Busy. Please wait.
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
or

Username is available taken
show password

why


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
Know
remaining cards
Save
0:01
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

2AX5X Vol.2 URE

QuestionAnswer
1. (201) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is a. 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi).
2. (201) A barometer is designed to measure pressure in b. inches of mercury.
3. (202) The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is d. weight.
4. (202) The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is a. lift.
5. (202) The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is b. drag.
6. (203) The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called d. shear.
7. (203) What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuselage called? d. Semi-monocoque.
8. (203) The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called c. stringers.
9. (203) The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is d. aluminum alloy.
10. (203) The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is a. cantilever.
11. (203) The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the d. fin.
12. (203) Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion- resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of c. 180,000 to 200,000 psi.
13. (203) The main difference between inspection plates and panels is a. size.
14. (203) A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is called a. crazing.
15. (203) What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called? b. Waterlines.
16. (204) Movement about the vertical axis is called b. yaw.
17. (204) Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface? c. Elevator.
18. (204) Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer? d. Elevator.
19. (204) When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailing edge is b. up, left aileron trailing edge is down.
20. (204) The purpose of wing flaps is to a. increase lift and drag.
21. (204) The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to c. correct minor deviations in flight attitude.
22. (205) Matter is any substance that has mass and b. occupies space.
23. (205) Atoms are made up of d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
24. (205) Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except b. cold.
25. (205) What is the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called? c. Electromotive force.
26. (205) If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be b. 4.
27. (206) A permanent magnet is produced from a material with b. high reluctance and low permeability.
28. (206) When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is d. magnetized.
29. (206) The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the b. greater the strength.
30. (207) Current flow in most aircraft circuits is controlled by d. switches.
31. (207) The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located a. in the aircraft cabin.
32. (208) What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals? d. Alternating.
33. (208) The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are b. engine oil and blast air.
34. (208) The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately c. 8,000 RPM.
35. (208) The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at c. 365 Hz.
36. (208) What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the constant speed drive (CSD)? a. Accessory gearbox.
37. (209) A battery’s internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active chemical materials is called the a. plate.
38. (209) A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has b. 19 cells.
39. (209) The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by b. constant current.
40. (209) What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)? c. Universal.
41. (209) A shunt-type motor has c. low starting torque and good speed regulation.
42. (210) The three states of matter are d. liquids, gases, and solids.
43. (210) When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have a. passed the elastic limit.
44. (210) The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its d. ability to conform to the shape of its container.
45. (210) What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system? b. Piston pushing the fluid.
46. (210) Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases? b. Boyle.
47. (211) If 50 pounds per square inch (psi) of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head, what will the resulting force be? c. 250 pounds.
48. (211) When an 8-square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, what volume of liquid is displaced? b. 40 cubic inches.
49. (211) Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by c. creating resistance and loss of energy.
50. (211) A tube whose cross-section area is gradually reduced to a smaller size diameter is called a d. venturi.
51. (212) The purposes of a hydraulic reservoir are to d. replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the system.
52. (212) The purpose of a standpipe in a reservoir is to c. reserve fluid for the emergency pump.
53. (212) The amount of fluid a pump produces on each cycle or revolution is called its a. displacement.
54. (212) When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means a. fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle.
55. (212) Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because b. they have an integral compensator.
56. (212) What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump? c. Creep plates.
57. (212) In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, what holds the pistons in contact with the cam plate? b. Nutating plate.
58. (212) The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into a. rotary mechanical motion.
59. (213) How is the piston installed in an accumulator? b. Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator.
60. (213) The size of one micron is four c. millionths of an inch.
61. (213) In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the c. common fluid lines can come together.
62. (214) The purpose of an actuating cylinder is to transform fluid pressure into b. a mechanical force.
63. (214) What pneudraulic system component uses a single-acting actuating cylinder? c. Brake assembly.
64. (214) What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder? d. Nosewheel steering.
65. (214) Which actuator type slows down piston travel when the piston nears either end of the cylinder? c. Internal snubber.
66. (214) A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated to d. unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet.
67. (214) The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its b. metering ability.
68. (214) Normally, what positions hydraulic selector valves? d. Solenoid.
69. (214) The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its a. reduced weight.
70. (214) The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the c. servo valve controls fluid-flow.
71. (214) Another name for a flapper check valve is b. gate check valve.
72. (214) What is the purpose of the arrow on a check valve? c. Show the direction of free flow through the valve.
73. (214) Which of these allows normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while limiting speed in the other direction? b. Restrictor check valve.
74. (215) What are the basic units of a hydraulic hand pump system? d. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shutoff valve.
75. (215) The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump c. by gravity and the suction effect of the pump.
76. (215) When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow c. decreases.
77. (216) The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to d. prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.
78. (216) How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve? c. By a cable system.
79. (216) What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center? b. Safety switch.
80. (216) Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears are known as b. proximity sensors.
81. (217) A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as a. a steer damper.
82. (218) What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear? b. DN.
83. (218) What slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence? d. Snubbing mechanism.
84. (218) The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to b. sound when gear is not safe.
85. (219) Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action a. loss due to overheating.
86. (219) A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they a. warp when overheated.
87. (219) What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake? d. Adjusters.
88. (219) The purpose of the antiskid system is to d. prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel.
89. (219) The purpose of deboosters is to b. reduce braking pressure.
90. (220) Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of d. magnesium and/or aluminum alloys.
91. (220) Split wheels are balanced c. individually by halves.
92. (220) What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves? b. An O-ring seal.
93. (220) What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup? d. Thermal relief plugs.
94. (220) What the type of bearings is used on aircraft wheels? c. Tapered roller.
95. (220) The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the b. inner race.
96. (220) When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use b. a wire brush.
97. (220) Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and d. overheating marks.
98. (220) The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall, a. cord body, and beads.
99. (220) What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire? c. Vent holes.
100. (220) For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of c. 12 inches.
Created by: addiaz_915