (215) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the | c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). |
| 45. (216) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted? | b. Supply Discrepancy Report. |
| 46. (216) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group? | d. Originating Point. |
| 47. (216) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization? | b. Action Point. |
| 48. (216) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within | c. 24 hours. |
| 49. (217) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? | a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required. |
| 50. (218) What MX Operations Flt section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies? | d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. |
| 51. (219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? | a. Quality Assurance. |
| 52. (219) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category? | c. Standard. |
| 53. (220) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system? | c. A4U. |
| 54. (221) Who designates cannibalization authorities? | b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander. |
| 55. (221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify | d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D). |
| 56. (221) Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area? | a. Weapons loading operations. |
| 57. (221) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent | d. aircraft status changes. |
| 58. (221) Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? | c. Applicable Impoundment Authority. |
| 59. (222) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? | c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC). |
| 60. (222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? | b. 9. |
| 61. (223) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the | b. Quality Assurance section. |
| 62. (223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident? | c. 24. |
| 63. (223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program? | d. Explosive munitions. |
| 64. (223) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW | a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting. |
| 65. (224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? | d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management. |
| 66. (225) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? | d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT). |
| 67. (225) When a unit has received an unsat Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days? | a. 30. |
| 68. (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? | c. Personnel Evaluation. |
| 69. (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task? | d. Quality Verification Inspection. |
| 70. (227) In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system? | d. Lead command. |
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addiaz_915
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