Busy. Please wait.

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
remaining cards
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

2AX5X Vol.3 URE

1. (401) In its natural state oxygen is a. tasteless, colorless, and odorless.
2. (401) What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen? b. Check.
3. (401) The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is c. green and white.
4. (401) The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it a. wastes oxygen.
5. (401) What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel? b. 93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.
6. (402) Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of d. 860 to 1.
7. (402) Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system’s combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the d. buildup position.
8. (402) On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent d. the filler access door from closing in the vent position.
9. (403) Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section? d. Compressor.
10. (403) Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the d. engine throttle setting and ambient temperature.
11. (403) What is the purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valves? a. Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.
12. (403) What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown b. Shutoff valve.
13. (404) The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of c. stainless steel.
14. (404) What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting? c. Rawhide mallet.
15. (404) What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket? d. Compressible flange.
16. (404) What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation? b. Water.
17. (404) The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of c. a soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh.
18. (404) Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for b. a long run of ducting.
19. (404) What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes? d. Vent holes.
20. (404) What is defined as “a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of the material isn’t cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?” b. Major dent.
21. (405) “The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space” is the definition of b. air conditioning.
22. (405) What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)? a. Primary heat exchanger.
23. (405) What aircraft air conditioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers? c. Movable inlet and exit doors.
24. (405) The rapid cooling of bleed air causes b. moisture to condense in the form of fog.
25. (406) As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase in pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of this increased temperature? b. Secondary heat exchanger.
26. (407) The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person’s blood vessels to b. rupture.
27. (408) What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system? d. Regulating control chamber pressure.
28. (408) What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator? c. An aneroid, spring, and metering valve.
29. (408) What are the components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator? d. A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve.
30. (408) What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight? a. The outflow valves.
31. (408) What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system? c. Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time.
32. (408) In the variable isobaric pressurization system. the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the d. cabin pressure controller fails.
33. (409) The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with d. the warning light and parallel with each other.
34. (409) The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called b. an Iron Fireman switch.
35. (409) The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of a. 10 Hz.
36. (410) A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by b. excluding oxygen from the area.
37. (410) A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to b. expel the agent from the bottle.
38. (410) What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge? b. Frangible disc.
39. (410) In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections? b. Allow undisturbed fluid flow through the system.
40. (411) What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank? a. Sump and drain.
41. (411) A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of b. rubber or nylon material.
42. (411) Wing tanks are c. sealed-off parts of the wing structure.
43. (412) A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used a. for boost, transfer, or air refueling operations.
44. (412) What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing? d. Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor.
45. (412) What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions? c. Dual-impeller.
46. (412) In a dual-impeller fuel pump what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open? a. An inlet screen.
47. (412) What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication? c. Bearings.
48. (412) What air refueling pump component removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers? a. Rotor.
49. (413) The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the a. direction of free flow.
50. (413) A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used c. when gravity flow through the valve is undesirable.
51. (413) The fuel system components that prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the valve body are three d. spring-loaded relief valves.
52. (413) The rotary plug valve can be removed and replaced a. without draining the fuel lines or tanks.
53. (413) What rotary plug valve part rotates and seals off the passage of fuel during plug valve removal? d. Secondary seal sleeve.
54. (413) Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is a. butterfly.
55. (413) In a piston-type, fuel level control valve, what aids piston closure and prevents fuel from entering the tank? b. Spring.
56. (413) Some fuel level control valves have a dual-float system so that a. there will be a double safety factor.
57. (413) The low-level shutoff valve prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the valve by what type of action? c. Check valve.
58. (414) Fuel-controlled switches normally control circuits that indicate d. all of the above.
59. (414) What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank? b. Float switches.
60. (414) In a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, what positions the wiper contact on the resistance strip? b. The movement of a float in the tanks.
61. (414) What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density? b. Capacitor.
62. (414) What prevents a fuel tank from collapsing if an air pressure regulator fails and excessive negative pressure develops? d. Pressure/vacuum relief valve.
63. (415) A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure d. positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions.
64. (415) The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the c. sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc.
65. (415) The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow, a. air pressure, and pump.
66. (415) What is the basic purpose of the fuel vent system? d. Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse.
67. (416) The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is c. single-point.
68. (416) The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated a. hydraulically, but controlled electrically.
69. (417) Fuel’s ability to hold contaminants in suspension is increased with a higher d. viscosity.
70. (417) What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form? b. Sand or dust
71. (417) Which type of fuel contaminant can form a red, brown, gray, or black slime in the fuel? d. Microbial growth.
72. (417) Specks or granules of sediment in fuel that are visible to the naked eye are approximately how many microns or larger? b. 40.
73. (418) Classification of fuel leaks is necessary in order to determine c. whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard.
74. (418) How are fuel leaks categorized? c. Class A through D.
75. (418) Leak limits correspond to the c. leak category and fuel type.
76. (418) In addition to the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A or AFTO Form 781K, what form must you use to document fuel leaks when automatic data systems are not available? c. AFTO Form 427.
77. (419) The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called b. Inertia.
78. (419) The ability to do work is the definition of a. energy.
79. (419) An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of b. Newton’s First Law of Motion.
80. (419) Which of Newton’s Laws of Motion is the best description of why an operating jet engine produces forward thrust? c. Third.
81. (420) In a jet engine, what meters the fuel for combustion? c. Fuel control.
82. (420) When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy, b. 60 percent is used for accessories.
83. (420) What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure? a. Increases pressure.
84. (420) Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require d. greater velocity exiting than entering.
85. (420) When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel? d. Nozzle diaphragm.
86. (421) A jet engine derives its name from the fact that d. it uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.
87. (421) What are the two types of jet engine compressors? d. Centrifugal and axial-flow.
88. (421) After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to c. rotational and centrifugal forces.
89. (421) What determines the N2 compressor rotations per minute (RPM) of a dual-spool jet engine compressor? c. Fuel control.
90. (421) What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor? d. Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor.
91. (422) The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between d. 95 and 100 percent.
92. (422) Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by b. directing air around the plug electrode.
93. (422) What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber? a. Interlocking stainless steel bands.
94. (422) Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or after engine shutdown is a. drained overboard by a drain system.
95. (423) The three turbine designs used in jet engines are c. impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.
96. (423) On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place? d. Lock strips.
97. (424) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the b. jet nozzle.
98. (424) What is the purpose of the exhaust duct? d. Straighten exhaust gas-flow.
99. (424) One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the c. segmented flap.
100. (424) What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity? b. Flameholder.
101. (425) Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design? a. Turbojet.
102. (425) A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as c. medium bypass.
103. (426) The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to d. meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times.
104. (426) What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine? d. Electrohydromechanical.
105. (426) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to a. heat the fuel and cool the oil.
106. (427) When classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump? d. Sliding vane.
107. (427) What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing? b. Gerotor.
108. (427) A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to d. 1/25,000 of an inch.
109. (427) The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and a. fuel/oil.
110. (427) What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system? c. Gasket.
111. (428) What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective? c. Compressor.
112. (428) The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines c. has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.
113. (428) The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and c. an overrunning clutch.
114. (428) In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter (JFS) a. Power takeoff (PTO) shaft.
115. (428) What jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plugs? d. Transformer.
116. (428) A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of d. vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.
117. (429) Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of d. maximum RPM.
118. (429) The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine’s a. available thrust output.
119. (429) Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in d. degrees Celsius.
120. (430) The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and c. increased equipment availability.
121. (430) Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be c. less unnecessary maintenance.
122. (431) At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample? b. Goggles and gloves.
123. (431) What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand? b. An increase in silicon.
124. (431) What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples? b. DD Form 2026.
Created by: addiaz_915